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Terms in this set (...)

define: Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia
abnormally great thirst
abnormally large portions of dilute urine
Excessive hunger
What are the types of shock and define each
Cariogenic: originates in the heart, when the heart can't pump enough blood to meet your bodies needs
septic: A widespread infection causing organ failure and dangerously low blood pressure.
neurogenic: results in low blood pressure and heart rate because of disruption in the pathways of the spinal cord
hypovelmic: results from large amount of blood loss
Peripheral edema
The swelling of tissues (usually the lower limbs) due to the accumulation of fluids.
What are some causes of peripheral edema?
Heart Failure
reduced levels of plasma proteins
increased capillary permebility
Define: SAMPLE
signs & Symptoms
Allergies
Medications
Past medical History
Last oral intake
Events leading up to incident
Acetone breath means:
fruity smell to the breath
What are the phases of a seizure?
...
what happens during the clonic phase of a seizure?
The clonic phase of a seizure consists of rapid flexion and relaxation of muscles, ranging from twitches to violent shaking.
When assessing a patient's blood pressure, what is occurring when you auscultate the "lub" sound?
The AV valves are closing
What happens during the postictal state of a seizure
The postictal state is the altered state of consciousness after an epileptic seizure. It usually lasts between 5 and 30 minutes, but sometimes longer in the case of larger or more severe seizures, and is characterized by drowsiness, confusion, nausea, hypertension, headache or migraine, and other disorienting symptoms.
What disorder is postictal normally associated with?
Epilepsy
define: Miosis
excessive constriction of the pupils of the eye
cyanosis
a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood.
What type of drug overdose is associated with an unconscious person with shallow breathing, miosis, and cyanosis?
Narcotic
Which phase of a seizure follows after a patient has stopped seizing and often presents as confusion, disorientation, pallor, and diaphoresis?
Postictal
Pallor
An unhealthy pale appearance
diaphoresis
sweating profusely
dysuria
painful or difficult urination
Define: Hemoptysis
coughing up blood
Define: Hematemesis
is vomiting blood
Define: Hematuria
blood in urine
Define: Hemothorax
blood in the pleural area
Whats another name for stroke?
CVA- cerebrovascular accident
What is happening when you have stroke symptoms but they last less than 15 minutes?
TIA: Transient ischemic attack
What are normal blood glucose levels?
70-110mg
What are each of the triage categories?
green- walking wounded

priority 1 RED- patients with altered mental status, absent radial pulse, respirations greater than 30/min

priority 2 YELLOW- patients who are alert with radial pulse, respirations greater than 30/min

priority 0 BLACK- not breathing after attempt to open airway, have no pulse and are not breathing
This legislation created the first ALS pilot programs with $142,000,000 in taxpayer funds and resulted in the creation of the NHTSA.
Highway Safety Act of 1966
When emergency medical services personnel fail to gain consent to treat a conscious patient before initiating care, what allegations of wrongdoing may result?
battery
When treating a patient that is suspected of experiencing a stroke, how long should EMS personnel be on scene before transport is initiated?
>15 minutes b/c Thrombolytic therapy can be initiated within 3 hours of symptom onset.
The MOST practical way to prevent cross contamination of patients would be to:
Use disposable equipment whenever possible.
Pertinent negatives
Pertinent negatives are findings that require no medical treatment but help show a complete history when noted in your PCR.
Which of the following would be the BEST method of handling a rescuer who is suffering a critical stress response on scene?
remove him from the scene
An ALS provider has been accused of negligence for improperly intubating a cardiac arrest victim. Choose which element must be proven to hold the rescuer responsible for damages.
Duty to act
What are the stages of delivery or a newborn?
First stage- starts with regular contractions and dilation of the cervix and ends when fully dilated

Second stage- time from when the baby enters the birth canal to when born

Third stage- starts after baby is born and ends after afterbirth takes place
What is the APGAR scale?
appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration
What is the initial management for a patient that has experienced a seizure during pregnancy?
Airway, apply high flow O2, transport on left side, reassure patient
Prehospital management of most lower abdominal pain in females is primarily:
History taking, management of airway and circulation, and transport
In prehospital deliveries of multiple births, about how much time do you have between babies on average?
15-30 minutes
What are the vitals of a new born
...
You are considering an airway adjunct for an unconscious child that may not be able to control his own airway. When inserting an OPA into a child, which of the following is true?
bevel down with no rotation to prevent injury
Which of the following is a common cause of shock in the pediatric patient population?
vomiting and diarrhea = DEHYDRATION
Where is the best place to palpate a pulse on an infant?
Brachial artery
What is the name of the stage of delivery when the baby is delivered?
Expulsion
Define: Otitis media
Ear Infection
Immediately after birth how should you position an infant?
Position the infant at the level of the mother's vagina, with its head slightly lower than the body to facilitate drainage of secretions.
Define: Gravida and Para
Gravida is the number of pregnancies, Para means the number of lives births. Sometimes, they are abbreviated G and P.
When ventilating an infant you have to be careful not to......
over ventilate which leads to gastric distention
What is the primary reason for fetal bradycardia?
Fetal bradycardia is almost always due to maternal hypoxia or decreased blood volume in mom. If your fetus is bradycardic, you MUST oxygenate and maintain fluid volume on mom to fix it.
Apneic
not breathing
What are the positions that people can be in?
supine,
What is the rate of CPR for adults and children and newborns?
adults: Begin chest compressions (100/min); deliver 2 breaths after 30 compressions (2inches deep)
Define: Ischemia
an inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body, especially the heart muscles.
what is the drug Tadalafil under the name of Cialis, or
viagra used for? And what medication can it not be given with?
Erectile dysfunction
Nitroglycerin
myocardial infarction
the occlusion of one or more coronary arteries caused by plaque buildup (heart attack)
What is CHF?
Congestive Heart Failure - A heart suffering from prolonged hypertension, valve disease, or heart disease will try to compensate for decreased function by increasing the size of the left ventricle and increasing heart rate.
Define asystole
No electrical activity in heart
coronary artery disease
disease of the arteries surrounding the heart
pulmonary edema
fluid in the lungs
what are the beginning signs and symptoms of cariogenic shock?
Altered level of consciousness, tachycardia, and pulmonary edema
What is happening during jugular vein distention JVD?
Back pressure through the right side of the heart and into the venous system
The popular mnemonic associated with cardiac related chest pain is
O,P,Q,R,S,T mnemonic
Which of the following rhythms must be present for the AED to charge and defibrillate the patient?
Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
In which of the following situations would an automated external defibrillator be contraindicated?
When the patient has a weak carotid pulse and is apneic
What is the pulse pressure?
Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure readings. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg). It represents the force that the heart generates each time it contracts. If resting blood pressure is (systolic/diastolic) 120/80 millimeters of mercury (mmHg), pulse pressure is 40.
When assessing a patient's blood pressure, what does the "top number" indicate to the EMT?
The pressure in the arteries during myocardial contraction.
Which condition is most likely to cause jugular vein distention?
heart failure
Explanation: Differing blood pressures in each arm, as well as the description of a sharp, tearing pain between the shoulder blades, may indicate an aortic dissection. This is a definite medical emergency that warrants immediate transport to the emergency department
aortic distention
What is the appropriate location for delivering the inward and upward thrusts?
Half way between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus
What is the best way to maintain an open airway of a non-trauma patient when airway adjuncts are not available?
Place them in the left lateral recumbent position
Which phase of respiration does the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place between the inspired air and the pulmonary capillaries?
external respiration
stridorous respirations indicate what?
narrowing or obstructed upper airway
Which of the following devices should NOT be used in an unresponsive apneic patient with blunt chest trauma?
Oxygen powered ventilator

Explanation: A ventilator may produce too much intrapulmonary pressure and worsen a pneumothorax.
Define tachypnea vs bradyapnea
Respiratory rates greater than 20 breaths per minute are considered tachypnea.

Less than 12 breaths per minute is bradypnea.
apnea
absence of breathing
Biot's respirations
A respiratory pattern characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
crescendo-decrescendo respirations (gradually increasing, then gradually decreasing) mixed with periods of apnea
How do you clear an airway obstruction on a baby?
Hold the child in a prone position with the head lower than the chest and deliver 5 blows to the middle of the back between the shoulder blades, then turn him over and give 5 chest thrusts using 2 fingers placed on the lower half of the sternum.
The mechanical expansion of the thorax and lungs is caused by the .......
internal/external intercostal muscles and diaphragm
Define: Hypoxia
Low oxygen reaching the tissues
Gas exchange in the lungs is called:
Respiration
Which phrase below best describes the process of oxygenation?
The loading of oxygen onto the hemoglobin and into the plasma for delivery to the cells of the body
Define: Orthopnea
Orthopnea is the proper medical term for a patient that describes difficulty in breathing when lying flat.
Which of the following will NOT interfere with the accuracy of a pulse oximeter?
hypertension
Define hypertension
high blood pressure
What are things that interfere with the accuracy of a pulse oximeter?
Cyanide poisoning, Hypo-perfusion, Carpal Edema
What is the maximum oxygen concentration that a nasal cannula can deliver when the oxygen is flowing at 6 lpm?
44%
what is the rule 9's of body surface area when it comes to burns?
Where is the cerebellum located?
the posterior inferior portion of the head and contains the brainstem
Pericardial tamponade
Compression of the heart caused by fluid collecting in the sac surrounding the heart.
Myocardial contusion
a bruise of the heart muscle,
Tension pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax is the progressive build-up of air within the pleural space, usually due to a lung laceration which allows air to escape into the pleural space but not to return. Positive pressure ventilation may exacerbate this 'one-way-valve' effect.
what is becks triad

what condition is most likely present with becks triad of symptoms?
symptoms of muffled heart tones, hypotension, and JVD

Pericardial tamponade
Define: DCAP BTLS
deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures/penetrations, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling
cars has gone "down and under" the dash. What types of injuries are MOST likely for this patient?
Lower extremity injuries
What is the best sign of shock in pediatric patients?
heart rate

Explanation: Heart rate is the most reliable indicator of shock in pediatric patients. Children can maintain their blood pressure until they crash.
how many lobes are in each side of the lung?
The right lung has 3 lobes and the left has 2. Remember the left side has less room for a 3rd lobe due to the presence of the heart on the left side.
what organs are in what quadrants?
...
The preferred way to handle an amputated part is to:
Transport the amputated part in a plastic bag while keeping it cool.
contusion
bruise
Abrasion
Scrape of the skin due to something abrasive
Evisceration
The displacement of organs outside of the body.
Ataxic
An irregular , unpredictable respiratory rate and tidal volume.
Massive hemothorax
shock, decreased or absent breath sounds on effected side, anxiety and confusion, FLAT NECK VEINS, load and go, treat for shock
Which of the following respiratory patterns indicates the highest degree of severity in head-injured patients?
ataxic
what are the signs and symptoms of flail chest
Explanation: Flail chest: Signs and Symptoms include rapid and thread pulses, pale and diaphoretic skin, flat neck veins and guarded painful respirations with paradoxical movement of the chest.
traumatic asphyxia
Traumatic asphyxia is a severe crushing injury to the chest and abdomen. It results from an increase in intrathoracic pressure that forces blood from the right side of the heart through the veins of the chest, neck, and face. Signs and symptoms include: Reddish purple discoloration of the neck and face. (While the lower body remains normal color) JVD Swelling/hemorrhage of the conjunctiva
Which type of MVC has the greatest potential for injury?
...
Which of the following describes the appropriate treatment for an evisceration?
Select
...
GCS scale
...
ectopic pregnancy
A pregnancy outside of the womb, usually in a fallopian tube
which of the following findings is MOST suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy?
missed menstrual cycle
syncope
"Passing out", loss of consciousness or fainting
Stable vs unstable infants and toddlers should be assessed which of the following ways?
stable- toe to head
unstable- head to toe to quickly identify life threats
Eclampsia
Explanation: Eclampsia, also called toxemia, is the most serious manifestation of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. It is characterized by grand mal seizures. Eclampsia is often preceded by visual disturbances such as flashing lights or spots before the eyes. Eclampsia patients often experience swelling of the hands and feet and a markedly elevated blood pressure. If eclampsia develops, death of the mother and the fetus frequently results.
Pre-eclampsia
Pre-eclampsia or "toxemia of pregnancy" is diagnosed by maternal hypertension, protein in the urine, and weight gain with pitting edema.
Abruptio placenta
premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus which causes severe vaginal bleeding

usually a result of pre-eclampsia
What are the components of the Chain of Survival
Early 911, Early CPR, Early Defibrillation, and early advanced care.
Pulmonary embolus
Pulmonary Embolus or ((((((((CLOT))))))) pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, rales, prolonged bed rest, recent fractures, surgery, pregnancy.