Upgrade to remove ads
Bontrager; Radiographic Positioning: Final Exam
Terms in this set (229)
The first general rule in diagnostic radiology suggest that a minimum of ______ projections be taken _______ degrees from each other as possible are required for most radiographic procedures.
2 projections; 90 degrees
The direction or path of the central ray of the x-ray beam defines the following positioning term:
A patient is erect with their back to the IR. The left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the IR. What is this position?
Left posterior oblique (LPO)
The patient is erect with the right side of the body against the IR. The x-ray beam enters the left side of the body. Which specific position has been used?
T/F The term caudal means toward the head
False, caudal means toward the feet
A patient is recumbent facing the IR. The right side of the body is turned 15 degrees toward the IR. What is this position?
Right anterior oblique (RAO)
What is the name of the position in which the body is turned 90 degrees from a true AP or PA projection?
Lying on the back facing upward
Top or anterior surface of the foot
Back half of the patient
Lying down in any position
To have a lateral decubitus position or projection on must have a ________ beam.
The vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves describes the:
An upright position with the arms abducted, plans forward, and head head forward describes the:
A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the:
Which term describes the sole of the foot?
T/F A lateromedial projection is where the lateral aspect of the anatomical part is closest to the IR
A position in which the head is lower than the feet is:
A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube. The right side of their body is turned 20 degrees toward the IR. What is this radiographic position?
Right posterior oblique (RPO)
How many separate bones are found in the adult human body?
Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste?
A patient is lying on their left side facing the IR. The x-ray tube is directed horizontally with the CR entering the posterior aspect of the body. What is this radiographic position?
Left lateral decubitus
The patient is erect with their left side directly against the IR. The CR enters the right side of the body. What is this radiographic position?
T/F According to your text and lecture radiographic view is not a valid positioning term in the United States
The radiographic term "projection" is defined as:
Path or direction of the CR
T/F A persons body habits represents a specific type of projection
False, body type
Movement of an arm or leg toward the midline
An inward stress movement of the foot
Near the source or the beginning
A CR angle directed towards the feet
Increasing the angle of a joint
Movement of arm or leg away from the midline
Decreasing the angle between the foot and lower leg
Turn or bend hand and wrist toward radius
Rotation of hand with palm down
T/F Since 1895 the methods of acquiring and storing x-ray images have for the most part stayed the same
______________ involves placing a photostimulable phosphor (PSP) or imaging plate into a cassette, used like traditional film-screen.
Computer Radiography (CR)
T/F Milliamperage (mA) controls the penetrating power of x-rays with all radiographic imaging systems
False, kVp controls penetrating power
T/F Exposure Time controls the number of x-rays produced within the x-ray tube.
_____________ is highly complex mathematical formula or code used in digital processing.
A term used by some equipment manufactures to indicate exposure index is the:
"S" number or sensitivity number
T/F A Scintillator is a device that helps measure flashes of light (radioactivity) form the ionization of phosphor
T/F "Gray Scale" is used instead of "scale contrast" when referring to digital images
The term used to define a random disturbance that obscures or reduces clarity and translates into grainy or mottled appearance of the digital image is known as:
T/F A pixel is an individual component of the image matrix.
The "cardinal rules of radiation protection" are:
Time, distance, shielding
T/F Collimation had nothing to do with digital image contrast
T/F The "ALARA Principal" has nothing to do with radiation protection
T/F According to lecture and lab "exposure factors" consist of kVp, mA and SID
False, kVp, mA and time
T/F mAs is a combination of all three exposure factors
False, two exposure factors
T/F One can say as exposure time increases so does radiation dose to the patient
True, all dependent on what mA
T/F Above all else the patient comes first
A dome shaped muscle which aids in respiration
The __________ is the central area of each lung, where the bronchi, blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves enter and leave the lungs.
Chest radiographs taken AP rather than PA will cause:
Increased magnification of the heart shadow
For a patient with Emphysema one would significantly ________ the exposure factors for a PA chest exam
Decrease exposure factors
To rule out calcifications and or masses beneath the clavicles on a chest exam one would obtain a:
AP lordotic projection
To BEST demonstrate air-fluid levels in the right lung one would obtain a:
Right lateral decubitus projection
T/F For anterior oblique chest exams the side of interest is generally the side farthest from the IR. Thus RAO will best visualize the left lung.
To indicate good inspiration _________ pair of ribs should be demonstrated on a PA chest exam
10 pairs of ribs
T/F A good rule to follow when doing a chest exam is to put the top of the film at the same level as the shoulders
False, 1'' above the shoulders
Two important muscles seen on a well-exposed abdomen projection are the:
To help describe the locations of various organs or other structures within the abdominal cavity, the abdomen may be divided into either _____ quadrants or _____ regions
4 quadrants; 9 regions
The liver is the largest solid organ in the body, occupying most of what quadrant?
Right upper quadrant (RUQ)
The spleen may be visualized fairly on plain abdominal radiographs, particularly if the organ is enlarged it is primarily found in what quadrant?
Left upper quadrant (LUQ)
The term PUBIC or HYPOGASTRIC refers to a:
Specific organ of the abdomen
There are seven landmarks of the abdomen that are palpable and important in positioning the abdomen of these which one of the following would be found at the level of T9-T10?
A. Inferior costal rib margin
B. Iliac crest
D. Xiphoid process
D. Xiphoid process (distal inferior process of the sternum)
Which landmark can be found at the level of L4-L5?
Iliac crest (most commonly used in abdominal landmarks)
Generally speaking most radiographs of the abdomen are taken at what kVp?
As discussed in the text and lecture large amounts of air in entire dilated small and large bowel with air fluid levels visualized is defined as:
When positioning for an AP projection (supine) abdomen, one would align the bottom of the IR at the level of the:
For a lateral decubitus position of the abdomen the patient should be on their side for a minimum of _____ minutes before taking and exposure.
Minimum of 5 minutes
The CR location for an erect abdomen is approximately:
2'' above the iliac crest
T/F The left lateral decubitus of the abdomen best visualizes free air in the abdominal cavity
T/F When doing a lateral decubitus of the abdomen we are looking at the side down as the area of interest
False, side up is the area of interest
T/F When doing a lateral decubitus of the chest we are looking at the side down as the area of interest
What structure must be visualized (included) on an erect abdomen?
T/F When taking an x-ray of the chest and/or abdomen breathing instructions to the patient are the same
False, chest on inspiration abdomen on expiration
T/F A patient who is suspected of having a perforated hollow viscus or an intraabdominal mass is likely to have an acute abdominal series ordered
T/F Diaphragms should be visualized on a proper positioned KUB exam
The SID for abdomen radiographs are:
Which action will remove the scapulae form the lung fields?
Rolling the shoulders forward
A patient comes to the radiology department with a possible mass beneath the right clavicle. The PA and left lateral projections are inconclusive. Which additional projection can be taken to best demonstrate this possible mass?
The CR location for a PA chest is at the level of:
T/F A general rule to follow in radiography is that anything above the diaphragm is done on inspiration and anything below the diaphragm is done on expiration
___________, is an inflammation of lungs that results in accumulation of fluid within certain sections of the lung, creating increased ratio densities in these regions
To show anterior and posterior displacement of the wrist one would obtain a:
Lateral projection of the wrist
With the medial surface of the hand placed on the IR and the CR directed the the 2nd MP joint and exiting the 5th MP joint one obtains a _________ projection
Lateral hand projection
What is the total number of bones that make up the hand and wrist
The name of the joint between the proximal and distal phalanges of the 1st digit is the __________.
Interphalangeal (IP) joint space
The _________ is the largest of the carpal bones
T/F The head of the radius is located on the proximal end of the radius
With the arm in anatomic position, the ulna is on the ______ side.
What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow?
T/F The trochlea is located medially and articulates with the ulna while the capitulum is more lateral and articulates with the head of the radius
To prevent the proximal radius crossing over the ulna for an AP projection of the forearm one should:
Supinate the hand
To show anterior and posterior displacement of the forearm one would obtain a:
Lateral projection of the forearm
Which of the following structures is NOT part of the distal humerus
A. Olecranon process
B. Radial fossa
A. Olecranon process
A radiograph of an AP elbow projection demonstrates total separation between the proximal radius and ulna. What must be done to correct this positioning error on the repeat exposure?
Rotate the upper limb medially
A. Distal phalanx of the 1st digit of the RH
B. Interphalangeal (IP) joint of the 1st digit of the RH
C. Proximal phalanx of the 1st digit of the RH
D. 1st metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the RH
E. 1st metacarpal of the RH
F. 1st carpometacarpal (CMC) joint of the RH
G. Distal phalanx of the 5th digit of the RH
H. 5th distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of the RH
I. Middle phalanx of the 5th digit of the RH
J. 5th proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the RH
K. Proximal phalanx of the 5th digit of the RH
L. 5th metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the RH
M. 5th metacarpal of the RH
N. 5th carpometacarpal (CMC) joint of the RH
Name the parts of the bones and joints of the right hand.
How many bones make up the carpal region?
How much rotation of the distal humerus is required for the AP medial oblique projection of the elbow?
T/F When placing radiographs of the hand on the view box, the digits should be pointing upward.
Why should the hand be slightly arched for a PA projections of the wrist?
To reduce the OID of the carpal bones
Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?
Which of the following bony structures is found on the distal aspect of the ulna?
A. Coronoid process
C. Olecranon process
D. All of the above
Which specific anatomy is better visualized with a fan lateral as compared with the other lateral projections of the hand?
The AP axial projection of the clavicle requires a CR to be angled:
15-30 degrees Cephalad
How much CR angulation should be used for the scapular Y projection?
No central ray angle should be used
T/F An AP external rotation of the shoulder will bring the greater tubercle into profile, while and AP internal rotation of the shoulder will bring the lesser tubercle into profile.
T/F The acromioclavicular (AC) joints are located on the most medial aspect of the clavicle
T/F The CR should be directed perpendicular to the coracoid process for and AP projection of the scapula
False, 2'' below
B. Coronoid fossa
C. Medial epicondyle
E. Trochlear sulcus
H. Head of radius
J. Lateral epicondyle
K. Radial fossa
Name the parts of the elbow
A. Acromioclavicular (AC) joint
C. Sternoclavicular (SC) joint
E. Glenoid cavity
H. Proximal humerus
Name the parts of the shoulder girdle:
Where are the sesamoid bones of the foot most commonly located?
Plantar surface near head of first metatarsal
T/F The base or proximal portion of the 5th metatarsal is a common fracture site of the foot
What is the name of the tarsal bone found on the medial side of the foot between the talus and three cuneiforms?
Which bone articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint?
There are ______ tarsal bones of the foot.
T/F The ankle mortise should be totally open and visible on a correctly positioned AP projection of the ankle
To demonstrate the mortise of the ankle one would dorsiflex the foot and ______ rotate 15-20 degrees until the intermalleolar line is parallel.
According to your text, which tarsal bone is considered to be the smallest?
The enlarged distal end of the fibula can be felt as a distinct bump on the side of the ankle joint and is called the _________________.
With the patient supine or seated on the x-ray table with the sole of the foot rested firmly on the IR and with the CR directed 10 degrees cephalic (toward the heel) through the base of the third metatarsal one is obtaining a:
AP projection of the foot
Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the metatarsal:
T/F There are two arches of the foot known as the longitudinal and transverse arches
A. Interphalangeal joint of the 1st digit RF
B. Proximal phalanx of the 1st digit RF
C. Metatarsophalangeal joint of the 1st digit RF
D. Head of the 1st metatarsal
E. Body of the 1st metatarsal
F. Base of the 1st metatarsal
G. Intermediate cuneiform
J. Tuberosity of the calcaneus
K. Lateral cuneiform
M. Tuberosity of the base of the 5th metatarsal
N. 5th metatarsophalangeal joint RF
O. Proximal phalanx of the 5th digit RF
Name the parts labeled on the medial oblique right foot:
How many bones make up the tarsals of the foot?
The __________ is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur.
For a lateral projection of the knee one would angle the CR how many degrees?
5-7 degrees Cephalic
The proximal tibiofibular joint space is best visualized (open) in the _______ projection.
Internal oblique projection
T/F The menisci act as "shock absorbers" to reduce some of the direct impact and stress that occur at the knee joint
The medial malleolus is part of the:
T/F The navicular bone of the foot articulates with the talus and the three cuneiforms
The _____ is located on the lateral aspect of the foot and articulates with the 4th and 5th metatarsals
There are _______ tarsal bones of the foot
The two strong bands (ligaments) at the sides of the knee are known as the:
In an AP projection of the lower leg, the head of the fibula is located on the _________ end of the fibula
When obtaining an oblique medial (internal) rotation projection of the knee one would rotate the entire leg
Which joint space should be open or almost open for a well-positioned AP oblique knee projection with medial rotation?
Proximal tibiofibular joint space
A radiograph of the Camp-Coventry method was produced, but the intercondylar fossa is not open and is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: prone position, lower leg flexed 45 degrees, CR angled 30 degrees caudad and centered to the popliteal crease. What should be done during the repeat exposure to produce a more diagnostic image?
Increase the CR angle to 45 degrees caudal
What is a major disadvantage of the Settegast method when taking a radiograph of the patellae?
Requires over flexion of the knee
According to lecture the three major landmarks used for positioning of the hip are:
ASIS, Greater trochanter, symphysis pubis
According to lecture the iliac crest is in the same transverse plane as:
According to lecture the Greater Trochanter is in the same transverse plane as the:
T/F In general the male pelvis is wider, more shallow and flared than the female pelvis
T/F In general the male pelvis had more of an acute angle of the pubic arch, while the female pelvis has more of an obtuse angle of the pubic arch
Internal rotation of the entire left for a true AP projection of the pelvis/hips prevents:
Foreshortening of the neck of the femur
The ___________ is a common fracture site of an older patient who has fallen
The typical physical sign for a fracture of the femoral neck is the ___________ rotation of the involved foot
T/F An AP bilateral "frog leg" projection is used on all patients for a hip exam
The CR is ____________ for an AP projection of the pelvis
Perpendicular to the IR
T/F Stress vies of the ankle are done for evaluation of joint separation and ligament tear
T/F The ischial tuberosity is visualized on a cross-table lateral hip exam
T/F The relationship of the head of the femur to the acetabulum is of very little importance when taking a radiograph of the hip
A. Base of patella
B. Apex of patella
C. Tibial tuberosity
D. Neck of fibula
E. Head of fibula
F. Apex (styloid process) of head of fibula
G. Superimposed medial and lateral condyles
H. Patellar surface (intercondylar sulcus or trochlear groove)
Name the structures labeled on the lateral knee:
A. Medial and lateral intercondylar tubercles; extensions of intercondylar eminence (tibial spine)
B. Lateral epicondyle of femur
C. Lateral condyle of femur
D. Lateral condyle of tibia
E. Articular facets of tibia (tibial plateau)
F. Medial condyle of tibia
G. Medial condyle of femur
H. Medial epicondyle of femur
I. Patella (seen through femur)
Name the structures labeled on the AP knee:
1. Proximal tibiofibular joint
2. Articular facets
3. Lateral condyle
4. Intercondyloid eminence (medial and lateral intercondyloid tubercles)
5. Medial condyle
6. Proximal extermity
7. Anterior crest
8. Body of tibia
Name the structures of the proximal extremity of the tibia/fibula:
1. Body of tibia
2. Distal extremity
3. Medial malleolus
4. Fibular notch of the tibia
5. Distal tibiofibular joint
Name the structures of the distal extremity of the tibia/fibula:
1. Tibial plateau
2. 10-20 degrees
3. Apex of the fibula
4. Head of fibula
5. Neck of fibula
6. Body of the fibula
7. Body of the tibia
8. Lateral malleolus
9. Medial malleolus
Name the structures of the lateral view of the tibia and fibula:
Which of the following structures is NOT an aspect of the proximal femur?
A. Interochanteric crest
B. Fovea capitis
C. Obturator foramen
D. Lesser trochanter
C. Obturator foramen
T/F The term pelvic girdle refers to the total pelvis including the sacrum and coccyx
The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during:
Labor and delivery
Which gender corresponds to the obtuse angle of the pubic arch?
Which gender corresponds to the acute angle of the pubic arch?
B. Femoral head
C. Femoral neck
D. Shaft or body
E. Area of lesser trochanter
F. Area of greater trochanter
G. Ischial tuberosity
Name the structures labeled on the lateral hip:
1. Symphysis pubis
2. Obturator foramen
3. Ischial tuberosity
4. Lesser trochanter
5. Shaft or body
6. Femoral head
7. Anterior Inferior Iliac Spine
9. Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS)
Name the structures labeled on the unilateral hip:
A. Iliac crest
B. ASIS (anterior end of crest)
C. Body of left ischium
D. Ischial tuberosity
E. Symphysis pubis (Pubic symphysis)
F. Inferior ramus of the right pubis
G. Superior ramus of the right pubis
H. Right ischial spine
I. Acetabulum of the right hip
J. Neck of the right femur
K. Greater trochanter of the right femur
L. Head of the right femur
M. Ala, or wing , of the right ilium
Name the structures labeled on the AP pelvis:
1. PSIS of the ilium
2. Posterior inferior iliac spine of ilium
3. Greater sciatic notch of the ischium
4. Upper body of the ilium
5. Ischial spine of the ischium
6. Lesser sciatic notch of the ischium
7. Ischial tuberosity of the ischium
8. Iliac crest of the ilium
9. ASIS of the ilium
10. Anterior inferior iliac spine of ilium
11. Acetabulum of the ischium, ilium and pubis
12. Inferior ramus of the ischium
Name the structures and the bone labeled on the lateral view of the pelvis:
Where is the CR placed for an AP projection of the pelvis?
Midway between the ASIS and the symphysis pubis
A radiograph of an AP hip reveals that the lesser trochanter is not visible. This pelvis projection was performed for non traumatic reasons. What should the technologist do (if anything) to correct on the repeat exposure?
Do nothing. Accept the radiograph and don't repeat the exposure
A radiograph of an axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection of the hip reveals a soft tissue artifact seen across the affected hip. This artifact prevents a clear view of the femoral head and neck. What must the technologist do to eliminate this artifact or its effect during the repeat exposure?
Increase the elevation and flexion of the patient's unaffected leg
A patient enters the ED having a sustained trauma to the pelvis. The patient's main complaint is about her left hip. Which of the following projections should be taken first to rule out fracture or dislocation?
AP pelvis, should be taken first and reviewed by a radiologist before attempting to rotate the hip into another position
A patient to radiology with a request for a right hip study. He is from an extended care facility and is confused about the case of the injury. The technologist takes an AP pelvis, and when the lateral frog-leg projection is attempted, the patient complains loudly about the pain in his affected hip. What should the technologist do to complete the study?
Perform the axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection
T/F For a non-trauma hip the basic projections are an AP pelvis, AP unilateral hip and an AP unilateral frog-leg
Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum?
Ischium, pubis and ilium
T/F If a patient is suspect to having a fracture of the femoral neck, the radiographer should do the AP pelvis projection without internally rotating the lower leg
T/F According to lecture a "Baker's Cyst" is located in the posterior aspect of the knee joint
A radiograph of a plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus reveals that the calcaneus is foreshortened. What type of positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?
Too little cephalad angle of the central ray to correctly elongate the calcaneus
A radiograph of an AP oblique-medial rotation of the foot reveals that the proximal first and second metatarsals are completely superimposed. What type of positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?
Over rotation of foot (toward the medial direction)
A radiograph of an AP and lateral tibia and fibula reveals that the ankle is not included on the AP projection, but both knee and ankle are included on the lateral projection. What should the technologist do in this situation?
Repeat the AP projections of the lower leg making sure to include the ankle joint on the film
A young male comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following single projections of the basic knee series will best demonstrate this condition?
What is the only bony connection between the bone thorax and the shoulder girdle?
Sternoclavicular (SC) joint
What is the primary term for the superior margin of the sternum?
What distinguishes a true rib from a false rib?
True ribs attach directly to the sternum with its own costicartilage
C. Xiphoid process
D. Jugular notch
E. Sternal angle
Name the parts labeled of the sternum:
T/F Tubercle portion of a typical rib connects the anterior end of the rib to the sternum
T/F The degree of rotation for the RAO projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity
T/F A right or left marker may be placed over the area of interest to indicate the location of trauma to the ribs
T/F A lateral projection of the sternum requires that respiration be suspended on expiration
T/F The use of 125 kV is recommended for AP and PA projections of the ribs to reduce skin dose
Which structures are found in the costal groove of each rib?
What ribs need to be demonstrated on a radiograph of the upper ribs?
A patient enters the ED with blunt trauma to the sternum. The patient is in great pain and cannot lie prone on the table or stand erect. Which of the following routines would be best for the sternum examination in this situation?
LPO and horizontal beam lateral projections
A radiograph of an RAO projection of the sternum demonstrates excessive lung markings obscuring the sternum. A 1-second exposure time and an orthostatic breathing technique were used. Which of the following will produce a more diagnostic image of the sternum?
Increase the exposure time; decrease mA
A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?
Increase rotation of the body
What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic type of patient?
Which of the following conditions may occur with trauma to the ribs?
Which of the following statements is true about radiography of the ribs located above the diaphragm?
A. Suspend breathing on inspiration
B. Perform the study with the patient recumbent
C. Use an analog kV range of 85-95
A. Suspend breathing on inspiration
Why is an RAO sternum preferred to an LAO sternum?
RAO is preferred to an LAO to project over the shadow of the heart
Which of the ribs are considered to be a true ribs?
According to lecture what is the preferred position for a patient to be in for a lower ribs radiograph?
Which aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body?
The bony thorax is widest at the lateral margins of which ribs?
The 8th and 9th ribs
What distinguishes a floating rib from a false rib?
A floating rib does not possess costicartilage
The vertebral column is divided into ______ sections.
T/F The spinal cord begins with the medulla oblongata of the brain and extends down to the lower border of the first lumbar vertebrae.
An abnormal or exaggerated lateral spinal curvature is known as:
An abnormal "humpback" curvature of the spine is known as:
T/F The first cervical vertebrae also known as the axis contains a structure known as the odontoid process
T/F The lateral masses of C1 support the weight of the head and assist in rotation of the head
Short spinous processes with bifid tips are a distinguishing feature of which vertebrae?
The mastoid tip corresponds to the level of:
With the head in neutral position, the angle of the jaw or gonion, is at the same level as:
For an AP projection of the cervical spine the CR is angled?
To best visualize the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine one would obtain an:
LPO or an RAO
To best visualize the zygopophyseal joints of the cervical spine one would obtain an:
To best visualize an anterior or posterior displacement of the cervical spine one would obtain an:
Pathology involving the thoracic spine, such as compression fractures, subluxation or kyphosis are best demonstrated by obtaining an:
The joints between the articular processes of vertebra are termed:
Which term best defines or describes the vertebral body of C1?
A. The smallest of all vertebral bodies
B. A column of bone supported by an intervertebral disk
C. A large bony mass
D. There is no vertebral body at C1
D. There is no vertebral body at C1
Which of the following factors will enhance the visibility of the vertebral bodies during a lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
Use a breathing technique
Which of the following projection will project the dens within the shadow of the foramen magnum?
To best demonstrate the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine one would obtain a:
For an AP projection of the thoracic spine the CR is directed perpendicular and centered to:
Even though oblique thoracic spines are not routinely done one would need to oblique the patient _____ degrees from the plane of the table to visualize the zygapophyseal joints.
T/F When doing a swimmers position for the cervical spine one must demonstrate the C7 T1 inter-space
T/F When doing a swimmers position for the cervical spine one must demonstrate the vertebral bodies of T4,T5 and T6
A. Spinous process
C. Articular facet
D. Transverse process
Name the parts labeled for typical vertebrae:
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Bontrager chapter 2
Final Exam Quick Review | Positioning |…
Bontrager Chapter 13 Workbook
YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
Bony thorax & spine hw
Chapter 9 & 10
Quiz 3: L-spine
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
Chapter 11: Basic image quality management
QM Exam 2
ARRT Radiography Exam Review
Point of Care Midterm