ARRT Radiography Exam Review
Terms in this set (760)
Study guide for the ARRT exam in radiography.
Anatomy and positioning are not covered in this study guide.
What is a tort?
A violation of civil law.
Torts are also known as ________.
Personal Injury Law
If a patient is apprehensive about being injured, or a radiographer causes fear in the patient, it is known as ________.
Unlawful touching or touching without consent, harm resulting from physical contact with the radiographer, and imaging the wrong body part or against the patients will is known as ________.
Unjustified restraint of a patient is known as ________.
Exposing confidential information, improperly exposing the patients body, inappropriately touching a patients body, or photographing a patient without their permission is known as ________.
Invasion of Privacy
Written information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________.
Orally spreading false information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________.
Respondeat Superior is a legal doctrine stating the employer is held liable for an employee's negligent act. Respondeat Superior means ________.
Let the master answer.
Res Ipsa Loquitur is a legal doctrine stating that the cause of the negligence is obvious. Res Ipsa Loquitur means ________.
The thing speaks for itself.
The ARRT Standards of Ethics consists of the ________ of Ethics and the ________ of Ethics.
The ARRT ________ of Ethics serves as a guide for what radiographers aspire to become as professionals.
The ARRT ________ of Ethics are mandatory, enforceable, and carry sanctions for violations.
Attempting to copy ARRT exam materials, disclosing exam questions, impersonating a test candidate, being convicted of a crime, engaging in unprofessional conduct, injuring a patient, misrepresenting CE units earned, violating state or federal narcotics and controlled-substance laws, and attempting to circumvent the certification and registration process are examples that violate the ARRT ________ of Ethics.
Acting in a professional manner, responding to patient needs, and supporting colleagues and associates in providing quality patient care, practicing technology founded upon theoretical knowledge and concepts, practicing ethical conduct appropriate to the profession and protecting the patient's right to quality radiologic care, and striving to improve knowledge and skills by participating in continuing education and professional activities are examples covered under the ARRT ________ of Ethics.
In what order should radiographic exams be scheduled?
1) Fiberoptic (endoscopic) studies.
2) Radiography of the urinary tract.
3) Radiography of the biliary system.
4) Computed tomography studies.
5) Lower GI radiographic studies.
6) Upper GI radiographic studies.
Tachycardia is having a heartbeat of more than ________ beats per minute.
Bradycardia is having a heartbeat of less than ________ beats per minute.
Diastolic blood pressure greater than ________mm/Hg indicates an increasing level of hypertension.
Diastolic blood pressure less than ________mm/Hg gives some indication of shock.
The usual oxygen flow rate through a nasal cannula is ________ L/minute.
3 to 5
Loosing large amounts of blood or plasma may result in ________ shock.
When toxins are produced during massive infection causing a dramatic decrease in blood pressure, ________ shock is suspected.
________ shock is when blood pools in peripheral vessels.
________ shock results from cardiac failure or other interference with heart function.
________ shock (or ________) is a reaction to foreign proteins after injections, and may follow injection of iodinated contrast media.
What are some symptoms of shock?
1) Restlessness and apprehension.
2) Accelerated pulse.
3) Pale skin.
5) Alteration in ability to think.
6) Cool, clammy skin.
7) Systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm/Hg.
What is the radiographer's response to shock?
1) Stop procedure.
2) Place patient in Trendelenburg position.
3) Call for help.
4) Determine blood pressure.
5) Administer oxygen.
6) Document time and occurrence of each symptom.
Contrast media ________ may occur in infants, or patients who have renal, cardiac or hepatic failure.
What are some reactions to anaphylactic shock?
What are some reactions to cardiovascular shock?
3) Cardiac Arrest
What are some other reactions that may be found as a result of contrast media injection?
3) Sensation of Heat
5) Hoarseness of Voice
9) Loss of Consciousness
11) Cardiac Arrest
13) Change in Orientation
________ contains negatively and positively charged ions.
Iodinated Ionic Contrast Media
________ do not ionize into separate negative and positive charges.
Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media
________ has a far lower incidence of contrast agent reactions because it is not ionized.
Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media
What is the atomic number for iodine?
What is the atomic number for barium?
What is the atomic number for tungsten?
What letter represents the atomic mass number?
What letter represents the atomic number?
In what order is venipuncture performed?
1) Wash hands.
2) Put on gloves.
3) Place tourniquet in place.
4) Select vein.
5) Cleanse area.
6) Remove air from syringe/tubing.
7) Insert needle.
8) Observe blood flow into catheter.
9) Remove tourniquet.
10) Begin injection.
When handling chemicals and they are exposed to skin, the area should be washed with cool water for at least ________ minutes.
When handling chemicals and they splash into the eyes, the eyes should be washed with cool water for at least ________ minutes.
This is used to define radiation exposure or radiation delivered to a specific point.
Air kerma is measured in ________.
This is sometimes used to measure exposure, but the preferred unit is air kerma.
This is used to define the amount of energy absorbed per unit mass of tissue.
Absorbed dose is measured in ________.
This is used to define the product of absorbed dose (Gy) times the radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ).
________ takes into account the biologic impact of the type and energy of the radiation being used.
Radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ).
This is used to define the estimated risk present when various tissues are irradiated.
Effective dose uses the ________, and takes into account the relative radiosensitivity of the irradiated organ or body part.
Tissue weighting factor (Wᵀ).
________ is the product of absorbed dose times the radiation weighting factor times the tissue weighting factor.
________ is the unit of effective and equivalent dose.
The unit of radioactivity that is used to measure the quantity of radioactive material is the ________.
Radiation exiting the x-ray tube is known as ________.
X-rays that emerge from the patient and strike the image receptor, and are composed of primary and scattered photons is known as ________.
Exit or Remnant Radiation
X-ray beams that contain photons of many different energies are known as ________.
What are twelve properties of x-rays?
1) Highly penetrating, invisible rays.
2) Electrically neutral.
3) Liberate minute amounts of heat.
4) Polyenergetic, heterogenous.
5) Travel in straight lines.
6) Ionize matter.
7) Cause fluorescence of certain crystals.
8) Travel at the speed of light.
9) Affect photographic film.
10) Cannot be focused by a lens.
11) Produce chemical and biologic changes.
12) Produce secondary and scatter radiation.
What occurs during Coherent Scattering?
The incident x-ray interacts with an atom causing it to become excited. The atom immediately releases this excess energy as a scattered x-ray having the same energy and wavelength as the incident x-ray, but in a different direction.
What occurs during Compton Scattering?
The incident x-ray interacts with an outer-shell electron and ejects it from the atom, ionizing the atom. The x-ray then continues in a different direction with less energy and a longer wavelength.
What occurs during the Photoelectric Effect?
The incident x-ray interacts with an inner-shell electron and ejects it from the atom, ionizing the atom. The x-ray is not scattered but totally absorbed, releasing all of its energy to the ejected electron. Characteristic x-rays are then produced as outer-shell electrons fill the void left by the inner-shell electron.
What is Bremsstrahlung Radiation?
Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced when a projectile electron is slowed by the electric field of a target atom nucleus.
What is Characteristic Radiation?
When projectile electrons interact with inner-shell electrons of the target atom, rather than with an outer-shell electron.
X-ray's have diagnostic wavelengths of ________ to ________, and travel as bundles of energy called photons.
1) 0.1 Å
2) 0.5 Å
The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual, is known as ________.
What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure?
What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the lens of the eye?
What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the localized areas of the skin, hands and feet?
This is calculated by multiplying the radiographer's age in years times 10 mSv.
Cumulative effective dose limit.
The annual effective dose limit for students over the age of 18 is ________.
The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure is ________.
The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure is ________.
The total equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus for the entire gestational period is ________.
The equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus per month is ________.
Effects that occur by chance and which may occur without a threshold level of dose, whose probability is proportional to the dose and whose severity is independent of the dose:
Effects that have a threshold below which the effect does not occur. The threshold may be very low and may vary from person to person. However, once the threshold has been exceeded, the severity of an effect increases with dose:
________ is somatic cell division that comprises of four phases. When division is complete, each new cell contains 46 chromosomes.
What are the four phases of mitosis?
________ is germ (sperm or ovum) cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in each cell so that the union of two germ cells produces a new cell with 46 chromosomes.
This occurs when radiation transfers its energy directly to the DNA or RNA.
Because a cell contains mostly water, the probability that it will be struck by radiation is greater. This interaction is known as the ________ effect.
________ of water occurs as radiation energy is deposited into the water of a cell.
Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing. This describes:
The law of Bergonie and Tribondeau.
If cells are more oxygenated, they are more susceptible to radiation damage. This describes:
Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER)
A whole-body dose of ________ will depress the blood count.
Somatic effects are evident in the ________ being exposed.
Doses causing somatic effects are much ________ than those received in general diagnostic radiography.
What are some examples of early somatic effects (acute radiation syndrome)?
1) Hematopoietic Syndrome
2) GI Syndrome
3) Central Nervous System Syndrome
What is hematopoietic syndrome?
It decreases the total number of all blood cells, and can lead to death.
What is GI syndrome?
It causes total disruption of GI tract structure, and function, and can result in death.
What is central nervous system syndrome?
It causes complete failure of the nervous system and results in death.
What are some examples of late somatic effects?
3) Embryologic Effects
4) Thyroid Function
5) Shortening of Life Span
What is carcinogenesis?
It causes cancer.
What is cataractogenesis?
It causes cataracts to form, following a nonlinear-threshold dose-response curve.
When are embryologic effects most sensitive?
During the first trimester of gestation.
What are late somatic effects of the thyroid?
Being a very sensitive organ, late somatic effects may manifest as cancer or cessation of function.
Shortening of lifespan ________ occur in modern radiation workers.
A genetic effect is damage to the ________ molecule, which is then passed on to the next generation.
Genetic effects follow a ________ dose-response curve.
There is no such thing as a safe ________ dose.
Any exposure amount to the gonads can represent a ________ threat.
The amount of radiation that causes the number of mutations in a population to double is the ________.
The doubling dose for humans is approximately ________.
Gonadal shielding may reduce female gonad dose by up to ________%.
Gonadal shielding may reduce male gonad dose by up to ________%.
Gonadal shielding is required when the gonads are within the primary beam, or within ________ cm of the primary beam.
The minimum source-to-skin distance for portable radiography equipment is ________ inches.
Source-to-tabletop distance for fixed fluoroscopes may not be less than ________ inches.
Source-to-tabletop distance for portable fluoroscopes may not be less than ________ inches.
Fluoroscopy timers must sound an alarm after ________ minutes (________ seconds) of beam-on time.
Fluoroscopy exposure switches must be of the ________ type.
Limit dose during fluoroscopy at the tabletop may be no more than ________ mGyᵃ per minute.
Limit use of high-level-control fluoroscopy during interventional procedures must be no more than ________ mGyᵃ per minute.
The total of air kerma striking the surface of the patient is known as ________.
Dose Area Product (DAP)
Dose area product (DAP) is expressed as ________.
The average dose to active bone marrow is the _________.
Mean Marrow Dose
Radiation dose that, if received by the entire population, would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the persons actually being exposed (the average gonadal dose to the childbearing-age population) is known as:
Genetically-Significant Dose (GSD)
Primary protective barriers must be ________ lead equivalent.
Primary barriers must be located where the ________ may strike the wall or the floor.
If in the wall, primary barriers must extend to a height of ________ feet.
Secondary protective barriers must be ________ lead equivalent.
Secondary barriers must extend from where the primary protective barrier ends, and extend to the ________.
Primary and secondary protective barriers must overlap by at least ________.
Secondary protective barriers must be located wherever ________ or ________ radiation may strike.
The x-ray control booth is considered to be a ________ protective barrier.
The lead window in a control booth enclosure is usually ________ lead equivalent.
Measured in mA minutes per week, ________ takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room.
The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier defines the ________.
Uncontrolled areas must be shielded to ensure an effective dose limit to the general public of ________ per week.
Controlled areas must be shielded to keep exposure under ________ per week.
Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube housing may not exceed ________ per hour at a distance ________ from the housing.
1) 1 mGyᵃ
2) 1 m
The protective curtain on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent.
The bucky slot shield on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent.
The least scatter radiation is measured at a ________-degree angle from the patient.
Scatter-beam intensity at an angle 90-degrees from the patient is ________ the intensity of the primary beam at a distance of ________ meter.
________ dosimeters use aluminum oxide to record dose.
An aluminum oxide layer is stimulated by a ________ after the wear period.
When aluminum oxide is stimulated by a laser beam, ________ release energy as visible ________.
OSL dosimeters can record exposures as low as ________.
OSL dosimeters can be worn for up to ________ at a time.
OSL dosimeters can be reanalyzed and reused ________ times if necessary.
With OSL dosimeters, exposures below ________ are reported as minimal.
________ dosimeters use lithium fluoride crystals instead of film to record dose.
The electrons in lithium fluoride crystals are excited by radiation exposure, and release this information when exposed to ________.
The energy released from lithium fluoride crystals is released as ________, and is measured by a ________.
1) Visible Light
2) Photomultiplier Tube
TLD's can measure exposure as low as ________.
TLD's can be worn for longer periods than ________ badges.
With TLD's, exposures below ________ are measured as minimal.
________ use film that is similar to dental x-ray film.
Film badges can measure doses as low as ________.
With film badges, doses below ________ are recorded as minimal.
Filters made of ________ and ________ measure the intensity and type of radiation striking a film badge.
Film badges are usually changed ________.
A ________ is used to measure radiation in an area, storage areas for radioisotopes, doses traveling through barriers, and patients who have radioactive sources within them.
Handheld Ionization Chamber
Handheld ionization chambers can measure exposure rates as low as ________ per hour.
A ________ is used to detect radioactive particles in nuclear medicine facilities.
Geiger-Mueller detectors read in ________ per minute.
An autotransformer is also known as a ________ transformer.
An autotransformer is constructed with:
A single coil of wire with an iron core.
The autotransformer is the source for selecting ________.
Autotransformers operate on the principle of ________.
The ________ is in the x-ray circuit to indicate the voltage that is selected.
The prereading voltmeter is prereading because it indicates the ________ that will be flowing through the tube once the exposure is made.
The prereading voltmeter is placed in the circuit between the ________ and the ________.
2) Step-Up Transformer
A ________ is used to regulate the duration of the x-ray exposure.
The timer is wired in the circuit between the ________ and the ________.
2) Step-Up Transformer
Electronic timers allow exposures as low as ________.
1 ms or 1/1000 second.
The ________ provides the safest tube current in the shortest possible time.
The mAs timer measures the total ________.
The mAs timer is located ________ the secondary coil of the step-up transformer.
The mAs timer is generally used with ________ generators.
________ is used to provide consistency of radiographic quality.
Automatic Exposure Control (AEC)
AEC consists of a flat ________ chamber that is located between the ________ and the ________.
3) Image Receptor
AEC uses a ________ kVp, while the machine controls the ________.
The shortest exposure time possible with an AEC is ________.
1 ms or 1/1000 second.
A ________ is a modern generator that takes advantage of extremely short time capabilities and tube heat-loading potential.
Falling Load Generator
With a falling load generator, the radiographer sets ________ and ________, and the generator calculates the most efficient method of obtaining the required ________.
A ________ transformer consists of primary coils and secondary coils.
Step-Up or High-Voltage
A step-up transformer requires ________ current in order to operate.
The ________ coil of a step-up transformer receives voltage from the autotransformer .
Step-up transformers operate on the principle of ________.
The ________ describes the number of turns in the wire in the primary coil, compared to the number of turns in the wire of the secondary coil.
Turns Ratio Formula (Autotransformer Law):
The turns ratio determines how much ________ is stepped-up.
The ________ the turns ratio, the higher the resulting ________.
The turns ratio may be ________ to ________, depending on the equipment.
X-ray tubes require ________ current in order to operate correctly.
The ________ changes alternating current coming from the step-up transformer into direct current.
Rectifiers are solid-state semiconductor ________.
The rectifier is located in the circuit between the ________ and the ________.
1) Step-Up Transformer
2) X-Ray Tube
A unit with ________ diodes provides full-wave rectification for a single-phase generator.
Full-wave rectification produces ________ direct current.
Single-phase full-wave rectification results in a waveform containing ________ pulses per cycle (________ pulses per second).
Single-phase full-wave rectification results in ________% voltage ripple, with voltage dropping to ________, 120 times per second.
A unit with ________ or ________ diodes provides full-wave rectification for three-phase equipment.
When three-phase current is used, voltage ________ drops to zero during exposure.
Voltage ripple for three-phase, six-pulse is approximately ________%, and the voltage actually used is about ________% of the kVp set.
Voltage ripple for three-phase, twelve-pulse is approximately ________%, and the voltage actually used is about ________% of the kVp set.
Voltage ripple for high-frequency generators is approximately ________%, and the voltage actually used is about ________% of the kVp set.
The mA meter (or milliammeter) measures the ________ in milliamperes.
The mA meter is wired in the circuit between the ________ and the ________.
2) X-Ray Tube
The filament circuit (or mA control) regulates the number of ________ available at the filament to produce x-rays.
When electrons are boiled off of the filament, it is known as ________.
The anode is the ________ electrode in the x-ray tube.
The cathode is the ________ electrode in the x-ray tube.
An anode rotates anywhere from ________ to ________ rpm.
The target angle of the anode allows for a ________ actual focal spot, while producing a ________ effective focal spot. This effect is known as the ________.
3) Line Focus Principle
The target angle may be ________ to ________ degrees, depending on the tube design.
When electrons travel from the cathode to the anode, they travel at up to ________ the speed of ________.
When electrons strike the anode, the kinetic energy converts the electrons into ________ and ________.
When striking the anode, the electron conversion to heat is approximately ________%.
When striking the anode, the electron conversion to x-rays is approximately ________%.
________ are a calculation of the total heat produced during an x-ray exposure.
Heat units for single-phase full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula:
kVp x mAs
Heat units for three-phase, six-pulse full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula:
kVp x mAs x 1.35
Heat units for three-phase, twelve-pulse full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula:
kVp x mAs x 1.41
The x-ray tube for fluoroscopy is operated at ________ to ________ mA.
kVp and mAs are automatically adjusted during fluoroscopy by a process known as ________.
Automatic Brightness Control (ABC)
Automatic brightness control is also called ________ or ________.
1) Automatic Brightness Stabilization
2) Automatic Gain Control
The ________ receives exit rays from the patient and converts then into visible light.
Visible light from the input phosphor strikes the ________, which is a thin layer next to the input phosphor.
The photocathode releases electrons in amounts ________ proportional to the visible light striking it.
Electrons from the photocathode are concentrated and directed toward the other end of the image-intensifier tube by a series of ________ and by ________ kVp applied through the tube.
1) Electrostatic Lenses (Focusing Lenses)
Once electrons are propelled across the tube from the photocathode, they strike the ________.
Once the energy of the electrons hits the output phosphor, it is converted by the phosphor to ________ in amounts ________ to ________ times greater than the photocathode.
1) Visible Light
The increase in brightness from the photocathode to the output phosphor is known as ________.
The ________ phosphor is smaller than the ________ phosphor, resulting in an increase in brightness known as ________.
3) Minification Gain
Total brightness gain is a product of ________ gain and ________ gain.
Total brightness gain ranges from ________ to ________, and decreases as the tube ages.
A complete program in a radiology department that addresses all aspects of quality, including customer service, image interpretation, accuracy of diagnosis, and distribution of radiologists' reports is known as:
A program that specifically addresses the safe and reliable operation of equipment is known as:
A quality control program is required by ________.
The Joint Commission
Collimation must be accurate to within ________% of the source-to-image receptor distance.
The effective focal spot size should be within ________% of the size stated in the equipment specifications.
kVp must be accurate to within ________% of the kVp indicated.
The exposure timer should be accurate to within ________% of the time chosen for exposures over 10 ms.
Adjacent mA stations should be accurate to within ________% of one another. This is known as ________.
2) Exposure Linearity
Radiation intensity of sequential exposures should not vary more than ________%. This is known as ________.
2) Exposure Reproduceability
The fluoroscopy exposure rate should be tested with a digital dosimeter, and should not be more than________ per minute.
CR plates should be erased at least every ________.
CR readers should be calibrated ________.
________ comprises of systems for image acquisition, display, network and storage.
Picture Archiving and Communications System (PACS)
________ is a standard protocol used for blending PACS and various imaging modalities.
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM)
________ blends patient care information, reporting and billing.
Hospital Information System (HIS)
________ is used for ordering procedures and reporting results.
Radiology Information System (RIS)
________ is a comprehensive collection of patient information stored in a digital format that may be shared across networks. Data may include history, medications, allergies, test results and vital signs.
Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
The sharpness of the structural edges recorded on the images is known as:
Spacial resolution may be described as the ________ representation of the part being imaged.
The highest spacial resolution that can be recorded, and is controlled by pixel pitch, is known as:
The amount of radiation striking the image receptor is known as:
The measurement of the luminance of an area in a radiographic image displayed on a monitor is known as:
The visible difference between any two selected areas of brightness levels within the displayed radiographic images is known as:
The number of brightness levels (or shades of gray) visible on an image is linked to the bit depth of a system, and is known as:
When slight differences between gray shades is present (low contrast) but the total number of gray shades is great, it is known as:
Long Scale Contrast
When considerable or major differences between gray shades are present (high contrast), but the total number of gray shades is small, it is known as:
Short Scale Contrast
Contrast resolution is controlled by ________, or the number of bits per pixel.
With larger the bit depth, ________ levels of gray are possible in an image.
The range of exposures that may be captured by a detector is known as:
The range of exposures that produce quality images at appropriate patient dose is known as:
________ exposure latitude makes for better visualization of soft tissues and bone.
The magnitude of the signal difference in the remnant beam as a result of the different absorption characteristics of the tissues and structures making up that part is known as:
A digital image is composed of rows and columns called a ________.
The matrix size equals the total number of ________ in the image.
The ________ component of the martix is the pixel.
Pixel stands for ________.
Smaller pixels provide greater ________.
Each pixel in the matrix corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient called a ________.
Voxel stands for ________.
The number of pixels per millimeter in the image is known as ________, and is determined by pixel pitch.
The space from the center of one pixel to the center of an adjacent pixel is known as:
Less space between pixels (pixel pitch) provides for greater ________.
A ________ is constructed to show the radiographer the distribution of pixel values (indicating low, proper, or high exposure).
Digital images may be printed onto film by using a ________.
Resolution is ________ with DR than with CR because DR involves less conversion of the information.
Changing the ________ adjusts the image brightness.
Changing the ________ adjusts the image contrast.
A histogram of pixel values from image acquisition that can be used to correct or enhance luminance values is known as a ________.
Look-Up Table (LUT)
________ results in a grainy or noisy image.
Quantum mottle is caused by too ________ x-ray photons hitting the image receptor, normally from too low of a ________.
The comparison of the useful signal to the presence of noise is known as:
Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR)
The higher the signal-to-noise ratio, the ________ the image quality.
The efficiency with witch the digital system converts an x-ray signal to a useful diagnostic image is known as:
Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE)
The smallest resolvable area on an image receptor is known as a ________.
Detector Element (DEL)
The ability of a digital system to accurately record spacial frequencies is known as:
Modulation Transfer Function (MTF)
The area of the imaging device that is used to acquire the useful image is the ________.
The ability to assign a value to each pixel corresponding to the gray shade determined by its bit depth is known as:
________ controls the number of electrons passing from cathode to anode in the x-ray tube, and the quantity of x-rays produced at the anode.
mAs controls the amount of ________ exiting the x-ray tube.
mAs ________ controls the number of x-ray photons that emerge from the patient, and ultimately the number of x-rays that strike the image receptor.
________ directly effects the energy or quality of the x-rays produced.
As kVp ________, a greater potential difference exists between the cathode and the anode.
As kVp potential difference ________, the electrons from the cathode strike the anode in greater number and with greater energy.
As kVp potential differences increase, the result is an increased level of ________-wavelength, ________-energy radiation.
kVp ________ affects receptor exposure, although not in a directly ________ relationship.
As kVp increases, receptor exposure ________.
As kVp decreases, receptor exposure ________.
kVp determines the ________ ability of the x-ray beam.
As kVp is increased, wavelength ________, and x-rays become more penetrating.
As kVp is decreased, wavelength ________, and x-rays become less penetrating.
In increase in kVp of ________% will double the receptor exposure, while a decrease in kVp of ________% will halve the receptor exposure. This is known as the ________.
3) 15% Rule
The intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of x-rays and the image receptor. This defines the:
Inverse Square Law
Inverse Square Law Formula:
I₁(D₁)² = I₂(D₂)²
Elongation (body part appears longer than normal) is caused by angulation along the ________ axis of the part being imaged.
Foreshortening (body part appears shorter than normal) is caused by angulation against the ________ axis of the part being imaged.
Grids are constructed of ________ strips separated by ________ interspacers.
The height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips is known as:
Grid Ratio Formula:
The number of lead strips in a grid per inch (or centimeter) is known as:
The measure of the ability of a grid to increase contrast is the ________.
Contrast Improvement Factor
The ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is the ________.
Grid conversion factor (GCF) is the amount of exposure ________ necessary to compensate for the ________ of image-forming x-rays and scatter in the cleanup process.
Grid conversion factor is also known as:
Bucky Factor Value
How do you calculate the new mAs required for a specific grid using the grid conversion factor?
GCF of selected grid times the current mAs
What is the grid conversion factor for a 5:1 grid?
What is the grid conversion factor for a 8:1 grid?
What is the grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid?
What is the grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid?
When normal density appears in the middle of a radiograph with decreased density on the sides, this is likely a result of:
Grid Upside Down
When image-forming x-rays are absorbed all across the radiographic field, with cutoff (decreased density) visible over the entire radiograph, this is a result of:
When the central ray does not strike the grid in the center, and there is visible cutoff more to one side of the radiograph than the other, the cause is:
When there is normal density in the middle of the radiograph, with cutoff visible on the sides, the cause is likely to be:
________ is the distance at which focused grids may be used.
Focus range is ________ for low-ratio grids.
Focus range is ________ for high-ratio grids.
Generally, grids are used when the body part being imaged is ________ cm thick or greater, or when more than ________ kVp is used.
What type of build is massive, represents 5% of the population, has a broad and deep thorax, high diaphragm, high colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are high and horizontal?
What body type is a slight modification of hypersthenic, is the most common body habitus, and is present in 50% of the population?
What body type is between asthenic and sthenic and is present in 35% of the population?
What body type is a slender build, is present in 10% of the population, has a narrow and shallow thorax, long thoracic cavity, long lungs, low diaphragm, short abdominal cavity, low colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are low, vertical, and near the midline?
A process is a:
A spine is a:
A tubercle is a:
A tuberosity is a:
Large rounded projection.
A trochanter is a:
Very large body prominence.
A crest is a:
A condyle is a:
Round process of an articulating bone.
A head is a:
Enlargement at the end of a bone.
A fossa is a:
A groove is a:
A sulcus is:
Synonymous with a groove.
A sinus is a:
Cavity within a bone.
A foramen is a:
A meatus is:
Fibrous joints are known as ________.
Fibrous joints are generally ________ and have no joint cavity or capsule.
Cartilaginous joints are known as ________.
Cartilaginous joints are ________ movable, but have no joint cavity and are contiguous bones united by cartilage and ligaments.
Synovial joints are known as ________.
Synovial joints are ________ movable, and have bones held together by a fibrous capsule lined with synovial membrane and ligaments.
There are ________ types of movements capable with synovial joints.
A ________ joint permits motion in one plane only, such as an elbow.
A ________ joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates around a central axis, such as a proximal radio-ulner articulation.
A ________ joint has opposing surfaces that are concavo-convex, and allow flexion, extension, adduction and abduction, such as the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
A ________ joint is capable of movement in an infinite number of axes, and has a round head of one bone that moves in a cuplike cavity of the approximating base, such as a hip.
Ball and Socket
A ________ joint is capable of permitting articulation of contiguous bones and allows only for gliding momements, such as a wrist or ankle.
A ________ joint permits movement in two directions at right angles to one another. Circumduction is possible, but rotation is not. Occurs in areas such as the radiocarpal joints.
A ________ skull is considered to be a typical skull.
A ________ skull is short from front to back, and broad from side to side, and shallow from vertex to base.
A ________ skull is long from front to back, narrow from side to side, and deep from vertex to base.
Digital radiography is more efficient in ________, ________ and ________ than screen-film radiography.
What are the three basic components of a DR imaging system?
1) Capture Element
2) Coupling Element
3) Collection Element
What is a capture element?
The location where the x-ray is captured.
In CR, the capture element is ________ phosphor.
In DR, the capture element may be ________, ________, ________ or ________.
1) Cesium Iodide (CsI)
2) Sodium Iodide (NaI)
3) Gadolinium Oxysulfide (GdOS)
4) Amorphous Selenium (a-Se)
What is a coupling element?
It is where the x-ray generated signal is transferred to the collection element.
A coupling element may be a ________ or ________ optic assembly, a ________ layer or ________.
What is a collection element?
The area in which the x-ray signal is captured via light or electrons.
The collection system may be a ________, a ________ or a ________.
A photodiode and a CCD are light-sensitive devices that collect light ________.
A TFT is a charge-sensitive device that collects ________.
A CCD is a highly ________-sensitive device with ________ principal advantageous imaging characteristics.
What are the three imaging characteristics of a CCD?
2) Dynamic Range
What is sensitivity in relation to a CCD?
The ability of the CCD to detect and respond to very low levels of visible light.
What is dynamic range in relation to a CCD?
The ability of the CCD to respond to a wide range of light intensity, from very dim to very bright.
A CCD has a ________ sensitivity for radiation and a much ________ dynamic range than screen-film image receptors.
Using a CCD image receptor as opposed to a screen-film image receptor results in a much ________ patient dose.
With the use of a CCD, image ________ is unrelated to image receptor x-ray exposure.
With a CCD, the four decades of radiation response (0 to 10,000) can be visualized by image ________.
A CCD is very ________, which makes it highly adaptable to ________ in its various forms.
A CCD measures approximately ________ cm, but the pixel size is only ________ µm.
1) 1 to 2
2) 100 x 100
One successful approach to DR utilizes ________ CCDs receiving light from a ________.
The scintillation light from a CsI phosphor is efficiently transmitted through ________ to the CCD array.
Fiber Optic Bundles
Light from a CsI phosphor that is delivered to the CCD array results in high x-ray capture efficiency and good ________ resolution up to ________ lp/mm.
CsI/CCD is an ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted first to ________ then to ________ signal.
Overcoming the challenge of creating a seamless image at the edge of each CCD is accomplished by ________ of pixel values at each tile ________.
An early application of DR involved the use of CsI to capture the x-rays, as well as transmission of the resulting scintillation light to a ________ element.
A collection element is ________ sandwiched as a ________.
Silicon is a ________ that is usually grown as a ________.
When identified as amorphous silicon (a-silicon), the silicon is not ________ but is a ________ that can be painted onto a supporting surface.
CsI has a high ________ capture because the atomic number of cesium is ________ and Iodine is ________.
X-ray interaction with CsI is high, resulting in ________ patient dose.
A DR image receptor is fabricated into individual ________.
Each pixel in a DR has a light-sensitive face of ________, with a capacitor and a TFT embedded.
CsI/a-Si is an ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted first into light and then to electric signal.
Because a portion of the DR pixel face is occupied by conductors, capacitors and the TFT, it is not totally sensitive to the incident image-forming ________.
The percentage of the pixel face in DR that is sensitive to x-rays is known as:
The fill factor is approximately ________%, therefore ________% of the x-ray beam does not contribute to the image.
As pixel size is reduced ________ resolution improves, but at the expense of ________.
2) Patient Dose
With smaller pixels, the fill factor is ________ and x-ray intensity must be ________ to maintain adequate signal strength.
________ in DR is pixel limited.
With amorphous selenium, the image-forming x-ray beam interacts directly with the ________, producing a charged ________.
a-Se is a ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted to electric signal.
X-rays incident on the a-Se create electron hole ________ through direct ________ of selenium.
A created a-Se charge is collected by a storage ________ and remains there until the signal is read by the ________ action of the TFT.
In mammography, ________ is more important than spacial resolution for soft tissue radiography.
Because contrast resolution is most important in mammography, ________ has been shown to be superior to screen-film mammography.
What is spacial resolution?
The ability of an imaging system to record small high-contrast objects.
Spacial resolution is usually described as the ________ of an object that can be ________.
In medical imaging, spacial resolution is described as spacial ________.
Spacial frequency relates to the number of ________ in a given length.
In medical imaging, line pairs are measured in line pairs per ________.
As the spacial frequency becomes larger, the objects become ________.
________ spacial frequency indicates better spacial ________.
Anatomy can be described as having spacial ________.
Large soft tissues such as liver, kidney and brain have ________ spacial frequency and are easy to image.
Bone trabeculae, breast microcalcifications and contrast-filled vessels are ________-frequency objects and are more difficult to image.
Spacial resolution in digital imaging is limited by the size of the ________.
No digital imaging system can image an object that is smaller than ________ pixel.
What is modulation transfer function (MTF)?
The ability of an imaging system to render objects of different sizes onto an image.
An imaging system that produces an image appearing exactly like the object would have an MTF equal to ________.
Modulation transfer function can be viewed as the ________ of image to ________ as a function of spacial ________.
At low spacial frequencies (large objects), ________ reproduction is noted on the image.
At high spacial frequencies (small objects), the faithful reproduction of the object on the image ________.
Radiography has a limiting spacial resolution of approximately ________ lp/mm.
Mammography has a limiting spacial resolution of approximately ________ lp/mm.
A single screen and smaller focal spot results in better spacial ________ with ________.
What is contrast resolution?
The ability to distinguish many shades of gray from black to white.
Digital imaging systems have ________ contrast resolution than screen-film imaging.
The principal descriptor for contrast resolution is grayscale, also called ________ range.
________ range is the number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce.
The dynamic range of digital imaging systems is identified by the ________ of each pixel.
CT and MRI imaging systems generally have a ________-bit dynamic range.
12-bit (2¹²) systems contain ________ shades of gray.
DR may have a ________-bit dynamic range.
14-bit (2¹⁴) systems contain ________ shades of gray.
Because contrast resolution is so important in mammography, these systems have a ________-bit dynamic range.
16-bit (2¹⁶) systems contain ________ shades of gray.
The response of a digital imaging system is ________ to ________ orders of magnitude, as opposed to ________orders of magnitude for a screen-film system.
A principal advantage of digital imaging is the ability to ________-process and ________-process the image.
________ allows visualization of all shades of gray.
With the use of ________ and ________ postprocessing tools, any region of grayscale can be expanded into a white-to-black grayscale.
________ resolution is more important that ________ resolution when soft tissue is imaged.
What is SNR?
The signal in a radiographic image is that portion of the image-forming x-rays that represents ________.
A signal represents the ________ between those x-rays transmitted to the image receptor, and those ________ photoelectrically.
Sources of image noise include ________ radiation and factors associated with the image ________.
Noise ________ contrast resolution, therefore we strive for the highest SNR possible, while adhering to ALARA.
In general, as the ________ is increased, the SNR is also increased, but at the expense of patient ________.
Another way to increase SNR is seen in digital ________ angiography (DSA).
With digital imaging, we can reduce patient dose by ________% to ________%. The opposite has occurred because of dose ________.
Because digital can always yield a good image, it's possible for the technologist to forget to change the ________ factors between exposures. This results in an overall ________ in patient dose.
Patient dose reduction should be possible because of the way in which a digital image receptor responds to x-rays, and because of a property known as detective ________ efficiency.
Because digital image receptor response is ________ related to radiation dose, image ________ does not change with dose.
One cannot ________-expose or ________-expose a digital image because contrast is not affected by dose.
A digital image should ________ require repeating because of ________ factors. This aids in patient dose reduction.
Because digital image contrast is unrelated to dose, ________ becomes less important.
To reduce dose in digital radiography, we can increase ________ and decrease ________.
Instead of dose creep, ________ creep should be used with digital imaging systems. The result will again be a reduction in patient dose.
A problem with very ________ technique for digital imaging is low ________.
Noise can predominate and compromise the interpretation of ________ anatomy.
What is photometry?
The study of how the human eye responds to light.
The basic photometric unit is known as the ________.
What are the two laws associated with photometry?
1) Inverse Square Law
2) Cosine Law
The inverse square law states that:
Luminous intensity decreases in proportion to the inverse square of the distance from the source.
The cosine law states that:
Luminous intensity falls off rapidly as one views a digital display device at larger angles from perpendicular.
The best viewing of a digital display device is ________.
What is a hard copy image?
Actual film that is placed on a viewbox for reading.
What is a soft copy image?
Images displayed on a digital device such as a CRT or AMLCD.
What does AMLCD stand for?
Active Matrix Liquid Crystal Display
A liquid crystal has the property of a highly ordered ________ structure (a crystal), and the property of ________ (a fluid).
Liquid crystal materials are ________ organic molecules that are ________ charged, forming a natural molecular ________.
Liquid crystals can be ________ through the action of an external ________ field.
AMLCD's are fashioned ________ by ________.
An AMLCD has a very intense white ________ that illuminates each ________.
Each pixel of an AMLCD contains light-________ filters and ________ to control the intensity and color of light transmitted through the pixel.
The pixels in an AMLCD consists of ________ glass plate substrates that are separated by ________ glass beads, and act as spacers.
How large are the spherical glass beads contained in the glass plate substrates of an AMLCD pixel?
A few microns in diameter.
Bus lines (conductors) control each pixel of an AMLCD with a thin-________ transistor (TFT).
With AMLCD, ________ resolution improves with the use of a higher-megapixel digital display device.
An AMLCD is a very ________ device.
Only about ________% of the backlight of an AMLCD is transmitted through a monochrome monitor, and ________ of that through a color monitor.
Why is the luminescence of AMLCD so inefficient?
Because light is absorbed in the filters and polarizers. Also due to each pixel being blocked by the TFT and bus lines.
What is an aperture ratio?
The portion of the pixel face that is available to transmit light.
Aperture ratios of ________% and ________% are characteristic of medical AMLCD devices.
The term "active" in AMLCD refers to the ability to control individually each ________ of the digital display device. The ________ is required for the active read.
AMLCD's have better ________ definition than CRT's, and less intrinsic ________.
AMLCD's are designed to better reduce the influence of ________ light on image ________.
The principal disadvantage of an AMLCD is the ________ dependence of viewing.
Levels of ambient light at a workstation must be near ________ for best viewing.
Preprocessing is designed to produce ________-free digital images.
Preprocessing implements electronic ________ to reduce pixel-to-pixel, row-to-row, and column-to-column ________ differences.
The process of pixel ________, lag ________, and ________ correction are automatically applied with most systems.
________ is where digital imaging shines.
Postprocessing refers to anything that can be done to a digital image after it is acquired by the ________.
Digital Imaging System
Postprocessing is performed to ________ the appearance of the image for the purpose of better detecting ________.
What is annotation?
The process of adding text to an image.
By making ________ and ________ adjustments, the viewer can make all shades of gray visible.
Adjusting window and level to visualize all shades of gray may be the most ________ feature of digital imaging.
The larger matrix size digital display devices have better ________ resolution because they have ________ pixels.
Smaller pixels and better spacial resolution allows for the ________ of a region of an image to render the smallest detail visible.
What is image flip?
When an image is flipped horizontally or vertically to bring the image into standard view.
What is image inversion?
Changing the white areas on the image black, and the black areas on the image white.
Why might image inversion be used?
Because it may make some pathology more visible.
Misregistration of a subtraction image can be corrected by reregistering the image through a technique known as ________.
________ radiology uses the numeric value of pixels to help in diagnosis.
Quantitative radiology requires identifying a region-of-interest (ROI), and computing the ________ pixel value for that ROI.
Quantitative radiology is ________ at detecting bone mineral assay, calcified lung nodules, and renal stones.
Edge enhancement is effective for ________ and small, high-contrast ________.
________ can be effective in identifying diffuse, nonfocal disease.
What allows for careful visualization of precise regions of an image?
Pan, scroll and zoom.
What is a PACS system?
A computer system that not only allows acquisition, but also the interpretation, storage and recall of each medical image in digital form.
What does PACS stand for?
Picture Archiving and Communication System
What are the four principal components of a PACS system?
1) Image Acquisition System
2) Display System
4) Storage System
The term ________ is used to describe the manner in which many computers and devices can be connected to interact with one another.
________ is the process of remote transmission and viewing of images.
To ensure adaptability between imaging systems, the ACR and NEMA have produced a standard imaging interface format known as ________.
What does DICOM stand for?
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
A great advantage of PACS is ________, which helps to save space in the hospital usually allocated to film storage.
With PACS, a film room is replaced by a ________ or ________ memory device.
Electronically, images stored in PACS can be recalled from the archival system to any ________ in seconds.
Backup PACS storage is accommodated ________ at a digital data storage vendor.
Offsite PACS backups are needed should the main storage files onsite become ________.
Due to, Secondary to
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Acute Abdominal Series
Arterial Blood Gas
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Above the Knee
Above the Knee Amputation
Altered Level of Consciousness
Against Medical Advise
Altered Mental Status
Acute (Adult) Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Acute Renal Failure
As Soon as Possible
Absent without Leave
Twice a Day
Below the Knee
Below the Knee Amputation
Bright Red Blood
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft
Coronary Artery Disease
Blood Urea Nitrogen
C1, C2, ...
First Cervical Vertebra, Second Cervical Vertebra, ...
Complete Blood Count
Congestive Heart Failure
Central Nervous System
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
Central Venous Pressure
Discontinue (Stop Giving)
Discharge (From Hospital, Unit, Etc.)
Degenerative Joint Disease
Do Not Resuscitate
Dead on Arrival
Date of Birth
Deep Vein Thrombosis
Ear, Nose and Throat
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatogram
Estimated Time of Arrival
Ethanol (Drinking Alcohol)
Fever of Undetermined Origin
Glasgow Coma Scale
History and Physical
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Irrigation and Drainage
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Intensive Care Unit
Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
Intravenous Drug Abuse
Kidneys, Ureters and Bladder
L1, L2, ...
First Lumbar Vertebra, Second Lumbar Vertebra, ...
Labor and Delivery
Lower Back Pain
Left Lower Extremity
Left Lower Lobe
Left Lower Quadrant
Last Menstrual Period
Loss of Consciousness
Left Upper Extremity
Left Upper Lobe
Left Upper Quadrant
Medical Intensive Care Unit
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Motor Vehicle Accident
Nausea and Vomiting
Nausea and Vomiting
Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
No Known Allergies
No Known Drug Allergies
No Known Food Allergies
Nothing by Mouth
Open Reduction, Internal Fixation
Post Anesthesia Care Unit
Portable Chest X-Ray
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Following Reduction (of Fracture or Dislocation)
Purified Protein Derivative (TB Test)
Four Times a Day
Rapid Assessment Team
Red Blood Cells
Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Right Lower Extremity
Right Lower Lobe
Right Lower Quadrant
Right Middle Lobe
Range of Motion
Right Upper Extremity
Right Upper Lobe
Right Upper Quadrant
Surgical Intensive Care Unit
Short of Breath
T1, T2, ...
First Thoracic Vertebra, Second Thoracic Vertebra, ...
Tonsillectomy and Adenoidectomy
Total Abdominal Hysterectomy
Transient Ischemic Attack
Three Times a Day
Upper Respiratory Infection
Urinary Tract Infection
White Blood Cells
Out of Plaster