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NASM CPT PRACTICE QUESTIONS

NASM
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Terms in this set (203)

Which of the following is a goal of the Stabilization Level of the OPT model?
Enhance joint stability
A client's increase in biceps strength from performing dumbbell curls is evidence of which fitness principle?
specificity
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
vertical loading
What is occuring when a prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury?
exhaustion
A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?
strength
What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?
low-back pain
Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action system?
Performing a circuit of exercises, alternating upper and lower body movements.
Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead?
Step-up to balance
Which of the following focuses on increasing muscle size?
hypertrophy training
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
two legs
The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following?
Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise?
Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart.
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?
Peripheral heart action
Which of the following is muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power?
prime mover
Which of the following terms refers to the division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages?
periodization
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Leg-stabilization exercise
What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?
vertical loading
For which of the following populations would hypertrophy training be most beneficial?
body builders
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?
Standing cable row
hich of the following should be retracted and depressed during the mid phase of a standing cable row?
scapulae
A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?
Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
Which of the following is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set?
pyramid system
What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?
Squat, curl, to two-arm press
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman's aerobic energy system?
...
What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?
mechanical specificity
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress?
general adaptation syndrome
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?
Medicine ball rotation chest pass
A personal trainer is working with a client in Phase 5 of the OPT model. Which of the following exercises is appropriate?
soccer throw
Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension?
muscular hypertrophy
Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training?
It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.
What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise?
Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart.
Which term refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal power in a minimal amount of time?
Rate of force production
Which of the following can be caused by low-back injuries?
Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core
Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?
Pushing/pulling assessments
During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demonstrates shoulder elevation. Which of the following muscles are most likely overactive?
levator scapulae
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
shark skill test
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
levator scapulae
Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?

a. Diastolic Correct
b. Systolic
c. Medial
d. Distal
diastolic
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints is the fitness professional observing from the lateral view?

a. Feet and cervical spine
b. Cervical spine and knees
c. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and shoulder complex
d. Feet and knees
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and shoulder complex
Which of the following body composition assessment methods is based on the principle that lean mass sinks, whereas body fat floats?

a. Skinfold measurement
b. Hydrostatic weighing
c. Bioelectrical impedance
d. Body mass index
Hydrostatic weighing
The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying which of the following?
An individual's level of risk for cardiovascular disease
During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
TFL
Which of the following is the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
Skinfold measurement
Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation?
Body composition testing results
Which of the following is a characteristic of upper crossed syndrome?
Forward head and rounded shoulders
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
physiological measurements
Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations?
Pushing assessment, lateral view
What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test?
weight
Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to which of the following?
A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella
Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?
gluteus maximus
What is the BMI range with the lowest risk of disease?
22-24.9
Which muscle do clients need proper extensibility of before performing the ball medicine ball (MB) pullover throw exercise, in order to decrease stress to the low back and shoulders?
Latissimus dorsi
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
90-degree
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following?
Lower back
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
Posteriorly rotated pelvis
Ryan is performing static stretching on a client's calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?
The client's feet had turned out.
Which of the following is a factor of the FITTE principle used to determine exercise training programs for each individual?
Frequency
Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?
Strength Level client
What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?
Bracing
Holding a static stretch for at least 30 seconds causes which of the following neuromuscular phenomena?
Autogenic inhibition
To which of the following do the local core stabilizers attach?
Vertebrae
In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?
When overactive muscles have been identified
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
Psoas
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
30 seconds minimum
If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following?
Synergistic dominance
Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training?
It decreases resting heart rate.
What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?
Autogenic inhibition
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?
Single-leg squat touchdown
Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?
Under the arm
Which of the following is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion?
Corrective Flexibility
Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched?
Extensibility
Lower crossed syndrome
A postural distortion syndrome characterized by an anterior tilt to the pelvis (arched lower back)
Upper crossed syndrome
A postural distortion syndrome characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders.
For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed?

a. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
b. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities
c. For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels
d. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base
a. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
A waist-to-hip ratio over which of the following puts a female client at risk for a number of diseases?

Select one:
a. 0.2
b. 0.60
c. 0.80
d. 0.40
c. 0.80
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
Select one:
a. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
b. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
c. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
d. 90° internally rotated humerus
c. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
Select one:
a. 45-degree
b. 90-degree
c. 60-degree
d. 120-degree
b. 90-degree
Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
Select one:
a. Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
b. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers "no" to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
c. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed.
d. Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension.
a. Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?
Select one:
a. Enteric nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Autonomic nervous system
d. Central nervous system
d. Central nervous system
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
d. Single-leg balance reach
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?
Select one:
a. Systolic
b. Diastolic
c. Distal
d. Medial
b. Diastolic
Which of the following exercise techniques involves lying on one's back and raising the hips off a bench?
Select one:
a. The floor cobra
b. The squat curl
c. The inverted row
d. The reverse crunch
d. The reverse crunch
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Piriformis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Levator scapulae
d. Levator scapulae
Shortly after starting his new job as an editor and writer, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and shoulders. Which of the following postures are most likely to have led to his discomfort?
Select one:
a. Arms fallen forward
b. Excessive forward lean
c. Knees caved in and feet turned out
d. Forward head and shoulder elevation
d. Forward head and shoulder elevation
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?
Select one:
a. Decrease blood pressure
b. Has no effect
c. Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles
d. Increase blood pressure
a. Decrease blood pressure
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
Select one:
a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
b. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
c. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed
a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
Ryan is performing static stretching on a client's calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?
Select one:
a. The client's feet had turned out.
b. The client had an anterior pelvic tilt.
c. The client's knees bowed out.
d. The client had a posterior pelvic tilt.
a. The client's feet had turned out.
In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
Select one:
a. Abduction
b. Flexion
c. Extension
d. Adduction
b. Flexion
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?
Select one:
a. Cable chop
b. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
c. Cable rotation
d. Rolling active resistance row
b. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
Which of the following is a form of training in which an individual reacts to the ground surface in such a way that he or she develops larger than normal ground forces that can be used to project the body with a greater velocity or speed of movement?
Select one:
a. High-intensity training
b. Reactive training
c. Vacuum exercise
d. Hypopressive exercise
b. Reactive training
Which of the following exercises is the best example of a Stabilization Level exercise?
Select one:
a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Repeat squat jumps
c. Barbell squat
d. Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press
d. Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press
Which of the following most accurately describes an individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 29?
Select one:
a. Underweight
b. Normal
c. Obese
d. Overweight
d. Overweight
For which exercise is a single-leg position a progression?
Select one:
a. Floor crunch
b. Kneeling cable rotation
c. Back extension
d. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Medicine ball chest pass
During the overhead squat assessment a clien'ts knees move inward. Which of the following strengthening exercises is MOST appropriate to correct this movement impairment?
Select one:
a. Lunge jumps
b. Hip adductor machine
c. Tube walking
d. Sumo deadlift
c. Tube walking
Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?
Select one:
a. Between the shoulder blades
b. At the thoracic spine
c. On the low back
d. Under the arm
d. Under the arm
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?
Select one:
a. Pyramid system training
b. Circuit training
c. Plyometric-strength training
d. Drop-set training
b. Circuit training
Which of the following is designed to assess dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Push-up test
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Pulling assessment
c. Overhead squat assessment
Which of the following is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?
Select one:
a. Brachial pulse
b. Carotid pulse
c. Radial pulse
d. Axillary pulse
c. Radial pulse
The Durnin-Womersley formula's four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations?
Select one:
a. Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring
b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest
c. Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique
d. Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh
b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest
Which of the following is muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power?
Select one:
a. Prime mover
b. Neutralizer
c. Fixator
d. Antagonist
a. Prime mover
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
Select one:
a. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
b. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
c. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
d. Affect posture and muscle balance
a. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-power exercise
b. Balance-strength exercise
c. Balance-modification exercise
d. Balance-stabilization exercise
a. Balance-power exercise
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Seated lat pull down
b. Standing cable row
c. Medicine ball pull over throw
d. Seated cable row
b. Standing cable row
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?
Select one:
a. Reverse crunch
b. Ball medicine pullover throw
c. Back extension
d. Two-leg floor bridge
c. Back extension
Which of the following refers to a resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part?
Select one:
a. Split-routine
b. Supersets
c. Circuit training
d. Horizontal loading
d. Horizontal loading
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
Select one:
a. Relative flexibility
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Myotatic stretch-reflex
d. Synergistic dominance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
Which assessment provides an estimation of a client's cardiorespiratory fitness level?
Select one:
a. The LEFT test
b. The one-tailed test
c. YMCA step test
d. The two-tailed test
c. YMCA step test
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?
Select one:
a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
b. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation
c. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation
d. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?
Select one:
a. Dynamic equilibrium
b. Static equilibrium
c. Postural equilibrium
d. Mechanical equilibrium
c. Postural equilibrium
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
Select one:
a. Pronation distortion syndrome
b. Lower extremity movement syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Lower crossed syndrome
a. Pronation distortion syndrome
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?
Select one:
a. Vertical loading system
b. Pyramid system
c. Superset system
d. Split-routine system
d. Split-routine system
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Select one:
a. Perform the exercise without a bench.
b. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
c. Perform the exercise with legs elevated.
d. Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down.
b. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Rotation chest pass
b. Cable rotation
c. Floor prone cobra
d. Ball crunch
c. Floor prone cobra
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular
b. Mechanical
c. Overload
d. Metabolic
d. Metabolic
During a workout, a personal trainer wants to increase the proprioceptive demand of a standard push-up exercise for his client. Which of the following would be a proper progression?
Select one:
a. Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball
b. Hands on the wall, feet on the floor
c. Hands on the floor, knees on the floor
d. Hands on a bench, feet on the floor
a. Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?
Select one:
a. Single-leg throw and catch
b. Ball dumbbell chest press
c. Floor push-ups
d. Medicine ball rotation chest pass
d. Medicine ball rotation chest pass
Which of the following is true for the upper extremity strength assessment?
Select one:
a. Rest interval between attempts should be 4 to 5 min.
b. For the greatest degree of accuracy, perform 8-10 repetitions.
c. Perform this assessment for clients with weight-loss goals.
d. Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance.
d. Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance.
Which assessment should a personal trainer use to determine the heart rate zone a client should begin training at?
Select one:
a. YMCA step test
b. L.E.F.T. test
c. Davies test
d. Shark skill test
a. YMCA step test
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-stabilization exercise
b. Leg-stabilization exercise
c. Balance-power exercise
d. Balance-modification exercise
b. Leg-stabilization exercise
Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
Select one:
a. One-ins
b. Tuck jump
c. Ice skaters
d. Power step-ups
a. One-ins
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment?
Select one:
a. Assessing lower-extremity agility and balance
b. Estimating one-rep maximum and upper-extremity strength
c. Assessing upper-extremity agility and stabilization
d. Assessing dynamic flexibility and integrated total body strength
c. Assessing upper-extremity agility and stabilization
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
Select one:
a. Medial gastrocnemius
b. Adductor complex
c. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
d. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor complex
What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?
Select one:
a. Mechanical specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Cardiovascular specificity
d. Metabolic specificity
a. Mechanical specificity
What is a single-leg balance an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-power exercise
b. Balance-modification exercise
c. Balance-stabilization exercise
d. Balance-strength exercise
c. Balance-stabilization exercise
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
Select one:
a. Lower crossed syndrome
b. Lower extremity movement syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Pronation distortion syndrome
d. Pronation distortion syndrome
The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
Which term represents the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work synergistically?
Select one:
a. Davis's law
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Neuromuscular efficiency
d. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Neuromuscular efficiency
How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. 3-5 seconds
b. 6-7 seconds
c. 8-10 seconds
d. 1-2 seconds
a. 3-5 seconds
Which of the following is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set?
Select one:
a. Circuit training
b. Vertical loading
c. Pyramid system
d. Split-routine
c. Pyramid system
A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using?
Select one:
a. Static stretching
b. Active-isolated stretching
c. Self-myofascial release
d. Dynamic stretching
c. Self-myofascial release
Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action system?
Select one:
a. Performing two exercises of similar joint dynamics in rapid succession.
b. Performing a circuit of exercises, alternating upper and lower body movements.
c. Performing exercises with an increase in weight for each set.
d. Performing all sets of an exercise before moving on to the next exercise.
b. Performing a circuit of exercises, alternating upper and lower body movements.
What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper-extremity (bench press) strength assessment?
Select one:
a. 15%-20%
b. 10%-15%
c. 5%-10%
d. 1%-2%
c. 5%-10%
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Balance-strength
b. Balance-power
c. Balance-stabilization
d. Balance-plyometric
a. Balance-strength
Which term refers to the motion of a joint?
Select one:
A Wave summations
B Arthrokinematics
C Excitation-contraction coupling
D Force-velocity curves
Arthrokinematics
Shoulder elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?

Select one:
A Superior
B Axial
C Vertical
D Transverse
Superior
How does metabolism behave during EPOC?

Select one:
A Remains elevated
B Remains unaffected
C Fluctuates
D Increases
remains elevated
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?

Select one:
A Diaphragm
B Scalenes
C Internal oblique
D Rectus abdominis
Scalenes
Which of the following is a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream?

Select one:
A Endocrine system
B Immune system
C Respiratory system
D Integumentary system
Respiratory system
Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?

Select one:
A Distal
B Superior
C Contralateral
D Ipsilateral
Contralateral
What refers to a position relatively closer to the midline of the body?

Select one:
A Anterior
B Superior
C Distal
D Medial
Medial
Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and protein?

Select one:
A Insulin
B Norepinephrine
C Cortisol
D Testosterone
Cortisol
Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle?

Select one:
A Skeletal muscle fibers are shorter than cardiac muscle fibers.
B Skeletal muscle fibers are more tightly connected than cardiac muscle fibers.
C It is composed of intercalated discs.
D It is a voluntary muscle.
It is a voluntary muscle.
The body's ability to differentiate between walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which of the following functions of the nervous system?

Select one:
A Arthrokinematic
B Integrative
C Motor
D Sensory
Sensory
What is produced primarily in the ovaries in the female and in small amounts in the adrenal glands in males?

Select one:
A Cortisol
B Testosterone
C Epinephrine
D Estrogen
Estrogen
What kind of muscle action is raising a dumbbell up against the direction of resistance?

Select one:
A Concentric action
B Isometric action
C Eccentric action
D Auxotonic action
Concentric action
Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?

Select one:
A Sagittal
B Anterior-posterior
C Frontal
D Transverse
transverse
Which term refers to an imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves?

Select one:
A Sagittal plane
B Transverse plane
C Frontal plane
D Axial plane
frontal plane
As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force decreases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?

Select one:
A Eccentric
B Arthrokinetic
C Isometric
D Concentric
concentric
Which of the following is made up of the upper and lower extremities as well as the shoulder and pelvic girdles and encompasses approximately 126 bones?

Select one:
A Vertebral column
B Articular cartilage
C Appendicular skeleton
D Epiphyseal plate
Appendicular skeleton
What is a life-sustaining fluid that supplies the body's organs and cells with oxygen and nutrients and helps regulate body temperature, fight infections, and remove waste products?

Select one:
A Bile
B Rheum
C Blood
D Exudate
blood
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?

Select one:
A Capillaries
B Venules
C Sinoatrial node
D Atrioventricular node
capillaries
What term refers to a bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases?

Select one:
A Flexion
B Abduction
C Eversion
D Evulsion
Flexion
Which of the following is true of glycogen?

Select one:
A It is the chemical or substrate form in which most fat exist.
B It is a form of glucose stored predominantly in the epidermal cells.
C It is used by the body during short-duration, low-intensity activities.
D It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose.
It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose.
In the endocrine system, which of the following secretes hormones such as corticosteroids and catecholamines in response to stress?

Select one:
A Thyroid gland
B Pineal gland
C Adrenal gland
D Hypothalamus
Adrenal Gland
Which of the following is a characteristic of joint receptors in the human body?

Select one:
A They relay information from the joint sites back to the brain via efferent neurons.
B They respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints.
C They are responsible for joint injuries resulting from extreme joint positions.
D They are known as the "soma" and process information from dendrites.
They respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints.
A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following energy systems is the client primarily using to produce energy?

Select one:
A Anaerobic glycolysis
B Oxidative
C ATP-PC
D Phosphagen
oxidative
Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?

Select one:
A 0.35 mL
B 3.5 mL
C 350 mL
D 35.0 mL
3.5 mL
Which systems accomplish human movement through their functional integration?

Select one:
A Cardiac, respiratory, and lymphatic systems
B Integumentary, exocrine, and circulatory systems
C Muscular, nervous, and skeletal systems
D Digestive, endocrine, and renal systems
Muscular, nervous, and skeletal systems
When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use?

Select one:
A Oxidative
B ATP-PC
C Glycolysis
D Aerobic
ATP-PC
What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?

Select one:
A The amount of stored adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the body increases.
B The amount of available fuel for exercise from fats is exhausted
C The majority of muscle glycogen stores are deplete
D The oxidation of proteins predominates as the primary energy source.
The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted
Which of the following is a characteristic of muscle spindles?

Select one:
A They transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another.
B They provide the ability to sense the relative position of adjacent parts of the body.
C They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change.
D They are slow twitch, "red" muscle fibers with a high degree of mitochondria.
They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change.
Which is an example of an eccentric motion?

Select one:
A Pressing dumbbells overhead
B Landing from a jump
C Jumping upward
D Holding a plank position
Landing from a jump
With which of the following terms is eccentric motion synonymous?

Select one:
A Acceleration
B Constant force
C Deceleration
D Constant length
Deceleration
What is the body's motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli called?

Select one:
A Arthrokinematics
B Motor behavior
C Force-couple
D Homeostasis
Motor behavior
What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules?

Select one:
A Mechanoreceptors
B Photoreceptors
C Osmoreceptors
D Chemoreceptors
Mechanoreceptors
Horizontal abduction involves the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from which of the following positions to a lateral position?

Select one:
A Anterior
B Posterior
C Ipsilateral
D Inferior
Anterior
Front lunges and biceps curls occur in which plane of motion?

Select one:
A Frontal
B Transverse
C Scapular
D Sagittal
Sagittal
Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?

Select one:
A Muscle spindle
B Golgi tendon organ
C Ruffini endings
D Intercalated disc
Muscle Spindles
What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?

Select one:
A Stroke volume
B End-diastolic volume
C Maximal lung capacity
D Maximal oxygen consumption
Maximal oxygen consumption
Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?

Select one:
A Glycogenesis
B The Kreb's cycle
C The Cori cycle
D Gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Which of the following energy systems is used most when running a 10-second sprint?

Select one:
A Glycolysis
B Krebs cycle
C Oxidative
D ATP-PC
ATP-PC
Within what range is the typical resting heart rate of a human being?

Select one:
A 10 and 40 bpm
B 90 and 100 bpm
C 50 and 70 bpm
D 70 and 80 bpm
70 and 80 bpm
What is the term referring to the synergistic action of muscle groups to produce movement around a joint?

Select one:
A Moment of force
B Force-couple relationship
C Stretch-shortening cycle
D Length-tension relationship
Force-couple relationship
Which of the following consists of a series of irregularly shaped bones divided into five different categories depending on where they are located in the backbone?

Select one:
A Vertebral column
B Medullar cavity
C Epiphyseal plate
D Articular cartilage
Vertebral column
The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between which of the following?

Select one:
A Work and energy production
B Mass and volume
C Torque production and inertia
D Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
Which of the following is true of eccentric motion?

Select one:
A It is known as "a positive" in the health and fitness industry.
B It is known as "a negative" in the health and fitness industry.
C The antagonist muscle lengthens.
D The agonist muscle is shortening.
It is known as "a negative" in the health and fitness industry.
A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting?

Select one:
A Motor learning
B Autogenic inhibition
C Synergistic dominance
D Relative flexibility
Motor learning
Around which axis does frontal plane motion occur?

Select one:
A Horizontal
B Mediolateral
C Longitudinal
D Anterior-posterior
Anterior-posterior
Which term refers to a position on or toward the back of the body?

Select one:
A Anterior
B Posterior
C Lateral
D Ipsilateral
Posterior
Which of the following is a small terminal branch of an artery, which ends in capillaries?

Select one:
A Venule
B Vein
C Arteriole
D Atrium
c. Arteriole
Where should the highest percentage of caloric intake come from when trying to increase lean body mass?

a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Liquids
d. Carbohydrates
d. Carbohydrates
Which step in the SMART goal setting process is focused on creating goals that are challenging but not too extreme?

Select one:
a. Time-bound
b. Measurable
c. Attainable
d. Specific
c. Attainable
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. "Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points."
b. I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs."
c. "Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends."
d. "I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet."
d. "I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet."
What type of support is tangible and practial to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?
Select one:
a. Informational support
b. Companionship support
c. Instrumental support
d. Emotional support
c. Instrumental support
When training a youth client, which of the following factors will determine when you can progress to the next phase of training?
Select one:
a. Agility and quickness
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Amount of weight that can be used
d. Postural control
d. Postural control
Which of the following is most likely to happen in the first 20 seconds of meeting a new client?
Select one:
a. Assessments are started.
b. First impressions are made.
c. The trainer should present training packages for purchase.
d. The exercise program should be started.
b. First impressions are made.
Which of the following is the best example of a closed question?
Select one:
a. Why are you choosing to make changes to your life now?
b. How old are you?
c. Why do you want to lose 30 pounds?
d. How have you tried to lose weight in the past?
b. How old are you?
According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
Select one:
a. They are highly unlikely to reach the termination stage.
b. They are usually stuck in the same stage for a period of two years.
c. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
d. They exhibit complete self-control.
c. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals?

Select one:
a. They receive employment benefits.
b. They may be able to control their own schedule.
c. They are exempt from purchasing liability insurance.
d. They have a schedule set by a gym.
b. They may be able to control their own schedule.
Which of the following should be considered when training clients in their own homes?
Select one:
a. Outdoor event planning
b. Overhead costs
c. Availability of restrooms
d. Packing equipment into the trainer's car
d. Packing equipment into the trainer's car
Which of the following falls within a personal trainer's scope of practice regarding nutrition?
Select one:
a. Write individualized meal plans for a client.
b. Recommend nutritional therapy for a client with rheumatoid arthritis.
c. Discuss the relationship between chronic diseases and specific nutrient deficiencies.
d. Provide a client with a detailed individual nutrition assessment.
c. Discuss the relationship between chronic diseases and specific nutrient deficiencies.
Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
b. Diagnosing injuries
c. Prescribing nutrition plans
d. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
d. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
What are influences that involves cohesion in an exercise setting?
Select one:
a. Parental
b. Exercise group
c. Family
d. Exercise leader
b. Exercise group
Which of the following is an advantage to working as an independent contractor?
Select one:
a. Must pay a percentage of session fees
b. Employed by a fitness club
c. No overhead costs for building or ordinances
d. Marketing is fully supported by a larger entity
c. No overhead costs for building or ordinances
What is an important part of a fitness professional's career?
Select one:
a. To obtain an accredited certification
b. Only work with clients who have access to emerging technologies
c. Focus on younger clients who have interest in emerging technologies
d. Push emerging technologies on their clients
a. To obtain an accredited certification
Amy is a newly certified fitness professional. May realizes that she lacks the expertise to work with the special considerations for a client. Which of the following should Amy do for this client?
Select one:
a. Offer and sell weight loss suplements for all of her clients.
b. Implement Phase 4 exercise programs from the OPT model for her clients.
c. Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
d. Design weight loss meal plans that are effective for the entire group.
c. Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Loss of hair
b. Bone and joint pain
c. Calcification of arteries
d. Osteopenia
c. Calcification of arteries
What is the recommended daily intake for carbohydrates?
Select one:
a. 6-10 g/kg body weight
b. 3-5 g/kg body weight
c. 1-3 g/kg body weight
d. 11-13 g/kg body weight
A. 6-10 g/kg body weight
What is the fourth step in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Preparation
c. Contemplation
d. Precontemplation
a. Action
How many calories are in one gram of protein?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 7
c. 2
d. 9
a. 4
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...