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Pollution Prevention, the highest priority is source reduction, the most effective P2 activity is product modification to avoid solvent use
Transport, Storage, Disposal Facility, is required to have a waste tracking program, a training plan, arrangements with emergency responders, an employee onsite at all times
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, covers generation of haz waste, transportation of haz waste, USTs, and non-haz solid waste
Land Disposal Restriction (RCRA), meant to minimize post-closure escape of waste, reduces the volume of haz waste disposal, encourages recycling
Minimum Technology Requirements (RCRA), including liner requirements, leak detection and collection requirements, groundwater monitoring
Corrective Action Management Unit (RCRA), needs to assess environmental and health risks, if it will enhance the timeliness of remediation, will minimize the land utilized for final disposal, will provide expeditious implementation of site remedies
Corrective Action (HSWA), requires identification of all SWMUs on a site before issuance of a Part B permit, a comprehensive groundwater monitoring program, can require clean-ups outside a facilities boundary, provide for temporary treatment units, has an additional section in a final permit requiring further site clean-ups
Arsenic (5 ppm max), Cadmium (2 ppm max), Chromium (10ppm max), Lead (100 ppm max), Total Halogens (4000 ppm max), Flash point (100oF minimum)
National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, conducts research in occupational safety and health, develop criteria as a basis for new standards, provides education, manpower development and training on health and safety equipment, enforces occupational health and safety guidelines.
Slowest, largest radioactive particle. Most destructive if inhaled or ingested. Can be stopped by paper/tyvek. Made up of a proton and neutron.
Can be stopped by plastic/aluminum foil. Can travel up to four feet from source. Made up of an electron.
any substance that will produce a harmful effect when introduced to the body in sufficient concentrations, creates a toxic effect when a mechanism is available to allow a biochemical reaction at a receptor site in the target organ
not a toxin (for a particular target organ) that in combination with a toxin, enhances the toxins effect
Department of Homeland Security (US Coast Guard, US Secret Service, Transportation Security Administration (TSA), US Customs and Border Protection (CBP)
Respirator Fit Factors
Half-mask 10, Full Face 50, Supplied Air (w/o egress bottle) 1000, SCBA 10000
Safe Water Drinking Act (1980), established public notifications for violations, increased civil penalties, recalled all water coolers with lead lined tanks and banned lead containing pipes
Represents only 3% of Earth's water,~70% or Earth's fresh water is tied up in glacial ice and the other 30% is in groundwater with very little surface water
Dense Non-Aqueous Phase Liquid. Includes chlorinated solvents and long-chain hydrocarbons (heavy oils/asphalts), DNAPLs do not adhere to soil particles
Light Non-Aqueous Phase Liquid, Short chain hydrocarbons including gasoline. NAPLs adhere to soil particles
Comprehensive Environmental Restoration Compensation and Liability Act. Established "Hazardous Substances" and covers sites not covered by existing laws, except facilities and vessels, does not apply to active sites, requires that actions meet standards of other laws and regulations
CERCLA Section 107
Imposes "strict" and "joint and several" liability to all generators, transporters and facility owners. Does not require showing of fault or negligence where damages have occurred. Full damages may be recovered from one, some or all potentially liable parties.
CWA Title III
Established water quality criteria, requires assessment of watersheds, established the NPDES program, requires point source compliance with treatment technologies
Stormwater permit sampling
Includes grab sampling, pH and temp of the sample, rainfall measurements, record of the date and duration of the sampling
Stormwater permit holder
Required to prepare and implement a stormwater pollution prevention plan, form a pollution prevention team, create pollution prevention measures, and use Best Management Practices (BMPs)
Facility response plan, necessary for facility with oil storage in excess of 1,000,000 gallons, requires drills and tabletop exercises, plans for Worst Case Discharges (WCDs), and training for employees on the FRP
Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure Plans, required for facilities with more than 1320 gallons of above ground oil storage or 40,000 gallons of below ground storage, must be reviewed every five years, must be sealed by a PE unless it is a "Qualified Facility" with less than 10,000 gallons of oil storage
Toxic Chemical Release Inventory, required for facilities manufacturing, mining, and utilities that manufacture or process over 25,000 pounds or "otherwise use" over the threshold planning quantity of extremely hazardous substances
Requires core elements such as a management review, policy, checking, and corrective actions
All Appropriate Inquiries, must update government records or visual inspections after 180 days, requires that the environmental professional sign the report, provide an opinion regarding site conditions, review historical records, and provide professional qualifications
Allows private carriers to transport hazardous materials if individual packages do not exceed 8 gallons or 66 pounds
On the periodic table, a set of elements that act the same chemically. Eg. Noble Gases, Halide series
Red=Flammability, Yellow=Reactivity, Blue=Health, White=Special Precautions, 1 is lowest hazard, 4 is extremely hazardous
Used to determine contamination that is introduced in the field or en route to the laboratory
Has thermal resistance, chemical resistance, high tensile strength, not electrically conductive
Requires 40-hours off-site safety training, 3 days of supervised field experience. Supervisors require 8 hours of additional training.
PCB Annual Report
Includes manifests, exception reports, applicable records for the previous year, and certificates of disposal or destruction
Temporary storage for less than 30 days, impervious flooring, PCB marked, must be disposed of within one year
spills to grazing land or vegetable gardens are subject to standards at the discretion of the regional office, limited to spills after May 4, 1987, disposal options are based on the current measured concentrations
New major air emissions in an attainment area
Requires New Source Performance Standards, BACT, Title V Operating Permit
Federal regulation amendments
can be found in the Federal Register but are easiest to find on the Agencies website or from a regulation tracking service
Federal Facilities Compliance Act (1992), provided a statutory basis for pursuing monetary penalties against Federal Facilities
Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments (RCRA) included hazardous waste used as fuel, financial responsibility, Minimum Technology Requirements (MTRs), and air emissions from TSDFs
Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest
Includes the EPA ID number, the name of the primary transporter, the names of backup transporters, an ER number that must be answered 24/7, the name and address of the generator, the signature of the generator or an agent
Land Disposal Notification
Accompanies the waste shipment to a TSDF and includes an analysis of the ability to meet treatment standards
1. Congress enacts a law 2. Agency establishes a rulemaking schedule 3. Agency establishes a docket 4. Develop a concept for regulation 5. Publish proposed regulation in Fed Reg 6. Public hearing 7. Withdraw, make minor revisions or publish final regulation
Ways to reference a law
1. Short title (eg TSCA) 2. Public law citation (eg. PL 101-459 = 549th law of the 101 Congress) 3. United State Code (USC) (eg. 42USC§7402)
EPCRA hazard categories
Immediate (acute) health hazards, delayed (chronic) health hazards, and sudden releases of pressure
Emergency response not required
When the release results in exposure to persons solely within the boundaries of the facility
Threshold Planning Quantity, two values are listed, the first applies to materials with higher hazard properties and the second applies to lower hazard properties (40CFR355.30), the TPQ when equaled or exceeded subjects the facility to regulation under EPCRA
Sound Pressure Level, unweighted
SPL(total) = 10 log [ sum 10 (SPL/10)]
SPL (total) = 10 log [sum 10 (SPL/10) (t(partial)/t(total)]
Limit of Detection, Should be at least 25% of the TLV for a air monitoring device to be acceptable for use
RfD= NOAEL(or LOAEL)/(UF)(MF)
NOAEL= No observable adverse effect level
UF= Uncertainty Factor
Nitric oxide exists in equilibrium with nitrogen tetroxide in the ambient atmosphere, is colorless, is a dissociation product of nitrogen trioxide and is an irritant of the eyes and mucous membranes
PVA, A material used in PPE, very effective against hydrocarbons but dissolves in water
Half Value (radiation), if the HVL of lead is 0.33 cm and you double the thickness you reduce the exposure to 1/4 of the original exposure
Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion. A rapid pressure increase in a confined vessel that results in a sudden release of pressure as the vessel ruptures
ISO 14000 standards
Two general categories: Organizational evaluation standards and Product and Process evaluation standards
ISO 14000 parts
Environmental Auditing (EA), Environmental Management Systems (EMS) and Life cycle assessment (LCA)
Air monitoring for methane and hydrogen sulfide
Should be performed at the bottom and top of a space because methane is lighter than air and hydrogen sulfide is heavier than air
Required controls for a major facility modification
BACT- in attainment areas
LAER- in non-attainment areas
MACT - for HAPs
What training is required for a permit required confined space entry?
Confined space, HAZWOPER, respirator training
Only pesticides registered with the USEPA can be distributed, sold or placed into commerce
Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator, <100 kg per month or <1kg of acute waste per month AND accumulates <1000 kg or <1 kg acute or <100kg cleanup from an acute spill
What defines general use pesticides
Pesticides that can be used by untrained persons according to label instructions without creating unreasonable adverse effects to the person applying the pesticides or to the environment.
The respiratory protection equipment required for initial entry to remove sludge that is contaminated with an unknown hydrocarbon is?
SCBA operated in pressure demand mode
How do you calculate radioactive attenuation
I(2) = I(1) (r(1)/r(2))^2
r= distance from the source
To qualify a UST as a "confined space" it must be established that it has:
limited access and/or toxic atmospheres
the potential for an IDLH atmosphere makes it a "permit required confined space"
A mixture of a hazardous waste (non-listed) and a solid (non-hazardous) waste is?
Not considered a hazardous waste if the mixture no longer retains the characteristic that made it hazardous (i.e. ignitability)
What remediation technology is effective for removing high concentrations of low-solubility petroleum compounds from contaminated soil?
Soil vapor extraction wells
LD(50/30) refers to?
The dose expected to cause the death of 50% of an exposed population within 30 minutes
What is the generally accepted method for measuring attainment with NAAQS for nitrogen dioxide?
Who is responsible for evaluating chemicals to determine if they are hazardous?
manufacturers and importers
What is the description of a Class IV organic peroxide?
Burns as ordinarily combustible and presents a minimum reactivity hazard
What classifications are used for cryogenic fluids?
corrosive/highly toxic, flammable, non-flammable
For a 12,000 gallon AST storing a Class IIIB combustible liquid, what is the minimum set back from the property line?
5 ft (UFC)
Under the Uniform Fire Code (UFC), what are the general requirements for hazardous material storage?
compatibility among stored chemicals, spill control and containment, storage cabinet construction
How frequently should employee refresher training be provided under the Process Safety Management (PSM) standard?
as needed, but at least every 3 yrs
What conditions prompt a compliance audit under the PSM standard?
Three year have elapsed since the last audit
What responsibility does the employer have for ensuring that employees are proficient in the use of PPE?
The employer must provide training, require the employee to demonstrate proficiency, retrain employees who lose proficiency, and provide written certification.
What are the categories of particulate matter (PM)?
fume - solid - 0.03um - 0.3um
smoke - solid - 0.05 um - 1um
mist - liquid - 0.5um - 3um
dust - solid - 1um - 10mm
spray - liquid - 10um- 10mm
What do the following acronyms stand for?
CAA - Clean Air Act
NESHAP - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants
RCRA - Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
CERCLA - Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act
SARA - Superfund Amendments and Re-authorization Act
What do the following acronyms stand for?
NEPA - National Environmental Policy Act (requires EIS)
FIFRA - Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, Rodenticide Act
SDWA - Safe Drinking Water Act (est MCLs)
TSCA - Toxic Substances Control Act (requires toxicity testing of new compounds)
EPCRA - Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-know Act
High molecular weight and strongly hydrophobic organic compounds are common soil contaminates due to crude oil spills, these compounds are most often partitioned to soils containing?
Humic (the process is called on sorption and is based on relative affinity)
A generator is considering less expensive options to incineration for management of chlorobenzene, options available under the RCRA generator standards are?
Recycling the solution directly into the process from which it was generated. Disposal in a landfill and volatilization are not acceptable under RCRA
What are the four steps in preparing an environmental impact statement (EIS)?
3) EIS Preparation
What are the required elements in a negligence claim?
1) Duty of the defendant to the plaintiff
2) Breach of that duty
3) Damage to the plaintiff
4) Breach was the proximate cause of the damage
Define strict liability
Strict liability for abnormally dangerous activities may cause a defendant to be liable for harm to a person, land or personal property of another resulting from that activity, although the defendant has exercised the utmost care to prevent the harm.
5 EMS components
Environmental policy, planning, Implementation and operation, Checking and Corrective Action, Management Review
The five assets of the SIGMA guidelines
Natural capital (environment), human capital (people), social capital (relationships/structures), manufactured capital (fixed assets), financial capital (profit, sales, shares, cash)
7 steps of an audit
Initiation, Document review, prepare for on-site audit, perform on-site audit, prepare the audit report, complete the audit, conduct the audit follow-up
8 types of records to review in an audit
environmental permits, environmental logs and inspections, correspondence to/from regulatory agencies, regulatory report filings, facility material balance, emission inventories, MSDSs, Hazardous waste manifests/shipping papers
Nine penalty mitigation conditions
Systematic discovery, voluntary discovery (sampling/auditing), prompt disclosure (within 21 days), independent discovery and disclosure, correction and remediation within 60 days, prevent recurrence of the violation, repeat violations are ineligible, ineligible violations (actual harm, imminent and substantial endangerment, violates terms of an AO or CA), cooperation is required.
CDI = (Concentration)(daily intake)(exposure frequency)(exposure duration, typ 70 years)/(body weight, typ 70 kg)(average exposure time (day)
Four characteristics of a corporation
limited liability to the extent of assets, continuity of life, centralization of management, free transferability of ownership interests (an LLC can only have two of these traits)
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