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Chapter 45 Med surg

Terms in this set (11)

13. A nurse is assessing a patient who has just been admitted to the postsurgical unit following surgical resection for the treatment of oropharyngeal cancer. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
A) Assess ability to clear oral secretions.
B) Assess for signs of infection.
C) Assess for a patent airway.
D) Assess for ability to communicate.
C
Feedback:
Postoperatively, the nurse assesses for a patent airway. The patient's ability to manage secretions has a direct bearing on airway patency. However, airway patency is the overarching goal. This immediate physiologic need is prioritized over communication, though this is an important consideration. Infection is not normally a threat in the immediate postoperative period.
15. A nurse is providing health promotion education to a patient diagnosed with an esophageal reflux disorder. What practice should the nurse encourage the patient to implement?
A) Keep the head of the bed lowered.
B) Drinka cup of hot tea before bedtime.
C) Avoid carbonated drinks.
D) Eat a low-protein diet.
C
Feedback:
For a patient diagnosed with esophageal reflux disorder, the nurse should instruct the patient to keep the head of the bed elevated. Carbonated drinks, caffeine, and tobacco should be avoided. Protein limitation is not necessary.
16. A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD?
A) Pyloric sphincter
B) Lower esophageal sphincter
C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter
D) Upper esophageal sphincter
B
Feedback:
The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.
19. An emergency department nurse is admitting a 3-year-old brought in after swallowing a piece from a wooden puzzle. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication in order to relax the esophagus to facilitate removal of the foreign body?
A) Haloperidol
B) Prostigmine
C) Epinephrine
D) Glucagon
D
Feedback:
Glucagon is administered prior to removal of a foreign body because it relaxes the smooth muscle of the esophagus, facilitating insertion of the endoscope. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug and is not indicated. Prostigmine is prescribed for patients with myastheniagravis. It increases muscular contraction, an effect opposite that which is desired to facilitate removal of the foreign body. Epinephrine is indicated in asthma attack and bronchospasm.
22. A patient has undergone surgery for oral cancer and has just been extubated in postanesthetic recovery. What nursing action best promotes comfort and facilitates spontaneous breathing for this patient?
A) Placing the patient in a left lateral position
B) Administering opioids as ordered
C) Placing the patient in Fowler's position
D) Teaching the patient to use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system
C
Feedback:
After the endotracheal tube or airway has been removed and the effects of the anesthesia have worn off, the patient may be placed in Fowler's position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. Lateral positioning does not facilitate oxygenation or comfort. Medications do not facilitate spontaneous breathing.
27. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a rigid fixation of a mandibular fracture. When planning the discharge teaching for this patient, what would the nurse be sure to include?
A) Increasing calcium intake to promote bone healing
B) Avoiding chewing food for the specified number of weeks after surgery
C) Techniques for managing parenteral nutrition in the home setting
D) Techniques for managing a gastrostomy
B
Feedback:
The patient who has had rigid fixation should be instructed not to chew food in the first 1 to 4 weeks after surgery. A liquid diet is recommended, and dietary counseling should be obtained to ensure optimal caloric and protein intake. Increased calcium intake will not have an appreciable effect on healing. Enteral and parenteral nutrition are rarely necessary.
31. A patient who underwent surgery for esophageal cancer is admitted to the critical care unit following postanesthetic recovery. Which of the following should be included in the patient's immediate postoperative plan of care?
A) Teaching the patient to self-suction
B) Performing chest physiotherapy to promote oxygenation
C) Positioning the patient to prevent gastric reflux
D) Providing a regular diet as tolerated
C
Feedback:
After recovering from the effects of anesthesia, the patient is placed in a low Fowler's position, and later in a Fowler's position, to help prevent reflux of gastric secretions. The patient is observed carefully for regurgitation and dyspnea because a common postoperative complication is aspiration pneumonia. In this period of recovery, self-suctioning is also not likely realistic or safe. Chest physiotherapy is contraindicated because of the risk of aspiration. Nutrition is prioritized, but a regular diet is contraindicated in the immediate recovery from esophageal surgery.
35. A patient returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours the nurse would notify the physician immediately for what?
A) Presence of small blood clots in the drainage
B) 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage
C) Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain
D) 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage
B
Feedback:
Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours. Milky drainage is indicative of a chyle fistula, which requires prompt treatment.
37. A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug?
A) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
B) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
C) Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
D) Famotidine (Pepcid)
A
Feedback:
Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprozole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Famotidine (Pepcid) is an H2 receptor antagonist, which has a similar effect.
38. Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patient's knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage?
A) Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals
B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated
C) Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks
D) Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.
B
Feedback:
The patient with GERD is encouraged to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch (15- to 20-cm) blocks. Frequent meals are not specifically encouraged and the patient should avoid food and fluid within 2 hours of bedtime. All carbonated beverages should be avoided.
40. A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education?
A) "Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief."
B) "It's best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because they're harder to swallow."
C) "Many patients obtain relief by taking over-the-counter antacids 30 minutes before eating."
D) "Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often."
D
Feedback:
Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.
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