Veterinary

STUDY
PLAY

Terms in this set (...)

...
Lateral Saphenous Vein
...
Cephalic Vein
Femoral...
_______ Vein
False
Veterinarians do not need assistants to practice medicine- True or False
TRUE
You should always listen carefully to what a client mentions in casual conversation about their animal, as it may interpret important information for the veterinarian. TRUE or false
TRUE
If you notice something that was missed during the physical exam, you should notify the veterinarian in a tactful way. TRUE OR FALSE
their child or a family member
If a client is very emotional after receiving bad news about their pet, they categorize the animal as -
FALSE
Clients that see their pet as a responsibility will be most likely to take their animal to a specialist and pay for
expensive tests. TRUE OR FALSE
One that views their pet as simply property
Which type of pet owner has very little emotional attachment to their animal.
antibiotic
drug used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria-
hormone
Chemical substance produced by the endocrine system to regulate the activity of certain cells or organs in the body- hormone
carcinogen
a substance that has the capability of causing cancer-
BIOHAZARD
a biological substance, such as a bacteria, virus, or infectious bodily fluid that poses a threat to the health of living organisms.
ANTITOXIN
n antibody that binds specifically with a toxin, or poisonous substance, to neutralize its effects on the body.
Nosocomial infections
infections picked up in the hospital
Have a checklist for all cleaning tasks and place to initial when complete.
What can you do to keep a clean facility and ensure that nothing is overlooked?
weight scale
Which of the following is an example of a fomite? (inanimate) Canines weight scale Bacteria Felines
ask your mail carrier or delivery person to notify you of any smells.
To make sure clients do not experience a foul smell that staff may have grown accustomed to-
After each patient leaves the room
How often should exam tables be cleaned?
Odors will take longer to dissipate the longer these items are left in the room
Which is true regarding urine, vomit, feces and anal gland secretions?
B
Trash from the isolation room:
A. Should only be taken out once the bag is full B. Should be double-bagged and staff should ensure that none of its contents leaks C. Should only be emptied once a day to minimize risk of contaminating the rest of the facility D. Does not require any special consideration
D
Which statement is NOT true? A. Isolation rooms house highly contagious animals. B. Certain protocols are required in isolation to avoid contamination in other areas of the hospital. C. Isolation supplies should be kept organized to avoid unnecessary contamination D. Since isolation should have it's own ventilation, there is no need to worry about foul odors building up
TRUE
All areas of isolation should be disinfected, including the floor and walls. A. TRUE B. FALSE
Tables that are not completely dry have the potential to cause chemical burns or reactions to the next pet.
When disinfecting exam tables-
OSHA (Occupational safety and health administration)
governing body that enforces the compliances in the workplace.
Employer employee
The ___ & ___ is responsible for their health by following safe work practices.
Employer
The _____ is responsible for providing a safe and healthy work environment.
Acute
sudden onset of sickness. Can be from a single exposure to chemical or biological agent. Categorized as injuries by OSHA
Chronic
Long term side effects of illness. Sickness that is less apparent initially, but leads to symptoms. Such as radiation exposure
10
If a clinic has more than ___ employees, they need to post the log of occupational injuries and illnesses.
B
A cat scratch is not considered an injury. A. TRUE B. False
material safety data sheet
What does MSDS stand for?-
D
ame a potential hazard found in a storage area. A. Heavy bags of food. B. Large boxes C. hazardous chemicals D. All of the above
close
When lifting, hold objects- ____ to your body
Store them somewhere where they wont fall and spill
What should you keep in mind when storing hazardous materials?
All of the above
Disinfectants, radiographic solutions, or cleaners are considered chemicals.
should never be mixed together unless directed by the manufacturer.
Two different chemicals- should never be mixed together unless directed by the manufacturer.
personal protective equipment
PPE stands for-
Employee
The ___ is responsible for their health by following safe work practices.
Sharps containers
_____ _______should be located near each work area where sharps are used.
At least once daily
How often should mop water be changed to prevent odors?
Wash soiled laundry in a timely fashion and then fold and put away.
What will help keep the kennel area clean, orderly and odor free?
Contagious disease
disease spread by a microorganism from one animal to another
C
Sharps containers:
A. Should be filled to the top before replacing them with a new one.
B. Should be opened by hand and the contents emptied into a biohazard bag when the fill line is reached.
C. Should be located near each work area where sharps are used.
D. Can be any type of container as long as it is puncture resistant.
B
What should you do in the case of a broken microscope slide?
A. Very carefully pick up all pieces by hand, then sweep the remaining pieces up with a broom.
B. Pick up the pieces with tongs or sweep them up with a broom.
C. Sweep up the pieces and throw them into the trash.
D. Any of the above are acceptable
Zoonotic disease
disease spread from an animal to a human, through bacteria, viruses, or parasites.
zoonotic culturing
RINGWORM is a ______ disease. The best test for this is ____ hair or skin.
antifungal
How is ringworm treated- ________cream
fungus
Ringworm is classified as a skin condition caused by what type of organism?-
Physical examination
Heartworm disease can NOT be definitely diagnosed with which of the following methods?
no treatment
Heartworm disease in cats can be treated with- t
7 8
Heartworm larvae mature into adults in the cats body over ___ -___ months.
B (by ticks)
Lyme disease is transmitted by fleas- A. TRUE B. FALSE
VOMITING
Which of the following is not typically caused by a flea infestation? Itching, tapeworms, blood loss, vomiting?
feces
What is flea dirt? The ______ of a flea
Tick
Which external parasite remains attached to its host for days?
ROUNDWORM
Other than tapeworm, what intestinal parasite can be seen with the naked eye?
HOOKWORM
Which parasite can be passed from a dog or cat to a human?
TAPEWORM
Which parasite is transmitted by a flea?
B
All of the following are recommended when dealing with intestinal parasites EXCEPT- A. Removing feces immediately from the environment, B. switching the animal to a raw diet, B. treating the animal for parasites, treating the environment for parasites? C. Switching to raw diet
Antibiotic
drugs used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria
viral
Antibiotics have no effect on ______ infections.
ANTI
means against.
BIO
means life.
Antitoxin
an antibody that binds specifically with a toxin, or poisonous substance, to neutralize its effects on the body.
Carcinogen
a substance that has the capability of causing cancer. Examples of carcinogens can include chemicals and chemotherapy drugs,
Hormone
a chemical substance produced by the endocrine system and transported by the bloodstream to regulate the activity of certain cells or organs in the body. These are responsible for functions such as metabolism, blood glucose regulation and fertility cycles.
biohazard-
a biological substance, such as bacteria, virus, or infectious bodily fluid that poses a threat to the health of living organisms, particularly to humans.
bites are a method of disease transmission
Which statement is true regarding disease transmission? Insect
FALSE
Veterinary staff do not need to take precautions against the spread of disease unless the test comes back positive. TRUE FALSE
Mange
____ is a skin disease caused: by microscopic mites
Coughing sneezing
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of mange?
Heartworm
______ is a serious and potentially fatal condition caused by worms living in the heart and lungs. Commonly seen in dogs, but can effect cats.
no treatment available
Heartworm disease in cats can be treated with :
heart lungs
eline heartworms attack a cats- ____ and____
tick
Lyme disease is a _____ born illness caused by the bacterium BORELIA BURGDORFERI. This can cause joint inflammation and kidney damage.
Vomiting
Which of the following is not typically caused by a flea infestation?
Ticks
Which external parasites remain attached to its host for days?
Protozoan
Nonphotosynthetic, unicellular organism
Coccidia
protozoan parasite found in the intestinal tract
FALSE
Dogs transmit toxoplasma gondii more than cats. TRUE FALSE
FALSE
You can see protozoan parasites without a microscope? TRUE FALSE
fecal oral
Protozoan Parasites are transmitted through? ____ or ____ contact.
EXCESSIVE GROOMING
Each of the following is a symptom of FIV except? Persistent fever excessive grooming, loss of appetite and excessive weight loss, inflammation of gums and mouth.
bite
How is FIV transmitted to felines? Through _____ wounds
FALSE
A cat infected with FIV may not exhibit symptoms for a long time. TRUE FALSE
indoors
What can be done to reduce a cats risk of contacting FIV? Keeping the cat ______
Core
_____ vaccines (for canines ) are needed for all healthy dogs due to the disease being highly infectious or carrying a significant mortality rate. Canine distemper virus, parvo virus, adenovirus type two (hepatitis), or Rabies 1 year (by 16 weeks or age) or 3 year(after initial vaccination)
NON- CORE
____-____ vaccines- are needed based on geopgraphy, lifestyle or exposure risks.
Such as Canine parainfluenza virus, Bordatella bronchiseptica, canine influenza, Leptospirosis, Lyme disease
subcutaneous Oral nasal.
Routes of vaccine administration (both feline and canine)
_______(under the skin), _____ and ______.
canine influenza
Which vaccine is considered to be a non-core vaccine for canines? Distemper virus, parvovirus, adenovirus type 2, Canine influenza.
C
Which of the following statements is true regarding vaccines? A. They must be kept refrigerated during shipment, and then can be stored on the shelf, B. Core vaccines are those that should be given based on dog's individual risk for exposure due to environment or lifestyle, C. Some vaccination vials are manufactured to combine multiple vaccines that can be administered as one injection, D. All vaccines should be reconstituted upon arrival at the facility and then stored in the fridge until ready to administer.
3
A dog that recovers from distemper may continue to shed the virus for ___ months.
isolation
When working with a dog that is suspected of having distemper, what precautions should be taken? The dog should be kept in ^ When working with a dog that is suspected of having distemper, what precautions should be taken? The dog should be kept in
C
Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of canine distemper? A. Yellow discharge from the nose and mouth, B. coughing, C. constipation, D. seizures.
young
Parvovirus is Most commonly seen in _____ dogs
3 4 6 8
Puppies are typically vaccinated against parvo- every __-___ weeks starting at ____-____ weeks old
Digestive immune
Parvo is a highly contagious disease that affects which systems of the body? ______ and ______, (also damages heart).
HYPERACTIVITY
Signs of Parvo do NOT include- Vomiting, dehydration, Diarrhea, hyperactivity.
dry
What is the main symptom of kennel cough?- Harsh ____ cough
BACTERIA
What type of microorganism is Bordatella bronchiseptica (kennel cough)? bacteria, virus, fungus, antiseptic
blood urine
How is Lepto diagnosed? By testing _____and ______.
TRUE
Treatment for feline leukemia is mainly supportive and may include a blood transfusion due to anemia. TRUE FALSE
white
Leukopenia means- all _____shortage.
D
Feline distemper can be transmitted each of the following ways EXCEPT: A. through the mouth and nose, B. through placenta during pregnancy, C. through urine and feces, D. through an improperly prepared vaccine.
Canine parvovirus
Panleukopenia is closely related to what other virus?
effusive
Two forms of FIP: wet (_______) and Dry (____-____)
Feline Leukemia
Approximately 50-75% of cats with FIP will also test positive for what virus? Feline Leukemia
Effusive
Which form of Feline Infectious peritonitis causes fluid to accumulate in the abdomen or chest cavity?
100
Feline infectious peritonitis has a mortality rate of about -______%
TRUE
FIP itself is not contagious, but the coronavirus that causes it is. TRUE FALSE
Lack of appetite
which of the following is NOT a symptom of rabies? Strange changes in behavior, excessive salivating, paralysis, Lack of appetite
c
which of the following is one of the species most likely to carry rabies? A. Rats, B. feral cats, C. coyotes, D. squirrels.
virus
Rabies is caused by, a _______ that attacks the nervous system
10
How long does it take for an animal to show signs/symptoms of rabies? ___ days
hyperactivity
1. Signs of Parvovirus do not include: vomiting, dehydration, diarrhea, hyperactivity
microscopic mites
2. Mange is a skin disease caused by: allergies, exposure to chemicals, skin to skin contact with sick dogs, microscopic mites
obsessive grooming
3. Each of the following is a symptom of feline immunodeficiency virus except: persistent fever, obsessive grooming, loss of appetite and progressive weight loss, inflammation of gums or mouth
bite wounds
4. How is FIV transmitted to felines? through bite wounds, through social grooming, through fleas, through intestinal parasites
A
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding feline leukemia? A. felines are at risk of exposure when they cuddle and groom each other, B. there is a treatment and cure for feline leukemia, C. the disease is often transmitted through bite wounds during fighting, D. the disease is transmitted through infected feces.
Feline Leukemia
6. Approximately 50-75% of cats with FIP will also test positive for: feline distemper, Feline Leukemia, rabies, FIV
heart and lungs
7. Feline heartworms attack a cat's: heart and abdomen, heart and neurological system, heart and lungs, heart and skin.
there is not treatment for feline heartworm disease
Heartworm disease in cats can be treated with-
bacteria
What type of organism is Bordetella Bronchiseptica? bacteria, virus, fungus, antiseptic
C
10. Puppies are typically vaccinated against parvo: A. only once, B. every two weeks for six months, C. every 3-4 weeks starting at 6-8 weeks, D. while still nursing
C
12. What can be done to reduce a cat's risk of contracting FIV? A. Allowing the cat to go outside to build immunity, B. applying monthly flea and tick preventatives, C. keeping the cat indoors, D. there is nothing owners can do to reduce their cat's risk
3
13. A dog that recovers from distemper may continue to shed the virus for __ months. 2. 3, 1, 4
D
14. What is the main symptom of kennel cough? A. Vomiting,B. fever, C. wet cough, D. harsh, dry cough
Alopecia
15. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of leptospirosis? Jaundice, alopecia, fever, vomiting
C
16. How is Leptospirosis diagnosed? A. By taking a radiograph,B. by checking for weight loss, C. by testing blood and urine, D. by running a fecal flotation
digestive
17. Parvovirus is a highly contagious disease that affects which system? Respiratory, nervous, digestive, cardiovascular
B
18. Which statement is true regarding disease transmission? A. Disease can only be spread through inhalation, B. insect bites are a method of transmission, C. fomites are parts of an animals body that spread disease, D. personal protective equipment is never necessary as long as you wash your hands
B
19. THE word leukopenia means: A. from leukemia, B. all white shortage, C. virus of leukocytes, D. all white surplus
B
20. Which statement is NOT true regarding rabies quarantine? A. A rabies quarantine is required if a pet bites a human, B. animals under rabies quarantine should only be walked outside twice a day, C. the number of staff involved in suspected rabies cases should be limited to as little as possible, D. the quarantined animal should be kept in a completely enclosed kennel.
Corgi
This dog breed comes in 2 variations: Pembroke and Cardigan-
Sheltie
The ___ looks like a scaled down version of a collie-
German Shepherd
the ___ has a higher than average rate of hip dysplasia- German Shepherd
Greyhound
Which hound is best known for racing?
Basenji
Which hound dog does not bark, but instead makes yodeling and chorting noises?
Dachshund
Which hound dog breed is pre disposed to back problems?
D
Which breed will need groomed regularly? A. Lhaso Apso, B. keeshond, C. chow, D. all of the above
Chow
Which breed has a bluish-black tongue?
Dalmation
Which breed is prone to congenital deafness and skin allergies?
all of the above
Labs typically come in which color? A. Yellow, B. black, C. chocolate, D. All of the above
Sense of smell
Hunting dogs rely on their ____.
D.
Which retriever enjoys the water? A. Golden retriever, B. Labrador retriever, C. Chesapeake bay retriever, D. All of the above
Scottish Terrier
Which terrier breed does not make good swimmers because of their short legs?
brachycephalic
Boston terriers have- _______ heads that give them a smooshed face.
Staffordshire
Which often misunderstood breed is restricted in some states and cities? ________ Terrier (Pit Bull)
Chihuahua
Which is the smallest canine breed?
Pug
Which toy breed has significant skin wrinkles and protruding eyes?
Maltese
Which toy breed is less than 10 pounds and is characterized by its white long flowing haircoat?
Irish wolfhound
The great dane is a mix of mastiff and?
Akita
Which dog originated in Japan and was a fighting dog?
Boxer
Which breed seems to have a predisposition to cancer and heart conditions?
True
Canine communication often uses multiple signals including scent, vocalization, and body posture. TRUE FALSE
False
Fearful dogs are the least likely to bite a person. TRUE FALSE
Context
In addition to observing all parts of a dog's body, you should also be aware of the _____ of their behavior.
CROPPED
Dogs with ___ ears are difficult to interpret because they are not capable of much movement.
A
In the ____ position, the ears are pulled forward, causing the skin on the head to wrinkle. A. Alert, B, neutral, C. submissive, D.. Back
True
Dogs may pant when they are anxious or stressed. TRUE FALSE
C
A vertically raised lip is considered a A. submissive, B. friendly, C. threatening, D. neutral, ______ posture.
D
How can you tell the difference between a defensive grin and a submissive grin? A. Submissive grinning dogs have more closed eyes. B. Submissive grinning dogs may lick their lips. C, Defensive grinning dogs keep their eyes wide open. D. all of the above
D
If a dog's eyes are darting around and constantly scanning, the dog is showing? A. Aggression. B. Anxiety. C. Fear. D. Both B. and C. are correct
D
Characteristics of a dog's eyes that you need to pay attention to are? A. Direct stare or avoidance of eye contact. B. Pupil size. C. How open the eyes are. D. all of the above
A
Scrunched eyes is a characteristic of A. threatening, B. Submissive, C. scared, D. none of the above dogs
B
______ behaviors are those that are shown in social situations in which the dog feels threatened or challenged, A. antagonistic, B. agonistic, C. aggressive, D. assertive
False
Submissive dogs often bark or growl. TRUE FALSE
B
Non threatening behaviors are also called? A. Agonistic, B. appeasement , C. antagonistic, D. non of the above
A
Torn clothing or red marks resulting from a bite can be viewed as a threat. A. TRUE B. FALSE
D
Protective aggression occurs when a. the owner shakes hands with someone outside the dog's social group, b. the owner is hugged by someone outside the dog's social group c. the owner is handed a package from someone outside the social group. D. all of the above
OFFENSIVELY DEFFENSIVELY
Fill in offensively or defensively- A dog that is ____ aggressive may chase you down the street, but a ___ aggressive dog won't.
C
Aggression is defined as behaviors that result in ____ of the opponent. A. flight, b. submission, c. harm, d. death
Threatening
A slow methodical tail wag is a ____ posture.
Agonistic.
____ behaviors are those that are shown in social situations in which the dog feels threatened or challenged.
Manx
The ___ cat does not have a tail.
Rex sphinx
Which cat breed is good for people with allergies due to their fine haircoat? ____ or ______
Displacement
Yawning, licking and grooming can be ___ behaviors?
True
Dogs may pant when they are anxious or stressed? TRUE FALSE
C.
A dog that is ___________ stands very straight, and may lean forward.
A. Neutral. B. Aggressive. C. Alert . D. Friendly.
ADRENALINE
A stressful environment causes the release of-
ears pulled back
One sign of a fear biter would be-
HEAD
t is most important to always control which part of the dog?
D
A.way to gain a dog's trust is to ___. A. get down on their level, B. slowly offer your hand., C. speak quietly and use their name., D. All of the above
head
When restraining a large dog, the most important thing to control is? THE _______
towel
To facilitate restraint, a _____ may be used to? IMPAIR THE ANIMALS VISION
A
The more you cuddle a dog close to your body, the less chance the dog will bite you. A. TRUE B. FALSE
FALSE (nose breathers)
All dogs are mouth breathers.
TRUE FALSE
C
Which of the following should not be used to handle aggressive cats?
A. Leather gloves B. Towels C. Leash D. Ez Nabber
B
A scared or aggressive cat will exhibit which appearance?
A. Ears up, pupils constricted B. Ears back, pupils dilated C. Ears back, pupils constricted D. Ears up, eyes closed
B
The stretch hold for an aggressive cat is ok to do in front of an owner.
A. True B. False
D
All of the following are aggressive cat behaviors except:
A. Ears pulled back B. Hair standing on end C. Open mouth hissing D. Fast tail movement E. None of the above
D
. We should never substitute force for ___________.
A. Luck B. Quick reaction time C. Fear D. Technique
B
Good restraint begins with ___________________.
A. good staff. B. good communication. C. good force. D. none of the above
B
Substituting force instead of skill and good technique is necessary at times.
A. True B. False
femoral
By palpating along the upper inner thigh of an animal, you can find the _____ pulse
15 seconds, 4
To obtain a respiratory rate, you should count the number of breaths in a __ seconds and multiply the number by __.
YES
Is 102 degrees fahrenheit considered to be the normal temperature range for canines?
B
When working with canines on the floor:
A. You should lay across the dog's back to keep them in a sternal position. B. Place the dog in a corner or brace their back end with your body, to keep them from backing up. C. Keep both your knees on the floor when performing a standard hold. D. There is no need to use a leash as long as the dog has a collar on.
A
Which restraint hold would be best for anal gland expressions, rectal exams, and procedures pertaining to the tail end of the dog?
A. One arm cradling the dog's head, while the other arm supports under the abdomen in front of the flank. B. Sitting the dog on the table or floor, while controlling the head with your hands. C. Holding the front of the dog off the edge of the table. D. One hand holding the muzzle of the dog, while the other hand supports the back of the skull.
D
Which dog breeds require special consideration regarding restraint to avoid respiratory distress? A. Hound dogs B. Only toy breed dogs C. Barrel-chested dogs D. Brachycephalic dogs
B
Which vein is likely the safest to work with when dealing with a fractious cat? A. Left jugular vein B. Medial saphenous vein C. Right cephalic vein D. Left axillary vein
B
When scruffing a cat: A. It's important to hold the lower jaw as well. B. You should see the cat's ears move closer together. C. They will not be able to scratch you. D. Grab the loose skin at the base of the neck near the shoulders.
A
When drawing blood from the jugular vein:
A. The handler should be on the opposite side of the blood draw. B. The handler should be on the same side of the blood draw. C. It doesn't matter where the handler is. D. There is no need for a handler.
A
How often should mop water be changed out, in order to prevent odor & contamination? A. At least once a day B. At least once a week C. When the mop bucket is empty D. When it starts to smell
...
What is appropriate safety gear for disinfecting or sanitizing a kennel with chemicals? A. A gown, mask and gloves B. Gloves only C. Eye protection and gloves D. Gloves, a mask and eye protection
B
4. Which is not an example of a microorganism? A. Bacteria B. Fecal matter C. Fungus D. Virus
...
What should you do if you are asked to disinfect a kennel? A. Remove any items or waste left behind B. Completely eliminate microorganisms C. Use chemicals to kill most microorganisms D. Spot clean any messes in the kennel
b.i.d (Bi= 2 (as in bicycle))
Twice a day or every 12 hours.
t.i.d. (Tri= 3 (tricycle))
three times a day, or every 8 hours.
q
Pharmacy term: every
qod
Pharmacy term: every other day
q.d s.i.d
one time every day or once daily (every day) ____ & ____
q.i.d.
four times a day
p.r.n. (prn itching = as needed for itching)
administer as needed
Right (If a prescription for eye drops contains the abbreviation O.D. it is limiting the eyedrops to the patient's right eye)
O.D.= _____ eye
left
O.L. or O.S. = ____ eye.
O.U.
both eyes
E
To fill a prescription for the doctor, the following information is needed except: A. patient information, B. medication C. duration D. frequency E. all of the above are needed.
A
The abbreviation q6h translates to ________________. A. every 6 hours B. every 6 days C. give 6 times D. 6 times per day
D
Prescription labels should contain which of the following?
A. the flavor of a chewable tablet B. whether the drug is a pill or a capsule C. the brand of the drug D. the drug's expiration date
B
Some hospitals carry stickers of ______________ to adhere to pill bottles. A. name and address of veterinarian B. precautionary statements C. name, strength and quantity of the medication D. expiration dates
A
_________ products do not require a doctor's prescription. A. otc B. sig C. bid D. qid
B
If the sig says prn itching, that means _______________.
A. may cause itching B. as needed for itching C. do not give if itching occurs D. "prescription really needed" for itching
b
OTC and prescription drugs require a doctor's prescription.
A. True
B. False
ml
1 ____= 1cc (cubic centimeter)
5
1 tsp = ___ ml
15
1 Tablespoon = ___ ml (3 teaspoons)
30
1 oz = ____ cc.
B
When completing the FIRST step in filling a prescription, it is important that the ____ and _____ match up. A. concentration ; quantity B. name ; concentration C. name ; quantity D. none of the above
FALSE
One of the techniques commonly used in pharmacies is: applying pressure to a non-scored pill (that sits on a counter) with two fingers to force a break. A. True B. False
C
5 ml (milliliters) of a liquid medication is the equivalent of _______________. A. 1 tablespoon B. 1 ounce C. 1 teaspoon D. none are correct
C
1 tsp is equal to ___ mls and 1 Tbsp is equal to _____ mls.
A. 2 ; 8 B. 4 ; 12 C. 5 ; 15 D. 6 ; 18
D
One oz (ounce) of a liquid medication is the equivalent of ___________________. A. 30 milliliters B. 2 tablespoons C. 6 teaspoons D. all are correct
C
Which product is carried in a fluid base? A. Cream B. Ointment C. Solution D. All of the above
D
On what body parts are topical medications used? A. Eyes. B. Ears. C. Skin. D. All of the above.
B
Which product generally contains oil? A. Cream. B. Ointment. C. Fluid. D. Powder.
A
When administering an oral medication to a cat, it may help to ________________. A. wrap the cat's feet and body in a towel B. place the pill in the cat's food bowl and wait C. wrap your arms in towels first D. set the cat on a towel
A
Many drugs that are available in an injectable form have been formulated into an oral medication for home use. A. True B. False
D
Stimulating a swallowing reflex in a cat can be done by? A. lightly blowing on the nose B. rubbing the throat C. placing your finger on the cat's tongue D. Both A and B E. Both B and C
A
What foods are recommended when hiding oral medication? A. canned food, cheese, and peanut butter B. canned food, peanut butter and deli ham C. peanut butter, cheese and chocolate D. none of the above
B
The best way to assure that abscesses and/or infections do not result from an injection: A. give the injection IM B. use a sterile needle and syringe C. give the injection in the area above the neck D. none of the above
B
The muscle tissue tends to have a _______ blood supply than the subcutaneous area. A. smaller B. greater C. the same amount D. None of the above
B
The _______ injection aims to deposit the drug just beneath the skin where it will slowly be absorbed into the animal's system. A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intravenous D. None of the Above
B
The best route of administration for a drug that is irritating to tissues would be _____________. A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Subcutaneous D. none are correct
A
Drugs are absorbed more rapidly by intramuscular injection than subcutaneously because ______. A. the muscle contains more blood supply B. the drug is injected directly into a vein C. the volume given by IM injection is higher than by SC D. the drug is not absorbed more rapidly
A
Which route of administration should a veterinary staff use for quickest effect? A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Subcutaneous D. None of the above
C
Controlled Substance records are regularly inspected by the ____________ and must be 100% accurate. A. Hospital Manager
B. Veterinarian C. D.E.A. D. Technician
D
When any patient receives or is dispensed a controlled substance, it must be recorded in the _________. A. lock box B. practice management program C. prescription label D. controlled substance log book
B
Schedule 1 drugs are commonly found in veterinary hospitals.
A. True B. False
A
Scheduled drugs can be identified by what designation on their package label? A. capital "C" and Roman numeral B. capital "SD" and Roman numeral D. skull and crossbones on label
D
.The controlled substance log book should have the following information: A. How much controlled substance(s) are on hand at all times B. Which patient was given what drug, when and how much. C. Date and company controlled substance was received from. D. All of the above E. None of the above
SID
once a day
BID
twice a day
TID
three times a day
QID
four times a day
EOD
Every other day
PRN
give as needed
AC
before meals (AM)
PC
after meals (PM)
IM
Intramuscular injection
SQ
subcutaneous injection
PO
by the mouth
NPO
not by the mouth
AD
right ear
AS
left ear
AU
both ears
AU
both ears
OD
right eye
OS
left eye
OU
both eyes
GTT
Drops (eyes)
C
Which abbreviation means "give every other day"? A. SID B. EOD C. PRN D. AC
C
Which abbreviation means "give before meals"? A. PRN B. QID C. AC D. EOD
C
Which abbreviation means "left ear"? A. OU B. AU C. AS D. OS
B
What is the most common cause of ear infections in veterinary patients? A. Ear mites B. Allergies C. Close contact with infected patients D. Swimming
A
How do you ensure proper distribution of a medication in the ear?
A. Massage the ear canal B. Squeeze in a lot of medication C. Use a tube with a long nozzle D. Apply frequently
C
Which term indicates that the ear flap has filled with blood? A. Ear ablation B. Ear trauma C. Ear hematoma D. Ear infection
D
What type of dog would be considered predisposed to ear infections? A. Older dogs B. Puppies C. Small breeds D. Floppy eared breeds
A
Which is an example of an eye infection? A. Conjunctivitis B. Proptosis C. Dry eye D. Corneal Ulcer
C
Which canine breed type should you be most careful with when applying eye medication? A. Toy breeds B. Working breeds C. Brachycephalic breeds D. Mutts
B
When applying eye ointment, you should aim for:
A. The pupil B. The conjunctival sac C. The cornea D. The eyelid
B
If a pet won't take a pill that's hidden in a treat, what should you try next?
A. Trying an injectable instead B. Manual administration C. Rectal administration D. Find a different treat
D
What method do they suggest to try first when administering oral medication? A. Trying an injectable instead B. Manual administration C. Rectal administration D. Hiding it in food
A
How can you safely encourage a pet to swallow a pill? A. Blow on the nose or stroke the neck B. Force your fingers down their throat C. Cover their nostrils D. Hold them upside down
C
Which of the following statements is correct? A. The flea medication should be applied to the top of the fur B. The flea medication should be applied directly to the skin C. The flea medication should be applied with a cottonball D. The flea medication should be applied with cotton applicators
A
What safety precautions should you take when applying flea medication? A. Wear gloves or wash your hands after B. Wear gloves and eye protection C. Wear eye protection only D. Wear gloves and a mask
D
A dog should be bathed how long after the application of flea medications? A. Immediately B. Within 2 hours D. Check with the manufacturer
B
Where is a subcutaneous injection normally given? A. In the abdomen B. Between the shoulder blades C. In the lower part of the leg D. In the front leg
C
How is a subcutaneous injection given? A. In the muscle B. In the vein C. Under the skin D. In the mouth
3. What is the first step in giving a subcutaneous injection?
A
What is the first step in giving a subcutaneous injection? A. Tent the skin B. Pull back the syringe C. Use the one-handed method to remove the needle D. Give positive reinforcement
D
Why should you swap out needles after drawing up the injection?
A. Because the first needle is no longer clean B. Because the first needle is too small C. Because the first needle is too big D. Because the first needle is no longer sharp
A
Where is the lumbar region? A. To the side of the spine, above the ilium B. The abdomen C. The base of the neck D. The top of the spine
C
What might happen if an intramuscular injection hits a nerve? A. Nothing will happen B. An allergic reaction
C. Nerve damage or paralysis D. Gastrointenstinal distress
C
How should you prep a very furry area prior to applying medication? A. Shave it B. Clean it with scrub C. Shave and scrub the area D. No preparation needed
A
What should you do after applying topical medication? A. Monitor the pet for licking B. Put the patient back in the room or cage C. Apply a second, thicker layer D. Nothing else needs to be done
C
If a patient licks the medication, what can be done? A. Nothing needs to be done B. Add additional medication C. Apply an e-collar or a bandage D. Put the patient in a crate
B
What sort of gear should be worn to apply topical medication? A. A mask B. Gloves C. A gown D. No protective gear is needed
B
Which hind leg vein is preferred in dogs? A. Femoral vein B. Lateral saphenous vein C. Cephalic vein D. Medial saphenous vein
C
What's the biggest advantage to giving a medication intravenously?
A. It's easiest B. It's safest C. It hits the bloodstream fastest D. It's the least expensive option
D
How can you verify that your needle hit the vein? A. Wiggle it around to see if the vein moves B. Shine a light on it C. Inject the medication and see what happens. D. Pull back on the plunger and see if there's blood in the syringe
A
How should you safely recap a needle?
A. The one-handed technique B. With gloves C. Just pick it up D. Have your assistant help
B
The _______ injection aims to deposit the drug just beneath the skin where it will slowly be absorbed into the animal's system.
A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intravenous D. None of the Above
B
The best route of administration for a drug that is irritating to tissues would be _____________. A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Subcutaneous D. none are correct
B
When completing the first step in filling a prescription, it is important that the ____ and _____ match up.
A. concentration ; quantity B. name ; concentration C. name ; quantity D. none of the above
C
.Which product is carried in a fluid base? A. Cream B. Ointment C. Solution D. All of the above
B
Muzzles are usually painful to the pet, and should be avoided. A. True. B. False.
B
The doctor will typically suggest the owner restrain their animal. A. True. B. False.
B
What is the most common way to restrain a non-aggressive cat? A. By the back legs. B. One hand under the belly, and the other around the neck. C. By the scruff. D. By the front legs.
C
1Which statement is NOT true regarding deceased animals? A. Some owners will want to come visit their pet if they were not present at their death. B. It's important to remove fluids such as urine and feces from a deceased patient before bringing them to the owner. C. If a necropsy is to be performed, keep the animal in the freezer until the veterinarian is ready for the procedure. D. It's best to provide owners with final arrangement options prior to euthanizing their pet.
D
Which final arrangement option should involve checking with local authorities for what is allowable? A. Communal Cremation B. Cemetery burial C. Rendering services D. Home burial
B
When working with canines on the floor: A. You should lay across the dog's back to keep them in a sternal position. B. Place the dog in a corner or brace their back end with your body, to keep them from backing up. C. Keep both your knees on the floor when performing a standard hold. D. There is no need to use a leash as long as the dog has a collar on.
B (nose breathers)
Dogs and cats are mouth breathers. A. True B. False
B
Substituting force instead of skill and good technique is necessary at times.A. True B. False
Disinfectant
a chemical agent applied to inanimate surfaces to kill disease- causing microorganisms.
Isolation
the physical separation of a part. More commonly in the kennel setting, isolation is a term used to describe the segregation of patients with a contagious disease.
Lethargic
the lacking of energy or seeming indifferent to surroundings.
Lethargic
the lacking of energy or seeming indifferent to surroundings.
Malnutrition- the condition caused by a lack of nutrition. This could be due to not having enough to eat, not eating enough of the right things, or the body being unable to utilize food that has been consumed.
A
Which of these diseases can be spread from a dog to a human through contact with infected urine? A. Leptospirosis B. Ringworm C. Distemper D. Parvovirus
E
What sort of protective gear can be worn to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Gloves B. A surgical gown C. Booties D. A mask E. All of the above
B
What is a zoonotic disease? A. A disease caught by zoo animals B. A disease that's spread from an animal to a human C. A disease that only dogs can catch D. A disease only cats can catch
C
Which is not an example of a fomite?
A. Bedding B. Exam Tables C. Saliva D. Chew toys
D
Which of the following is not on the list of commonly used cleaning products? A. Chlorine Bleach B. Quaternary Ammonia C. Phenols D. Sudsing Soaps
C
Which of the following is not a desirable quality in a cleaning agent? A. Fungicidal B. Rapid onset C. Inactivated by contact with soap D. Able to withstand changes in pH
B
When diluting chemicals.... A. It's okay to mix bleach and ammonia B. You should add the water before adding the chemical C. You should never dilute with water D. You should not use a secondary container
A
What is a brand name example of a Phenol? A. Lysol B. Clorox C. Roccal-D D. TBQ
E
What can prescription diets be used for? A. To treat a specific condition B. To avoid issues with food allergies C. To prevent GI issues D. To treat a hospitalized patient E. All of the above
A
Why should owners bring their pet's food for boarding? A. Changes in diet can lead to vomiting or diarrhea B. It's less expensive for the boarding facility or hospital C. They shouldn't -- the pet should use the hospital's food D. To make things easier for the kennel staff
E
What should you watch out for when feeding and medicating patients? A. Lack of appetite B. Refusal to take medications C. Constipation or diarrhea D. Lethargy E. All of the above
D
When placing an aggressive animal into a cage: B. Leave the muzzle on, and quickly close the cage door. C. Wrap them tightly in a towel, so they cannot get out after they are put in the cage. D. It's best to place them in a bottom cage.
A
Leave the animal's own collar and ID tags on them for easy identification. B. Use proper lifting techniques when picking up the animal. C. Notify the veterinarian if you notice any signs of anxiety in a caged animal. D. Face the animal away from you when placing them in upper cages.
B
Food bought through a veterinarian is always more expensive than those in pet specialty stores.
A. True B. False
C
What is a therapeutic diet?
A. Food that is sold over-the-counter. B. Any food that is labeled as "complete and balanced." C. Food that is sold under the supervision of a veterinarian. D. Treats that make the animal feel good.
B
How long can you leave canned food out after it's offered to an animal? A. As long as it takes the animal to eat it. B. No longer than 2 hours. C. 6 hours D. 2-4 hours
D
For an animal that has mats close to the skin: A. Use a pair of scissors to gently cut out the mat. B. Pull the mat up and away from the body, then carefully cut it out. C. Holding the blade at a perpendicular angle to the skin, use clippers to cut across the mat. D. Pull the skin tight across the body and run clipper blades along the body, almost parallel to the skin.
C
Which statement is NOT true when preparing a dog or cat for a bath? A. Brushing out the animal's coat prepares the animal's skin by removing dead skin and hair. B. Nail trims and anal gland expression is often included in the process. C. Tough mats are easier to work out during the bath. D. It's important to disinfect the table and any combs or brushes used after each animal.
A
Brachycephalic dogs have a higher risk of water being sprayed directly into their eyes or nose. A. True B. False
B
Once an animal is secure in the tub, what is the first step you should take in the bathing process? A. Wet and wash the face.
B. Apply eye lubricant. C. Wet the animal's body thoroughly. D. Go gather your supplies
B
If a shampoo is labeled as "tearless" it will not matter if it gets in the animal's eyes. A. True B. False
B (animal should be wet)
If you will be performing a medicated dip on an animal, make sure you have thoroughly dried them after their bath. A. True B. False
C
Which statement is NOT true regarding chemical dips for patients? A. Carefully follow the label directions for preparing the dip unless directed otherwise by the veterinarian. B. Make sure you are in a well-ventilated area. C. Protective eye wear is the only personal protective equipment needed. D. Remove any food or water bowls from the animal's cage until they are dry.
D
After an animal has received a chemical dip:
A. The animal must be thoroughly rinsed. B. Place them back into a cage with a towel or blanket to lay on. C. They will not need to be monitored for any adverse reactions as long as you mixed the dip correctly. D. Place an e-collar on the animal to prevent them from licking the dip.
A
Long-haired or thick-coated breeds may need to be shaved in order for a chemical dip to be effective. A. True B. False
B
Which statement is NOT true regarding electric clippers?
A. It's important to follow the manufacturer's directions for cleaning the hand piece.
B. It's perfectly acceptable to use clipper blades on multiple patients before cleaning them as long as the patient is not ill. C. Use a small brush such as a toothbrush to remove trapped hair from the clipper
C
What should you do with a clipper blade that has chipped or broken teeth? A. Have them sharpened. B. Clean them and reattach them to the hand piece. C. Discard them. D. Test them to see if they still clip hair.
A
What is the best approach to cutting nails during a nail trim? A. Cut 2-3mm from the quick of the nail at a 45 degree angle. B. Hold the nail trimmers straight up and down and cut at a 90 degree angle. C. Use a 25 degree angle and stop 5-6mm before the quick of the nail. D. The angle to cut does not matter as long as you stop when the nail begins to bleed.
C
Which statement is TRUE? A. When performing a nail trim, restraint of the animal is not needed since you are only working with the paws. B. Black nails do not have a quick. C. Nails should be cut in small gradual clips to try avoid cutting the quick. D. There is no need to trim dewclaws since they do not grow like the rest of the nails.
B
When picking up a dog, control the dog's ____________. A. Legs. B. Head. C. Paws. D. Abdomen.
A
Using hearing protection is an important part of working in a kennel. A. True. B. False.
D
Removing a cat from a cage is best done using a ________.
A. Leash. B. Catch pole. C. Fish net. D. Towel.
B
Which is not an example of a microorganism? A. Bacteria B. Fecal matter C. Fungus D. Virus
Histology
the microscopic study of plant and animal tissue structures
Microbiology
the study of microscopic forms of life, such as bacteria and viruses
Cytology
the microscopic study of cells
Microscope
an instrument that uses a lens or combination of lenses to magnify objects that are not otherwise visible with the naked eye.
Ova
the plural form of ovum, which is latin for egg. In a veterinary laboratory setting, ova is typically used to describe the eggs of a parasite viewed under the microscope
Benign
the term used to describe a disease that is not malignant, meaning it does not have the tendency to spread or worsen.
Glucose
a simple sugar, a monosaccharide, and is the basic source of energy for all cells in the body.
Contaminant
something that makes a substance unusable for its intended purpose.
Centerfugation
the process of spinning fluids, such as blood or urine, in order to separate particles of different densities, allowing for a more detailed analysis of the sample.
Hematocrit
________ (HCT)- is the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood, and essentially the same as a packed-cell volume. However, a hematocrit test uses an automated hematology instrument, such as a CBC machine to calculate the percentage of red blood cells.
Anemia
term to describe a lower than normal volume of red blood cells circulating throughout the body.
D
A urinalysis may provide information for which conditions? A. Diabetes. B. Kidney disease. C. Urinary tract infections. D. All of the above.
C
Which technique will yield the most contaminated sample? A. Catheterization. B. Cystocentesis. C. Free catch. D. Cystocytosis.
B
Which technique provides the most sterile sample of the following collection methods? A. Catheterization. B. Cystocentesis. C. Free catch. D. Cystocytosis.
C
The direct smear method is especially helpful when diagnosing _____________.
A. Fungus. B. Toxins C. Protozoans. D. All of the above.
A
When using the microscope, we need to look for eggs in the feces rather than the adults. A. True. B. False.
A
What is the recommended time to let a fecal sample sit?
A. 5-10 minutes. B. 10-15 minutes. C. 15-20 minutes. D. 25 minutes.
D
What magnification will you generally start out using when scanning for parasites? A. 4X. B. 10X. C. 40X. D. Both A and B.
D
The ________ is the platform on which the slide is secured. A. Condensor. B. Objective. C. Diaphragm. D. Stage.
B
Another name for a lens is? A. Nosepiece. B. Objective. C. Fine adjustment. D. Coarse adjustment.
C
What is the name of developing heartworms? A. Myofilaria. B. Dirofilaria. C. Microfilaria. D. Microbes. 2. In the video, the second type of test looks for ____________? A. The presence of adult heartworms. B. The presence of developing heartworms. C. The presence of antigen. D. None of the above.
A
What do you do when the sample can be seen in the activation window? A. Press the button on the test kit until it clicks. B. Read the results. C. Rotate the test clockwise. D. Thoroughly mix the conjugate.
Centrifuge
injuries can occur if trying to stop it with fingers or other foreign objects.
B
A ___________ is a disease causing bacteria or virus. A. Parasite. B. Pathogen. C. Pathos. D. Fungus.
B
Dispose of needles and scalpels in a plastic baggie, then place in a trash can. A. True. B. False.
A
Treat all biological samples ___________. A. As if infected. B. As if not infected. C. As if safe. D. None of the above.
B
A ___________ is a disease causing bacteria or virus.
A. Parasite. B. Pathogen. C. Pathos. D. Fungus.
Dewormer
medication used to kill or eliminate internal parasites from the body.
Dehydration-
condition in which the body contains a lower than normal amount of water. This may occur through inadequate water intake or through loss of bodily fluids such as vomiting, diarrhea or increased urination.
Antiseptic
chemical agent that kills or reduces the growth of microorganisms on the surface of the body.
Purulent
______ (pus)- refers to an opaque fluid produced by the body due to an infection, that often contains dead white blood cells, disintegrating tissue, and bacteria.
Abscess
localized cavity of infection purulent fluid or material.
Parenteral
administration of medications that refers to a route not given through the gastrointestinal tract. This injection can be administered through routes such as an intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or intradermal injection. (like a bubble in the skin). NOT oral.
Hypodermic
relating to the area beneath the skin. This injection is also called a subcutaneous injection.
Intradermal
the layer of skin between the surface and subcutaneous tissue, abbreviated ID.
Red
25 gauge needle color
Blue
22 gauge needle color
Pink
20 gauge needle color
Green
18 gauge needle color
1
Tuburculin= ____cc syringe
Luer
A _____ slip (or regular )- a straight hub of the needle, or a catheter tip, which is a larger tapered tip.
D
What is the difference between a 25 gauge and a 20 gauge needle? A. The 25 gauge has a green cap and the 20 gauge has a red cap. B. The 25 gauge is larger than the 20 gauge. C. The 25 gauge has a red cap and the 20 gauge has a blue cap D. The 25 gauge is smaller than the 20 gauge.
B
Which is NOT a common type of syringe tip used in veterinary medicine? A. Luer lock B. Toomey (has a ring on the end for one handed use) C. Catheter D. Luer slip/regular
D
Prescription labels should contain which of the following? A. the flavor of a chewable tablet B. whether the drug is a pill or a capsule C. the brand of the drug D. the drug's expiration date
B
If the sig says prn itching, that means _______________. A. may cause itching B. as needed for itching C. do not give if itching occurs D. "prescription really needed" for itching
E
To fill a prescription for the doctor, the following information is needed except:
A. patient information, B. medication C. duration D. frequency E. all of the above are needed.
A
The abbreviation q6h translates to ________________. A. every 6 hours
B. every 6 days C. give 6 times D. 6 times per day
B
Why should gloves be worn during a dental cleaning? A. Gloves create a better grip on the tools. B. Bacteria in mouth can be harmful if get into cracks in the skin. C. The water from the scaler is hot, and can burn your hands. D. All of the above.
A
What protection should be taken when handling chemotherapeutic drugs? A. Double gloves. B. Impenetrable mask. C. Protective eye wear. D. All of the above.
C
_______________ should be placed in a sharp's container.
A. Blood tubes. B. Dirty exam gloves. C. Scalpel blades. D. Suture material.
B
The best way to assure that abcesses and/or infections do not result from an injection: A. give the injection IM B. use a sterile needle and syringe C. give the injection in the area above the neck D. none of the above
Rostral
refers to a direction toward the region of the nose or mouth.
Thorax
part of the body between the neck and the abdomen, that includes objects such as the ribs and breastbone, as well as organs such as the heart and lungs.
Abdomen
the part of the body between the chest and pelvis that contains organs such as the stomach, intestines, liver, kidneys, and bladder.
Gallbladder
a balloon like structure embedded in the lobes of the liver that collects and stores bile. Rats and horses, however do not have a gallbladder.
Prefix
used to indicate color, location, time frame, or number of a term. When written alone these will usually be presented with a hyphen following the prefix.
Peri
around. Periodontal- surrounding the teeth.
Arthro
joint/circulation. Arthritis- inflammation in the joints.
A
In the word "cephalic", "cephal" is the A. Root word B. Suffix C. Prefix D. None of the above
C
Using your understanding of prefixes and root words, what definition fits "pericardial"? A. Inside the heart B. A heart attack C. Around the heart D. Without a heart
D
Using your understanding of prefixes and root words, what area of the body would "dermatitis" affect? A. The stomach B. The feet C. The fur D. The skin
Cranial
toward the front or head of the animal.
Anterior
toward the head (used for internal organs or ligaments)
Caudal
toward the back or tail of the animal.
Posterior
directed toward the back (used for internal organs or ligaments)
Medial
toward the middle or midline (or more central to the vein when drawing blood)
Lateral
directed toward the outside of the animal (to place an animal on its side when x-raying) recumbent position. Away from the midline
Dorsal
directed toward the back of an animal
Ventral
directed toward the underside or belly
Proximal
closer to the origin (closer to the cut or wound)
Distal
away from the origin. (away from the cut or wound)
pig
Porcine
cow
Bovine
sheep
Ovine
goat
Caprine
bird
Avian
C
The directional term "caudal" indicates what when referring to a pet's anatomy? A. Towards the front or head of the animal B. Directed towards the underside of the animal C. Toward the back or tail of the animal D. Directed towards the middle of the animal
D
2. The proper name for a sheep is A. Bovine B. Porcine C. Caprine D. Ovine
B
When describing something further away from a pet's wound, you would say it is A. Proximal B. Distal C. Anterior D. Cranial
B
When asked to place an animal in a "lateral recumbent position", you should place it A. On its back, lying down B. On its side, away from the midline C. With its backside up D. Facing you
B
What is the name of the badge that should be worn at all times of radiation exposure. A. Doppler. B. Dosimeter. C. Tonometer. D. Osscillometric.
A
What was the first human radiograph of? A. A woman's hand B. A man's foot C. A man's hand D. A woman's arm
C
High speed screens will enhance the exposure as much as _____ times. A. 10 B. 30 C. 20 D. 50
B
The power supply for generating radiographs comes from the _____________. A. Tube B. Transformer C. Generator D. Table top
B
The cathode ray tube is housed in the ____________. A. Tabletop B. Tube C. Film D. Generator
C
Which statement is NOT true of ultrasonography? A. It can detect a mass within an organ that is not visible on radiographs. B. It can be used to guide a needle into a specific organ for sample collection. C. It takes much less time to perform an ultrasound than a radiograph. D. Pregnancy can be detected sooner with ultrasound than radiographs
B
Ultrasonography uses what type of waves to create an image? A. Radioactive B. Sound C. Ultraviolet D. Electromagnetic
C
An echocardiogram is used to: A. Examine all the organs in the abdominal cavity B. Examine the structure of adrenal glands C. Examine the structure and function of the heart D. Examine the lungs
B
When preparing a dog for an abdominal ultrasound, how should the animal be positioned in a v-trough? A. In a sternal position B. In a dorsal position (on his back) C. Standing up in the trough D. Only the lower half of the dog should be in the trough
D
What's the best way to locate and shave the area on a patient prior to a cardiac ultrasound? A. Feel the left side of the dog's chest for the heartbeat, then shave an area the size of your hand around it. B. Draw a line from the xiphoid process to the left side and shave from that line up. C. Roll the patient to their left side and shave the right side of the chest from the edge of the ribcage to the axillary region D. Tuck the right front leg against the chest and where the elbow lines up with the chest, shave a square about 3-4 ribs wide
B
What is the shaved area for preparing a patient receiving an abdominal ultrasound? A. Start at the xiphoid process, follow along the edge of the ribs, then to the pelvic inlet. B. Start at the xiphoid process and shave a strip down the midline to the pelvic inlet. C. Start along the edge of the ribcage, and only shave the patient's right side. D. Shave a small square on the left side of the patient's chest.
C
Choose the statement that is TRUE regarding ultrasound assisting:
A. If an animal is sedated for an ultrasound, the assistant will no longer be needed.
B. All veterinarians prefer the same patient positioning when they are performing an abdominal ultrasound.
C. Assistants should gather supplies needed for obtaining samples beforehand, so they are ready for the veterinarian to use if needed.
D. As long as the assistant is restraining properly, they can watch the ultrasound screen the entire time instead of looking at the patient.
B
You will not need to palpate a pulse on a sedated patient as long as you have a pulse oximeter on them. TRUE B. FALSE
A
After an ultrasound examination, the assistant should ask the veterinarian if the patient can be fed. A. TRUE B. FALSE
B
Ultrasound machines should be kept in the busiest area of the hospital for quick access.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
B
Which is NOT a consideration when cleaning and maintaining ultrasound machines?
A. The crystals in the transducer can be easily damaged if dropped.
B. The machine and all parts can be cleaned with any type of disinfectant.
C. Check the manufacturer's instructions for the specific ultrasound machine in your practice.
D. Cords should be kept off the floor and not kinked.
Lateral
directed toward the outside of the animal (to place an animal on its side when x-raying)
Medial
toward the middle or midline (or more central to the vein when drawing blood)
Dorsal-
directed toward the back of an animal
Ventral
directed toward the underside or belly
Sternal-
laying down and unable to rise
Rostral
towards the nose or mouth
Caudal
toward the back or tail of an animal
A
This animal can weigh between 35 and 150 pounds A. Pot-Bellied Pig B. Rabbit C. Hedgehog D. Ferret
B
A member of the weasel family with a long body and 40 teeth A. Skunk B. Ferret C. Fennec Fox D. Rabbit
D
Which animal lacks homing instincts and will be lost if wandering away from home? A. Pot-bellied pig B. Rabbit C. Ferret D. Skunk
A
What animal rolls into a prickly ball for protection? A. Hedgehog B. Pot-Bellied Pig C. Fennec Fox D. Rabbit
B
This rodent has a very short tail and large cheek pouches to hoard food. A. Guinea Pig B. Hamster C. Gerbil D. Prairie dog
A
These small rodents are popular as pets and have fewer scales on their tails than rats. A. Mice B. Gerbils C. Hamsters D. Guinea Pigs
A
This compact bodies, bushy-tailed rodent has fur so dense, they need to have dust baths to clean themselves. A. Chinchilla B. Capybara C. Guinea Pig D. Gerbil
C
These rodents average about 10 inches and have four toes on the front feet and three toes on the back. A. Chinchilla B. Capybara C. Guinea Pig D. Prairie dog
C
Which birds have straight beaks and feet that are divided with 3 toes on the front and 1 toe on the back? A. Psittacines B. Parakeets C. Passerines D. Macaws
C
This small bird is approximately 5.5 inches and males are well-known for their singing? A. Cockatoo B. Finch C. Cockatiel D. Canary
B
This psittacine bird can mimic sound and speech, but are more known for their dance skills and ability to solve puzzles. A. Cockatiel B. Cockatoo C. Parakeet D. Finch
A
These birds are very large, with some growing to 3 feet and have long tails that account for up to half of the bird's total length. A. Macaws B. Cockatiels C. Cockatoos D. African Greys
B
These lizards have millions of microscopic hairs on their toes that allow them to stick to smooth surfaces such as glass. A. Iguanas B. Geckos C. Bearded Dragons D. Lizards cannot climb glass
C
This aquatic turtle is a commonly kept pet and is easily identified by the red stripes behind their eyes A. Red-Eyed Swimmer C. Red-Eared Slider D. Tortoise
B
It is very easy to distinguish a venomous snake from a non-venomous snake. A. TRUE B. FALSE
A
These lizards can grow up to 6 feet in length and their strong tails account for more than half of their total length A. Iguanas B. Bearded Dragons C. Leopard Geckos D. Monitor Lizards
B
What is the condition where the death of an animal is caused by stress? A. Conditional Heart Attack B. Capture Myopathy C. Myocardial Stress D. Stress Myocardia
B
Which statement is NOT true regarding exotics seen in the veterinary practice? A. You should ask the owner to bring the animal in with their owner enclosure when possible. B. You cannot obtain any information from just observing the animal; you must handle it first. C. Obtain a thorough history from the owner about what the animal eats and how often. D. You should take a "less is more" approach when handling exotics.
False (they can lose the end of their tail)
When picking up a rat or other rodents, you should pick them up by the tip of the tail to keep your hand from being bitten.A. True B. FALSE
A
f handled too roughly, this animal can lose large patches of fur known as "fur slip. A.Chinchilla B. Ferret C. Guinea Pig D. Rat
C
This animal is typically very quiet, so if they begin to vocalize loudly, you should stop what you are doing and re-evaluate the situation. A. Guinea Pig B. Ferret C. Rabbit D. Rat
D
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the handling of avians?A. Turning off the lights can aid in the capture of birds. B. A paper towel or thin material can be used to capture small birds.C. Offering treats to a bird may provide the distraction needed to perform a quick procedure or examination. D. Birds should be held around the rib cage to prevent them from moving.
A
Before picking up a bird, ask the owner which hand they use to pick up the bird and then do the same. A. True B. False
A
When using a plastic tube to examine a snake: A. Only allow them to go far enough into the tube that they cannot turn around. B. Coax the snake into the tube until it is almost out of the other side. C. Choose a tube that is the same circumference as the snake for a snug fit. D. You will no longer need to hold onto the rest of the snake once the head is in the tube.
D
When handling a large lizard: A. Wear thick, short gloves that go to the wrist. B. It's best to bring a towel up over the front of their head, then cover their face. C. Lay a towel on the table and quickly roll the lizard into the towel. D. Be sure to restrain the tail as well as the rest of the body.
C
What can you do to encourage a large reptile to open it's mouth? A. Wave your hand in front of their face. B. Squeeze the sides of the jaws until they open their mouth. C. Gently rub or scratch under their lower jaw. D. Push your finger gently into the mouth.
BoluS
a large pill-shaped tablet or capsule used to administer a mass of medication to large animals such as equines and bovines.
Colic
a term that refers to abdominal pain IN A LARGE ANIMAL
Strongyles (While there are many types of strongyles, they are grouped into two categories, large strongyles (sometimes referred to as bloodworms), and small strongyles.)
intestinal worms that can cause diarrhea, anemia, weight loss and colic in large animals.
Ruminant
animals that have a four chambered stomach and regurgitate to rechew their food. Include cattle, sheep and goats.
Rumen
the largest chamber of a ruminant's stomach, which is responsible for fermenting food.
Mules
the offspring of a male donkey and a female horse.
Hinny
offspring of a male horse and a female donkey.
Sorel
often interchanged with chestnut. Frequently refers to a horse whose mane and tail are darker than their coat.
True
Some horses are registered as a color breed based on their color or pattern, regardless of the horse's actual breed or lineage. A. True B. False
B
Which of these equine breeds is the largest? A. Shetland Pony B. Clydesdale C. American Quarter Horse D. Arabian
D
This horse breed is most famous for their racing horses. A. Clydesdale B. Tennessee Walker C. American Paint D. Thoroughbred
C
Which horse color has distinct markings that include a dark stripe down the middle of their back? A. Appaloosa B. Buckskin C. Dun D. Sorrel
A
An Ayrshire is mostly used for meat production. A. True B. False
B
Which breed of bovine is used more for their milk production? A. Hereford B. Guernsey C. Brahman D. Angus
C
.Which breed has a large hump over their shoulders and floppy ears? A. Holstein B. Charolais C. Brahman D. Texas Longhorn
A
Which pig breed is the 2nd most recorded in the U.S. and have a deep red or reddish-brown coloration? A. Duroc B. Yorkshire C. Hereford D. Landrace
D
Which breed of porcine has the unique coloration of black, with a white band that encompasses the forelegs, chest, and shoulders A. Berkshire B. Landrace C. Yorkshire D. Hampshire
A
Where is a microchip typically placed in companion animals?
A. Under the skin between the shoulders B. In the left side of the neck C. On the animal's collar D. Through the ear.
C
Which form of identification is NOT considered permanent? A. tattooing B. microchip C. ear tag D. branding
A
Pet owners should have more than one method of identification, with at least one method being permanent. A. True B. False
C
What is a twitch?A. A hinged device placed into the front of the mouth that's adjusted to hold the mouth open. B. A device that prevents a horse from biting or eating their bedding. C. A device that stimulates the nerves in the lips of a horse to provide distraction. D. A device that prevents a horse from kicking or walking.
A
When restraining these animals, it's best to use ear plugs because they tend to vocalize loudly A. Porcines B. Equines C. Caprines D. Bovines
B
What should you do if you are entering a horse's stall and the animal is not already facing you? A. Speak loudly and clap your hands so that it knows you are coming. B. Calmly speak to them to get their attention and approach at their left shoulder. C. Pat them on the hind end as you approach. D. Bang on a bucket to get their attention.
D
What type of knot should you use when tying a horse to a rail or stocks? A. Figure 8 knot B. Overhand knot C. Square knot D. Quick Release knot
C
When leading a horse: A. Hold the halter while walking with the horse. B. Wrap the lead rope around your wrist for extra security. C. Hold the lead rope just below the metal hardware. D. Walk directly in front of the horse.
B
Which of these statement is NOT true regarding the bedding in a stall? A. Bedding should be discarded if mold is present, since many horses eat their bedding. B. Urine and feces should only be removed once a day, since the bedding will absorb it all. C. When a horse is discharged, all bedding should be removed and the stall disinfected. D. Pine or wood shavings should be 6-10 inches deep in the stall, and added to as it becomes compacted.
D
Which type of bedding expands and changes into a saw-dust consistency when wet? A. Straw B. Wood shavings C. Newspaper D. Pelleted
B (Total mixed ration and Forage and Grain diet-)
The two most common feeding programs for cattle include the Total Mixed Ration and the Pasteurized diet. A. True B. False
A
Which type of feed is often a complete feed that is available in formulations to support certain medical conditions? A. Pelleted feed B. Oats C. Alfalfa hay D. Sweet feed
B
conditions? A. Pelleted feed B. Oats C. Alfalfa hay D. Sweet feed
3. Which type of horse feed has molasses mixed into it? A. Oats B. Sweet Feed C. Alfalfa hay D. Barley
D
Horses are typically fed a _________ ration of hay to grain. A. 25:75 B. 60:40 C. 30:70 D. 50:50
B
How is a paste usually administered to an equine? A. Through a stomach tube B. Through a pre-dosed syringe C. With a drench gun D. With a bolus gun
A
What device would be used to administer a large pill-shaped capsule or tablet to a cow?
A. bolus gun B. drench gun C. stomach tube D. your hand
D
Which device would be best to administer the same dose of liquid medication to a large number of cattle? A. a bolus gun B. A 60ml syringe C. A stomach tube D. A drench gun
ANTHRAX
Can be used as a biological weapon, but it is also a zoonotic disease.
B
Which is NOT a way Anthrax is transmitted? A. Through a cut on the skin B. By biting flies and mosquitoes C. Through respirations D. Through ingestion
B
mosquitoes C. Through respirations D. Through ingestion
2. Bacillus anthracis is a _____. A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Vaccine D. Parasite
A
Does the Advisory Committee for Immunizations Practices recommend vaccinating against Anthrax? A. Yes, for animals and humans at risk for exposure B. No, the vaccine has too many side effects. C. There is no vaccine for Anthrax. D. Yes, but only for dogs.
A
Brucellosis is a ________ that infects livestock. A. Virus B. Respiratory infection C. Bacteria D. Intestinal parasite
D
Which of the following is NOT a concern for human exposure to Brucellosis? A. When aiding in the birth of a calf B. Accidentally puncturing human skin during the administration of the vaccine C. Consuming raw milk products D. Mixing feed by hand
B
Why is Brucellosis in humans called "undulant fever?" A. It causes a constant fever. B. It causes fevers that rise and fall. C. There is never a fever associated with it. D. Fever is the only symptom associated with it.
A
How is EIA (EQUINE INFECTIOUS ANEMIA) most commonly transmitted to horses? A. Through biting flies and mosquitoes B. Through the sharing of food and water C. From contact with infected soil D. None of the above
C
What test is used to diagnose equine infectious anemia? A. Cognitive testing B. There is no test for EIA C. Coggins testing D. Culturing the saliva
C
What should NOT be considered when a horse is diagnosed with Equine Infectious Anemia? A. Lifelong quarantine B. Euthanasia C. Vaccinating the rest of the herd D. Testing all other horses in the herd
C
The tetanus vaccine is part of the regular vaccination protocol for both humans and what animal? A. Hogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Only humans are vaccinated for tetanus.
D
Which is one of the first symptoms of tetanus? A. Complete paralysis B. Seizures C. Hypersensitivity to light D. Inability to open the mouth
B
Tetanus is a disease that primarily attacks what system in the body? A. Respiratory B. Nervous C. Lymphatic D. Cardiovascular
B
For active listening to be effective you need to avoid: A. Looking at the client B. Interrupting clients C. Smiling D. Leaning in to show interest
D
Active listening when interacting with pet owners helps to: A. Ensure you have accurately heard client concerns or questions B. Show you are interested in the client C. Build trust and rapport with clients D. All of the above
D
An example of a reflective listening statement is: A. "So, Tigger vomited twice last night" B. "Wow, Scooter had 3 seizures last night-how awful." C. "Let me see what I can do to help." D. A and B
B
If an owner brings their pet's bottle of medication with them for boarding, it is not necessary to verify any of the dosing or time instructions with the owner. A. True B. False
D
What does SOP stand for? A. Same Operational Process B. Standard Owner Preferences C. Some Options Presented D. Standard Operating Procedure
A
When discharging an animal to their owner, go over any new medications and charges, then collect payment prior to bring the pet to the owner. A. True B. False
D
Professionalism is largely based on: A. Appearance. B. Age. C. Behavior. D. Both A and C are correct answers.
A
A clean reception area tells clients that a hospital is probably clean throughout. A. True. B. False.
C
The number one cause of a person's failure to perform is the inability to ______________. A. Listen. B. Learn. C. Follow instructions. D. Teach.
...
Mistakes are easier to tolerate if they are volunteered rather than discovered by management. A. True. B. False.
D
Which of the following are some ways you can grow in your personal knowledge? A. Seminars. B. Reading. C. One-on-one training. D. All of the above.
C
When working in a veterinary hospital, 'adjusting to change' is important. Which is an example of that? A. New Drugs/Medications B. Working with different veterinarians C. Both A and B D. None of the above
C
What is the number one breakdown of a team atmosphere? A. Hard work. B. Tardiness.C. Gossip. D. All of the above.
D
What makes good teamwork? A. Being Helpful B. Anticipating the needs of others C. Sticking together D. All the above
B
If it isn't _____________, it didn't happen." A. True. B. Written. C. Legible. D. Heard.
D
Record keeping is ___________ responsibility. A. The veterinarian's. B. The technician's. C. The receptionist's. D. All of the above.
A
Doing "a little bit more" for customers provides an excellent customer service experience. A. True B. False
B
There is no need to be a "people person" when working in the veterinary field since the patients are animals. A. True B. False
A
Even the most _________ client should be treated with courtesy and respect. A. Demanding. B. Wealthy. C. Professional. D. Easy going.
B
When working with a dog that is suspected of having distemper, what precautions should be taken? A. No precautions are needed unless the dog tests positive for the virus. B. The dog should be kept in isolation C. Personal protective equipment should be placed on the dog D. Staff should wear masks when treating the animal
C
A dog that is ___________ stands very straight, and may lean forward. A. Neutral. B. Aggressive. C. Alert. D. Friendly.
B
How do you locate a femoral pulse? A. By placing a stethoscope over their chest. B. By palpating along the upper inner thigh of an animal. C. By pushing on both sides of the animal's chest until you feel the pulse. D. By placing your hand along the side of the neck.
C
The direct smear method is especially helpful when diagnosing _____________. A. Fungus. B. Toxins C. Protozoans. D. All of the above.
D
Feline heartworms attack a cat's: A. Heart and abdomen B. Heart and neurological system C. Heart and lungs D. Heart and skin
D
What should you do if you are asked to sterilize a kennel? A. Remove any items or waste left behind B. Use chemicals to kill most microorganisms C. Completely eliminate microorganisms D. Reduce the number of microorganisms to a safe level
C
_______ is defined as behaviors that result in harm to the opponent. A. Assertiveness. B. Submissiveness. C. Aggression. D. None of the above.
D
Heartworm disease can NOT be definitively diagnosed with which of the following methods? A. Blood testing B. Ultrasound C. Radiographs D. Physical exam
B
Which of the following statements is correct? A. The flea medication should be applied to the top of the fur B. The flea medication should be applied directly to the skin C. The flea medication should be applied with a cottonball D. The flea medication should be applied with cotton applicators
C
Where should topical flea medication be applied? A. The base of the tail B. In a line down the spine C. The base of the neck D. The top of the head
B
If a clinic has more than ___________employees, they need to post the log of occupational injuries and illnesses. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
D
Which is the correct order? A. Apply eye ointment prior to eye drops B. Apply eye ointment after mixing with eye drops C. Only apply eye drops D. Apply eye drops prior to eye ointment
C
5 ml (milliliters) of a liquid medication is the equivalent of _______________.
A. 1 tablespoon B. 1 ounce C. 1 teaspoon D. none are correct
D
Characteristics of a dog's eyes that you need to pay attention to are? A. Direct stare or avoidance of eye contact. B. Pupil size. C. How open the eyes are. D. All of the above.
C
Which is not an example of a fomite? A. Bedding B. Exam Tables C. Saliva D. Chew toys
C
_______________ should be placed in a sharp's container. A. Blood tubes. B. Dirty exam gloves. C. Scalpel blades. D. Suture material.
D
How can you tell the difference between a defensive grin and a submissive grin? A. Submissive grinning dogs have more closed eyes. B. Submissive grinning dogs may lick their lips. C. Defensive grinning dogs keep their eyes wide open. D. All of the above.
B
A cat scratch is not considered an injury. A. TRUE B. FALSE
C
Parvovirus is a highly contagious disease that affects which system of the body? A. Respiratory B. Nervous C. Digestive D. Cardiovascular
D
What protection should be taken when handling chemotherapeutic drugs? A. Double gloves. B. Impenetrable mask. C. Protective eye wear D. All of the above.
D
Which retriever enjoys the water? A. Golden retriever. B. Labrador retriever. C. Chesapeake Bay retriever. D. All of the above.
B
Which statement is NOT true regarding electric clippers? A. It's important to follow the manufacturer's directions for cleaning the hand piece. B. It's perfectly acceptable to use clipper blades on multiple patients before cleaning them as long as the patient is not ill. C. Use a small brush such as a toothbrush to remove trapped hair from the clipper blades and hand piece. D. After cleaning and disinfecting clipper blades, you should apply clipper oil.
A
Regarding the sterilization of surgical instruments: A. Sterilized packs should be rotated so that the oldest pack is used first. B. Once a pack has been sterilized, it will not lose it's sterility for 6 months. C. Only the date of the sterilization date needs to be written on the outside of the pack.D. Cold pack sterilization is preferred over heat sterilization.
B
Trash from the isolation room: A. Should only be taken out once the bag is full B. Should be double-bagged and staff should ensure that none of its contents leaks C. Should only be emptied once a day to minimize risk of contaminating the rest of the facility D. Does not require any special consideration
D
Post-it notes placed throughout the reception desk area: A. Keeps things organized B. Is a good filing system C. Is a great way to keep track of all messages D. Creates a cluttered appearance
C
Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of canine distemper? A. Yellow discharge from the nose and mouth B. Coughing C. Constipation D. Seizures
D
Feline distemper can be transmitted each of the following ways EXCEPT: A. Through the mouth and nose B. Through the placenta during pregnancy C. Through urine and feces D. Through an improperly prepared vaccine
C
The _________ is responsible for providing a safe and healthy work environment. A. Employee. B. AVMA. C. Employer. D. Both A and C.
C
Sharps containers: A. Should be filled to the top before replacing them with a new one. B. Should be opened by hand and the contents emptied into a biohazard bag when the fill line is reached. C. Should be located near each work area where sharps are used. D. Can be any type of container as long as it is puncture resistant.
C
Which cat will you likely see most often in practice? A. DLH. B. DMH. C. DSH. D. Tabby.
C
An unsterilized surgical assistant may touch A. The sterilized patient B. The inside of the surgical pack C. The outside of the surgical pack D. The doctor's gown
D
Which of the following is not typically caused by a flea infestation? A. Itching B. Tapeworms C. Blood loss D. Vomiting
A
You should always listen carefully to what a client mentions in casual conversation about their animal, as it may be important information for the veterinarian. A. True B. False
D
If a dog's eyes are darting around and constantly scanning, the dog is showing? A. Aggression. B. Anxiety. C. Fear. D. Both B and C are correct.
B
Which one of the following parasites can be passed from a dog or cat to a human? A. Tapeworm B. Hookworm C. Heartworm D. Whipworm
C
Which of the following is one of the species most likely to carry rabies? A. Rats B. Feral cats C. Coyotes D. Squirrels
A
Clinical signs of heartworm disease include which of the following: A. Coughing B. Diarrhea C. Hair loss D. Frequent urination
A
Panleukopenia is closely related to what other virus? A. Canine parvovirus B. Canine distemper C. Leukemia D. Feline infectious peritonitis
B
The word "leukopenia" means ____. A. from leukemia B. all white shortage C. virus of leukocytes D. all white surplus
A
When drawing blood from the jugular vein: A. The handler should be on the opposite side of the blood draw. B. The handler should be on the same side of the blood draw. C. It doesn't matter where the handler is. D. There is no need for a handler.
C
Which breed has a large hump over their shoulders and floppy ears? A. Holstein B. Charolais C. Brahman D. Texas Longhorn
A
What should you do after applying topical medication? A. Monitor the pet for licking B. Put the patient back in the room or cage C. Apply a second, thicker layer D. Nothing else needs to be done
A
What is the recommended time to let a fecal sample sit? A. 5-10 minutes. B. 10-15 minutes. C. 15-20 minutes. D. 25 minutes.
C
Which method of instrument sterilization is used most in the veterinary practice? A. Chemical sterilization B. Dry heat C. Steam Autoclave D. Gas Sterilization
D
The doctor's initial scrub of the day should last: A. 1 minuteB. 5 minutes C. 8 minutes D. 10 minutes
A
What non-sterile items are worn by the doctor in surgery?
A. The mask & cap B. The mask & gown C. Rings, watches and other jewelry D. Gloves
B
A growl is always a threat.A. True. B.False.
B
When greeting a dog, always bend at the waist to be above the animal. A. True. B. False.
B
What is a good rule of thumb to follow in regards to keeping a clean and orderly environment? A. "Someone else will do it B. "Clean as you go C. "You only have to pick up after yourself" D. "Clean only happens when the doctor is on vacation"
A
When you observe, you _________ what you _______.
A. Interpret, hear. B. Interpret, see. C. Describe, hear. D. Describe, see.
A
Regarding the sterilization of surgical instruments: A. Sterilized packs should be rotated so that the oldest pack is used first. B. Once a pack has been sterilized, it will not lose it's sterility for 6 months. C. Only the date of the sterilization date needs to be written on the outside of the pack. D. Cold pack sterilization is preferred over heat sterilization.
D
Depending on temperature, humidity, and concentration of ethylene oxide, gas sterilization often takes up to: A. 24 hours B. 15 minutes C. 30 - 45 minutes D. 12 hours
C...
Which method of instrument sterilization is used most in the veterinary practice? A. Chemical sterilization B. Dry heat C. Steam Autoclave D. Gas Sterilization
A
If the gloves are put on with the hands inside of the gown- this is A. closed or B. open gloving, and this is the best method to avoid contamination.
C
Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Bordetella bronchiseptica is often accompanied by at least one other infectious agent, such as the parainfluenza virus. B. The incubation period for kennel cough is 2 to 14 days, but infected dogs can be contagious for 2 to 3 months after infection. C. The bordetella vaccine is 100% effective in protecting dogs from infection. D. Kennel cough can progress to severe illness, such as pneumonia.
D
What method do they suggest to try first when administering oral medication? A. Trying an injectable instead B. Manual administration C. Rectal administration D. Hiding it in food
C
Which of the following statements is true when striving for a clean, orderly and odor-free facility?
A. Surgical instruments should continue to accumulate in the sink until the end of the day, in case there are more surgeries
B. Sweeping and mopping are not necessary in the treatment area
C. Countertops should be clear of any materials or instruments that are not used frequently or currently
D. Cages do not need to be cleaned as soon as they are vacated by an animal. They should just all be cleaned at the end of the day
Corona
A highly contagious virus, of which there are several strains. It generally causes gastrointestinal upset, such as vomiting and diarrhea in dogs, but one particular strain can lead to Feline Infectious Peritonitis in cats.