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What is the test administered to screen tuberculosis?


What Type 2 duty is in reference to which type of duty?


The commanding officer of the transferring (parent) command will ensure each family member is screened within how many days of receipt of transfer orders?


Screening supports what by ensuring the service member can execute his or her military duties associated with their military occupation assignment?


What is the genetic material found in cell nuclei used for medication?


What is the term for a family member with an identified special need, which requires special health care or educational services?

Exceptional Family Member (EFM)

Which system adjudicates a service member's "fitness for continued service."?

Disability Evaluation System (DES)

Duty performed in overseas land-based activities, which does not require the service member to be absent more than 150 days per year, but is credited as sea duty due to the relative undesirability of the geographic area is what type of duty?

Type 3 - Overseas remote land-based sea duty

Duty performed in commissioned vessels and deployable squadrons homeported in the US or duty performed in US land based activity and embarked staffs, which require service members to operate away from their duty stations in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty?

Type 2 - Sea Duty

At an overseas or remote MTF ensure the SSC and MTR providers respond within how many working days of receipt of screening inquiries?


What is the computer-based medical management system used in DOD health care facilities?

Composite Health Care System (CHCS)

Temporary Limited Duty is a term applied when a MEB places a service member in a medically restricted duty status as a result of illness, injury, or disease, TLD occurs in periods not to exceed 6 months with a cumulative per career total of how long?

12 months

Navy Type 3,4, or 6 duty is in reference to which type of duty?


Duty performed in US land-based activities where service members are not required to be absent from their duty station in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty?

Type 1 - Shore Duty

What is a public law that required the provision of EIS to infants and toddlers with disabilities (birth - 2 years, inclusive) and their families and a free appropriate public education, to include special education and related services, to preschool and school-age children with disabilities (ages 3-21 years, inclusive)?

IDEA (Individuals with Disabilities Education Act)

Family members require screening when a sailor is serving an unaccompanied tour for how many months or more?


The term Operational Assignment is used in this instruction to designate an assignment to an DON unit which can be expected to deploy from its home base or port for a period of more than how many days?


Duty performed in commissioned vessels and deployable squadrons homeported overseas; or duty performed in overseas land-based activities and embarked staffs, which require service members to operate away from their duty stations in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty?

Type 4 - Overseas sea duty

What is a data repository containing all active and retired military members and their family members?

DEERS (Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System)

What ensures a productive tour for the service member, family, and command and reduces cost?

Proper screening

The CO of the transferring (parent) command will ensure service members complete medical assignment screening not later than how many days after returning to duty following a period of medically restricted duty or finding of "fit for continued Naval service?"


What is a blood enzyme used to test for tolerance to certain medications such as anti-malarial medication?


The loss of how many sailors or marines may compromise the readiness of a unit?


Timely access for remote duty designation purposes is defined as how many hours of driving time under normal conditions?


Duty performed in overseas land-based activities, which are credited as shore duty for rotational purposes, where service members are not required to be absent from their duty station in excess of 150 days per year is what type of duty?

Type 6 - Overseas Shore Duty

Unaccompanied service members may request an accompanied tour and command sponsorship for family members. Whose approval is required for navy personnel?


What is the prerequisite for participation in the TRICARE Extended Care Health Option (ECHO) program?

EFMP enrollment

Service members in the HIV program are governed under what series and are not included in medical assignment screening?


In order to protect sensitive medical information, forward the suitability inquiry to the gaining MTF via only which method?

Naval message traffic

All requests for early returns/reassignment (humanitarian reassignment in the Marine Corps) are submitted as what type of report by the parent command?

Overseas Screening deficiency

The Marine Corps requires service members to update EFMP enrollment how often?

2 years

Treatment is not considered significant if taking medications of low toxicity (e.g., Prozac, Zoloft, or Paxil) for less than how many days?


The service member must be informed of their responsibility to inform his/her command and the SSC at the intermediate MTF of any change in special needs status. Changes include pregnancy, illness, or injury requiring treatment or rehabilitation for longer than how many days, additions or changes to medication, or any other satiation or condition which might alter the initial screening?


Servicewomen who suspect pregnancy must obtain prompt confirmation and inform their CO within how long of pregnancy confirmation?

Two weeks

You need to allow how many working days from receipt of the suitability inquiry for a response and immediately follow-up if the reply is not received by the due date?


Any family member who has not received ACIP recommended immunizations is medically unsuitable to accompany an active duty member to an overseas assignment. Annotate Part 1 of which form, and inform the active duty member, PSD, and the transferring command that this is a disqualifying medical requirement?

NAVMED Form 1300/1

The Navy requires service members to update EFMP enrollment how often?

3 years

If dental exam records are not current, perform what type of dental examination?

Type 2

The screening MTF supporting the initial duty station will conduct an initial suitability screening for service and family members before a service member is assigned to intermediate duty assignment. The initial screening is valid for how many months?


Upon receipt of the completed NAVMED 1300/3, the SSC/LIMDU coordinator will retain an audit copy. The retention period is how many ears after which the record is destroyed?


If command sponsored, suitability screening is required for each family member. Screening conducted within the past how many months meets this requirement?


The pharmacy department will assist in determining the availability of required medications at the gaining MTF or operational pharmacy and will dispense, by prescription, sufficient quantities for the en route period of transfer or period needed by the gaining pharmacy to obtain the required meds (up to how many days)?


Post pregnancy suitability screening is conducted approximately how long after post delivery, when the infant is immunized and the mother and infant can be safely screened?

8 weeks

For those service members failing suitability screening, attending physicians will conduct follow-up evaluations how often?

Every 2 months

Dental examinations of family members performed by civilian providers within the past how many months are considered concurrent?


what is Ionizing radiation?

Ionizing radiation is simply nuclear radiation in the form of particles or electromagnetic waves (photons) that, as it passes through matter, causes atoms to become electrically charged or ionized

How many types of ionizing radiation are there?

There are only four types of ionizing radiation of biological significance. These four types of radiation are classified into two categories—particulate and nonparticulate.

What are the types of particulating ionizing radiation?

Particulate ionizing radiation types are alpha particles, beta particles, and neutrons.

what are nonparticulate radiation types?

The nonparticulate radiation type is electromagnetic radiation (photons of x-rays and gamma rays

what is alpha radiation?

Alpha radiation. An alpha particle is a helium nucleus consisting of two protons and two neutrons all strongly bound together by nuclear forces

what is beta radiation?

Beta radiation. Beta particles are identical to atomic electrons but, like alpha particles, they are ejected from a nucleus when the nucleus rearranges itself into a more stable configuration

What is neutron radiation?

Neutron radiation. Neutrons are electrically neutral, yet because of their relatively large mass, they can severely disrupt atomic structures

What is electromagnetic radiation?

Electromagnetic ( nonparticulate photons) ionizing radiation Gamma and x-rays constitute the most abundant form of ionizing radiation associated with a nuclear detonation

What does "exposure" mean?

Exposure is defined for gamma and x-rays in terms of the amount of ionization they produce in air.

What is the "absorb dose"?

Although the concept of exposure provides a measurement standard for electromagnetic radiation in air, additional concepts are needed for all types of radiation and its interaction with other materials, especially living tissue. Absorbed dose is defined as the radiation energy absorbed per unit mass.

What is the "dose rate"?

Dose rate is the dose of radiation per unit of time

What is the activity level of radioactive material?

The activity level of a radioactive material is simply a measure of how many atoms disintegrate (decay) per a unit of time

What is half life activity?

Half life Activity is tied to a physical property of a radionuclide known as the half-life. The half-life of a radionuclide is the amount of time it takes one-half of the nuclei to decay

How does a nuclear det occur?

A nuclear detonation results from the formation of a supercritical mass of fissile material, with a near instantaneous release of nuclear binding energies and large-scale conversion of mass to energy

How is the energy of a nuclear explosion transfer?

The energy of a nuclear explosion is transferred to the environment in three distinct forms—blast, thermal radiation, and nuclear radiation

What is "airburst"?

Airburst. An airburst is an explosion in which a weapon is detonated in air at an altitude of sufficient height that the fireball does not contact the surface of the earth In the vicinity of ground zero, there may be a small area of neutron-induced ground activity (NIGA) that could be hazardous to troops required to pass through the area. The NIGA hazard is temporary, lasting only a few days to a few weeks

What is a "surface burst"

A surface burst is an explosion in which a weapon is detonated on, or slightly above, the surface of the earth so that the fireball actually touches the land or water surface

What is a "subsurface burst"?

A subsurface burst is an explosion in which the point of the detonation is beneath the surface of the land or water.

What is a "high altitude burst"?

A high altitude burst is one in which the weapon is exploded at a high altitude (typically above 50 km) so that it generates an intense electromagnetic pulse (EMP) which can significantly degrade the performance of, or destroy sophisticated electronic equipment.

How many types of blast are there?

There are two basic types of blast forces which occur simultaneously in a nuclear detonation blast wave; these are direct blast wave overpressure forces, measured in terms of atmospheres of overpressure; and indirect blast wind drag forces, normally measured in the velocities of the winds which cause them.

What is the most common injury following a blast?

Thermal burns will be the most common injuries, subsequent to both the thermal pulse, and the fires it ignites. The thermal radiation emitted by a nuclear detonation causes burns in two ways, by direct absorption of the thermal energy through exposed surfaces (flash burns), or by the indirect action of fires caused in the environment (flame burns). The relative importance of these two processes will depend upon the nature of the environment. If a nuclear weapon detonation occurs in easily flammable surroundings, indirect flame burns could possibly outnumber all other types of injury.

Why is a thermal burn extremely difficult to manage?

Because of the complexity of burn treatment and the increased logistical requirements associated with the management of burns, they will constitute the most difficult problem faced by the medical service

How long can flash blindness last?

At night, flash blindness can last for up to 30 minutes

What % of energy is released in a nuke airburst?

About 5 percent of the energy released in a nuclear airburst is transmitted in the form of initial neutron and gamma radiation

Should surgical treatment be delayed if patient is radiologically contaminated?

the external contamination hazard to both the patient and attending medical personnel will be so negligible that NECESSARY MEDICAL OR SURGICAL TREATMENT MUST NOT BE DELAYED BECAUSE OF POSSIBLE CONTAMINATION.

What does chapter 2 cover?


What is the most common type of agent that troops will encounter on the battle field?


How many type of Brucella are there?


What is the reservoir for Brucella melitensis?

sheep, goats, and camels

What is the reservoir for Brucella abortus?


What is the reservoir for Brucella suis?


What is the reservoir for Brucella canis?


How is Brucella detected?

From food of the infected organism

What is the reservoir for MELIOIDOSIS?

Soil and water

What is the reservoir for Glanders?

Horses, mules, and donkeys

What is the reservoir for Plague?


What precautions should you take when dealing with plague victims?


What is the reservoir for Q Fever?

sheep, goats, cattle, dogs, cats, some wild mammals, birds, and ticks

What are some neurological complications that can occur with Q FEVER?

aseptic meningitis or encephalitis

What is the reservoir for TULAREMIA?

rabbits, hares, rodents, and ticks

In what part of the world is Tularemia usually found?

Northern Hemisphere

What is the most common method of exposure for all biological agents?


What form is used to maintain chain of custody for all samples for BW testing?

Army form DA 4137

How much blood should be collected during an autopsy for testing?


How much suspected serum should be collected for suspected infectious agents?


Tissue samples obtained during an autopsy need to weigh how much for microbiology and intoxication testing?

20-25 grams

How long after a person is recovering for a BW attack should new blood samples be taken from personnel?

3-4 weeks

How much serum is needed for suspected intoxications be collected after S/S develop?


If there is a chance that members have been exposed to smallpox how quickly should they be immunized?

Within 1-7 days

How long are personnel to be quarantined after an outbreak of smallpox?

17 days

What is the incubation period for smallpox?

7-17 days most often 10-12 days

What is the treatment for smallpox?

To administer VIG 0.6 ml/kg every 2 to 3 days IM in divided doses at multiple sites over a 24 to 36 hour period until no new lesions appear

What is the preventive measure for viral hemorrhagic fever? .

To ensure all AD members have a yellow fever vaccine

How is VENEZUELAN EQUINE ENCEPHALITIS transmitted to humans?

Via mosquito bites

What type of agent is VEE?

An incapacitating agent

What is the incubation period for VENEZUELAN EQUINE ENCEPHALITIS?

1-15 days


Non specific administer anticonvulsive therapy as needed

VENEZUELAN EQUINE ENCEPHALITIS is usually found in what part of the world?

Central/South America and Trinidad

What is the incubation period for CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM TOXIN that was ingested?

24-36 hours

What is the reservoir for CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM TOXIN?

Soil, animals, and fish

What is the preventive measure for viral hemorrhagic fever?.

To ensure all AD members have a yellow fever vaccine

What is the incubation period for CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM TOXIN that entered via a wound?

3 days

What is the reservoir for Ricin?

Castor beans

What is the reservoir for Saxitoxin?


What is the incubation period for Ricin?

18-24 hours

What is the incubation for Saxitoxin?

Minutes to hours

Each year, approximately how many health care workers become infected with the Hepatitis B virus (HBV)?


The CDC estimates that HBV infection in health care personnel actually results in some 600 hospitalizations and how many deaths annually?


Commanding officers and officers in charge must develop and implement universal protocols of infection control strategies to prevent transmission of HBV and other pathogens of what type?

Bloodborne pathogens

The ability of HBV to survive in the environment, coupled with its high titers in the blood, makes it an excellent model for which practices?

Infection control

COs and OICs must appoint who in writing to assist in implementing the infection control program?

Infection Control Office (ICO)

Infection control involves taking steps to prevent the spread of what?

Infectious agents

What is the process of preventing the access of micro-organisms?


The use of rubber, plastic, paper, foil, or other fluid resistant materials to cover surfaces and protect them from contamination is known as what technique?

Barrier technique

What is the number of micro-organisms contaminating an object and is sometimes also known as bioload or microbial load?


What is an unprocessed biological monitor from the same lot as the test monitor and when cultured serves as a control by verifying the viability of the unexposed organisms?

Biological control

What is a bacterial endospore test designed assess whether sterilization has actually occurred?

Biological monitor

What are pathogenic micro-organisms that are present in human blood and capable of causing disease in humans?

Bloodborne pathogens

What test is a diagnostic test of a prevacuum sterilizer's ability to remove air from the chamber and prevent air reentrant?


What is the destruction of inhibition of most viruses and bacteria while in their active growth phase?

Chemical disinfection

What are chemical dyes used to determine whether the conditions required for sterilization are met?

Chemical indicators

The presence or reasonably expected presence of blood or other potentially infectious material on an item or surface is said to be what?


What is the propagation and growth of micro-organisms or living tissue cells in or on a nutrient medium?


Dental items are classified in one of three ways, based on the pathways through which cross contamination may occur and the location and technique of instrument use. They are what?


What items are instruments, and materials that penetrate the skin, mucous membranes, or bone?


What items are instruments, equipment, or materials that frequently contact mucous membrane but cannot be sterilized due to their design or inability to withstand heat?


What items are instruments, equipment, or materials that do not normally penetrate or contact mucous membranes but which are exposed to splatter, spray, or splashing of blood, or are touched by contaminated hands?


What are equipment or methods which isolate or remove bloodborne pathogens from the workplace?

Engineering controls

A surgical entry into the tissues, cavities, organs or repair of major traumatic injuries is what type of procedure?


Bacteria, fungi, viruses, and bacterial spores are classified as what?


An infection originating in the environment of a hospital or freestanding dental treatment facility is a what?

Nosocomial infection

What is a process which uses steam heat under pressure for sufficient length of time to kill all forms of micro-organisms?

Saturated steam sterilization

What is an acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting?


The process which destroys all types and forms of micro-organisms is called what?


The quantity of materials or supplies required to treat a single patient is called what?

Unit dose

The ICO must ensure that infection control functions are addressed at least how often as part of the command quality assurance program?


The ICO must review and revise all infection control policies and procedures at least how often?


The ICO must include a briefing in the command orientation for all new employees and staff on infection control policies and infectious disease hazards in the workplace per what instruction?


Who directs continuous review and upgrade of the sterilization and infection control syllabus at the Naval School of Dental Assisting and Technology (NSDAT) for the dental technician, basic "A" school?


Commands must review and upgrade their staff and new employee orientation presentation as directed. As a minimum, all personnel will receive initial training within how many days of reporting onboard and at least annually thereafter?


All personnel assigned duties in sterilization areas or functioning as surgical assistants will receive additional documented training in sterilization and what other techniques?


Commands must document infection control training sessions with names of persons attending and conducting, dates, and a summary of the contents of the training and mush maintain these records for at least how many years?


Commands must use what, through the appropriate chain of command, to identify total resources required to meet the guidelines of this directive and those of OHSA and EPA?


A period of up to how long often exists between the time a person becomes infected with a virus and the time when laboratory tests can detect the antigens or antibodies to it?

Several weeks

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