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ND581 Final_Student Exam Q/As (Section:02)
Terms in this set (169)
Match each level of protein structure with its appropriate description.
1. The polypeptide chain coils/folds in either: an alpha helix or beta pleated sheet.
2. The 3-D structure in which specific bonds hold together the polypeptide chain.
3. The protein macromolecule interacts with multiple polypeptide chains.
4. Amino acids are uniquely linked together to form a protein.
A.4., B.1., C.2., D.3.
Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
Which of the following is the only amino acid that is oxidized completely in the muscle for energy?
Name the essential amino acids
histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan and valine
T/F: When a protein loses its structure, the function remains the same.
Which one of these answers include all three Branched-chain Amino Acids?
Isoleucine, Leucine, Valine
Phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disease in which the enzyme Phenylalanine hydroxylase doesn't function properly, results in phenylalanine accumulating where?
in the blood
Why is protein turnover necessary?
Protein turnover is necessary for tissue remodeling, replacement of damaged proteins, and protein abundance regulation.
T/F: Prematurely activated trypsin causes chronic pancreatitis.
What is the fate of amino acids once absorption has occurred at the apical membrane of the enterocyte?
a) may pass through the cytosol unchanged then out of the cell
b) may be used for protein synthesis by the enterocyte
c) may be oxidized for energy, partially or completely
d) may be converted into other amino acids or metabolites
Which nitrogenous compound functions similar to folate and is also a methyl donor?
Almost half the protein content of humans is made up of which protein(s)?
E) All of the above
Which of the following are products of pancreatic hydrolysis?
a) Free Amino Acids
d) Larger Peptide Fragments
f) All of the above
What definition best describes zymogens?
Inactive proenzyme form of an enzyme
Put the five stages of AA absorption in order starting with step one
1)Na is pumped out of the cell by Na/K ATPase
2)A Na-amino acid co-transporter complex forms
3) Na binds to the carrier
4) a conformational change in the complex results in the delivery of sodium and amino acid into the cytoplasm
5) binding of Na increases the affinity of the carrier for the AA
3, 5, 2, 4,1
Which is the simplest AA?
An inherited condition in which an individual's body lacks the ability to catabolize BCAAs valine, leucine, and isoleucine, , caused by the absence of the enzyme, α-ketoacid dehydrogenase, is known as_______?
Maple Syrup Urine Disease
One of the major roles of the GI tract is to maintain a net positive flow of amino acids in the direction of diet-to-organism. How/Why does this occur?
The small intestine has the ability to adaptively upregulate its capacity for amino acid absorption.
Protein degradation involves which of the following:
a. Removal of nitrogen
b. Catabolism of carbon skeleton
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Both a and b
Name the 9 essential (indispensable) amino acids.
Threonine, Valine, Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Phenylalanine, Methionine, Histidine (TIP: I remember this using the acronym TV TILL PM Hour)
True or False: The Amino Acid Pool refers to the storage of PRO in the body, much the same way as CHO in the Liver and Skeletal Muscle and FAT are stored in Adipose Tissue
__________ is the tertiary structure of proteins that functions as ___________.
A. Linear; the director to protein folding.
B. Folded and compact; active sites, binding sites and signal patches.
C. Coiled; fibrous protein
D. A helices and B pleated sheets; keratin
Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs): Estimated Average Requirements for Groups
Which of the following is the protein requirement for adults?
A. 0.8 g/kg/day
B. 10-35 % of total energy
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
What are the protein needs in grams for someone under moderate stress?
Answer: B. 1.5-2.0g
True or False:
The beta-pleated-sheet protein structure is held together by hydrogen bonding between carbonyl and amino groups
True or False: The pancreatic enzymes can be divided into two general types- serine proteases and carboxypeptidases.
True or False: All amino acids are catabolized by the liver.
How do rates or protein turnover differ?
- Relatively high rates of turnover of regulatory proteins allow for more rapid adaption in the levels of these protein in response to changing conditions
Slow rates of turnover of regulatory proteins, such as collagen with a half-life of about 300 days, remain relatively constant
True or False: All amino acids that are absorbed in the GI tract leave the intestinal cells.
True or False - Almost all of the protein reserves is contained within the skeletal muscle
Which of the following is not one of factors that affects AA requirements?
a. Dietary Energy
b. Microbial synthesis of AAs
c. Benefits of intact dietary PRO and peptides d. CHO content
Which of these is NOT one of the three Branched Chain Amino Acids (BCAAs)?
In which organ does the majority of protein digestion and absorption occur?
b: small intestine
c: large intestine
B: small intestine
TRUE OR FALSE
Globulin makes up 3.5 to 5.0 g/dl of the total plasma proteins in blood.
What is protein turnover?
Protein turnover allows the body to degrade and replace proteins that are oxidized, damages, misfiled, or otherwise nonfunctional. It also allows the body to change the relative amounts of different proteins to respond to changes in nutritional and physiological conditions
True or False: Amino acids have a regulatory role in signal transduction pathways.
Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
a. growth and repair
b. fluid balance
c. connective tissue
d. carbohydrate conservation
What are the two general types of pancreatic enzymes?
Serine Proteases and Carboxypeptidases
What are the conditionally essential amino acids?
Arginine, glutamine, proline, and glycine
Where does protein digestion begin?
D. Small intestine
How many protein structures are there and what are they called?
There are four different protein structures and they are primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure.
Essential amino acid requirements for <6mo infants are based on
D. Intake from breastmilk
The linear sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain is called the __________ of the protein.
A. Secondary structure
B. Primary structure
C. Polar backbone
D. None of the above
T/F: Before the body can use the macromolecules such as protein for bodily functions and needs, it must first go through the liver where it is packaged and delivered to the tissues requiring it?
T/F: Depending on the relationship of amino acids and the TCA cycle, determines whether an AA is glucogenic or not. Glucogenic AA means that they can be converted into glucose via gluconeogenesis.
Transamination reactions generally require:
T/F: Prolonged starvation and chronic malnutrition are associated with suppressed rates of protein synthesis and breakdown.
About 25% of which product can be secreted from the blood into intestinal lumen for bacterial degradation into ammonia?
T/F: Plant foods contain only heme iron.
Protein turnover allows the body to replace and degrade protein that are:
oxidized, damaged, misfolded/non-function
T/F Maple syrup Urine Disease (also known as branched chain ketonuria) is caused by a defect in the branched chain alpha keto-acid dehydrogenase and results in the accumulation of keto-acids and hydroxy acids (ecspecially leucine) in the blood and urine, hence the distinct maple syrup odor.
Which of the following is NOT a source of amino acids in the body?
Which of the following amino acids is especially susceptible to Maillard reactions by reacting with reducing sugars and ultimately becoming less bioavailable?
T/F: Tryptophan and Tyrosine act as precursors for a variety of neurotransmitters or modulators of nerve function and hormones.
T/F: Glutamine is a major carrier of nitrogen between cells.
T/F: Humans can make all 20 amino acids.
Question: please match the definition with the correct term
1. Further research VERY UNLIKELY to change confidence in the estimate of effect
2. Further research LIKELY to impact confidence in the estimate of effect and may change the estimate
3. Further research VERY LIKELY to impact confidence in the estimate of effect and is likely to change the estimate
4. Any estimate if effect VERY UNCERTAIN
B. Very low
1) D 2) A 3) C 4)B
How many amino acids are catabolized in skeletal muscle?
What is the most important step in diagnosing urea cycle disorders?
Clinical suspicion of hyperammonemia
True or False: Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) is currently the most common deficiency disease in the world.
True/False: Amino acid carbon skeletons are metabolized to intermediates that enter the citric acid cycle during fasting and gluconeogenic pathway during feasting.
Question: Fill in the blank:
In ____________ reactions, the α-amino group may be moved from one carbon chain to another to form the respective amino and keto acids.
Which type of vegetarian eats egg products but does not consume meat, fish, fowl, or dairy products?
Which of the following affects urea synthesis?
A. A low protein diet
B. Release of glucagon
C. Body in acidosis
D. All of the above
D: all of the above
True or false: high protein containing foods should be avoided by those with PKU; it is not necessary to supplement
Which of the following is not one of the major sources of amino acids?
a. digestion of endogenous PRO and peptides
b. dietary PRO
c. intercellular PRO turnover or degradation
d. digestion of FAT
Following uptake in the cells of the small intestine, amino acids may:
A. Pass unchanged through the cytosol then out of the cell.
b. Be used for protein synthesis.
c. Be partially or completely oxidized for energy.
d. All the above
D. all of the above
T/F: Ammonia excretion is usually high.
False, ammonia excretion is usually low
What is protein quality influenced by?
The amino acid composition of the food source and the digestibility of the protein contained in the food source.
What results from an increased release of glutamine from skeletal muscle?
Which of the following is not an example of a good source of beta carotene?
Why might one feel sleepy after eating too much turkey?
Turkey is high in the amino acid tryptophan which gets converted to melatonin.
State whether the following are ketogenic, glucogenic, or partially ketogenic and glucogenic.
Leucine, Isoleucine, Cystine, Glycine, and Phenylalanine
-Isoleucine: partially keto/glucogenic
- Glycine: glucogenic - Phenylalanine: partially keto/ glucogenic
Name three health benefits of following a vegetarian diet.
cardiovascular health, lowers blood pressure, reduce the risk of Type 2 diabetes
What is the RDA for protein?
a: 2 g protein/kg BW
b: 0.5 g protein/kg BW
c: 0.8 g protein/kg BW
d: 5 g protein/ lb BW
Which of the following is the best source of protein?
B. Grilled Chicken
Which of the following is NOT a dispensable/nonessential amino acid?
What is the most commonly used method to clinically evaluate protein status?
The measurement of plasma proteins
What is/are amino acid(s) necessary for melanin?
phenylalanine and tyrosine.
Which of the following is not a feature of urea cycle?
A. Primary mechanism to remove excess nitrogen (i.e., NH4+)
B. Occurs in hepatocytes (mitochondria and cytosol)
C. Starts with formation of Carbamoyl Phosphate (via NH4+and CO2)
D. Don't require energy
True or False: Protein turnover is a term collectively refer to the processes of protein ______ and protein _________.
A. pool, muscle
B. essential, non-essential
C. synthesis, breakdown
D. supplementation, de-animation
Multiple Choice: Which one of the following is Hydrophobic Amino acid:
True or False: The two sulfur-containing amino acids are methionine and cysteine.
What is/are the limiting amino acids for rice and for red beans?
Lysine for rice and sulfur amino acids for red beans.
True or false? A deficiency in just one of the amino acids results in a negative nitrogen balance.
What is an Aromatic Amino Acid and where does catabolism of them occur?
An Aromatic Amino Acid is an Amino Acid that includes an aromatic ring such as; Phenylalanine, Tryptophan, and Tyrosine. Catabolism of Aromatic Amino Acids occurs primarily in the liver.
What hormone has a relationship with increased urinary output and the consumption of alcohol?
T/F: The majority of ETOH absorption occurs in the stomach.
Which of the following is NOT considered a standard drink?
2 oz hard liquor
T/F: When individuals undergo bypass surgery, they are hardly affected by alcohol intake.
T/F: The more a person drinks, the higher the risk of them developing an alcohol-associated cancer.
T/F: The enzymes that contribute to the metabolism of alcohol in the body are alcohol dehydrogenase 1 (ADH1), alcohol dehydrogenase 2 (ADH2), cytochrome P450, and catalase.
T/F: A 120 lb female is still within legal limits after consuming 4 pints of beer (7% alcohol). If false determine her blood alcohol content.
False. BAC= 0.29%
T/F: Moderate drinking consists of consuming 2 drinks/day for women and 3 drinks/day for men, although the Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGAs) recommend 1 drink/day for women and 2 drinks/day for men.
Which neurotransmitter plays a role in the euphoric feeling from alcohol?
You have a patient that comes in experiencing trouble with losing weight. They tell you that they have given up drinking beer and switched to drinking just hard liquor because "its less calories than drinking beer". Also they have started a new gym membership in hopes to speed up their weightloss journey. Which of these issues may be a factor in him/her losing weight while still overconsuming hard liquor?
A .Suppresses Glycogen storage and glucose Availability
B. Suppresses breakdown of lipids
C. Can inhibit protein synthesis
(All the above)
Why do we see toxic effects from excessive alcohol use after the alcohol metabolism.
The body cannot handle large quantities of certain by-products that are the result of alcohol metabolism.
T/F: Alcohol digestion takes place in the small intestine 2 hours post consumption.
Which of these is/are NOT a possible end-stage Alcoholic liver disease characteristic?
T/F: Eating several hours after drinking can slow the absorption of alcohol.
T/F: The dietary guidelines for americans (DGAs) for alcohol is the same for men and women.
T/F: Excessive alcohol consumption causes damage to the liver which can affect absorption of vitamins and minerals leading to deficiencies.
Considering that excessive alcohol consumption ultimately inhibits gluconeogenesis, what state could this put someone in?
d. none of the above
True or False is Acetaldehyde toxic?
True or False. The 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans advise limiting alcohol to two drinks per day for women.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the body that is affected by alcohol consumption?
b. adipose tissue
If a beer has a proof of 8, what percentage of ethanol does it contain?
Alcohol is metabolized primarily to what substance in the liver?
d: all of the above
Alcohol is a central nervous system stimulant so if too much alcohol is consumed, it depresses the nerves that control _____. Which of these are not true?
C. Arms and Legs
D. Gag Reflex
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of acetaldehyde?
A. Acetaldehyde is a carcinogen
B. It transforms into alcohol dehydrogenase
C. It is short lived
D. It can be broken down into acetate
True or False: Poor nutrition may increase the risk of alcohol-related liver damage.
True or False
The Microsomal Ethanol Oxidizing System (MEOS) is responsible for metabolizing compounds such as ethanol, steroids, and barbiturates.
True or False
Carbohydrate and fat slows the absorption of alcohol in the stomach by preventing the molecules from touching the wall
The _______ method is a drinking assessment tool that effectively estimates an individual's past daily alcohol consumption. The accuracy and reliability of this method makes it applicable for use in both the research and clinical settings.
A 24 hour recall
B. Timeline follow-back
C. NHANES Food Frequency Questionnaire
D. 7 day food record
Which of the following is not a vitamin deficit in severe hepatic failure?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin B12
D) Vitamin A
What are three main physical symptoms of end stage liver disease (ESLD)?
Ascites, edema, jaundice, encephalopathy, and ataxia are common symptoms of ESRD.
Recommendation for men to drink:
A. 2 drinks per day for men
B. 1 drink per day for men
C. All drinks are considered to be drank in moderation if mixing water between alcoholic beverages.
D. 3 drinks per day for men
What is the relationship between alcohol consumption and hypoglycemia?
Consumption of alcohol inhibits gluconeogenesis which can thereby cause hypoglycemia
Which of the following is a facial feature of a child with Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD)?
A. Small eyes
B. Thin upper lip
C. Short nose
D. Smooth skin surface between the nose and upper lip
E.All of the above
T/F: Alcohol metabolism is lower in the fed nutritional state compared to the fasted nutritional state.
True or False: Consumption of alcohol, especially by an undernourished individual, can cause hypoglycemia due to its inhibition of gluconeogenesis.
Alcohol is metabolized mainly in liver by several pathways. Which of the following enzyme/s are most common enzymes involved in alcohol metabolism?
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH)
C. Cytochrome P450 2E1 (CYP2E1) and catalas
D. A and B are correct
Where is the main site of alcohol metabolism?
D. small intestine
Thiamine deficiency is a common occurrence in people with alcoholism and results from poor overall nutrition.
What is the syndrome caused by thiamine deficiency?
During Alcohol metabolism, the liver takes Ethanol and turns it into _________, which is toxic and then converts it to ________which is not toxic and can be activated to acetyl CoA and enter the TCA Cycle or enter the pathway for Fatty Acid synthesis.
A. citrate, isocitrate
B. triacylglycerol, acetoacetate
C. acetaldehyde, acetone
D. phenylalanine, tyrosine
Jenny is out at the bar with a couple of friends and has been drinking off the week's stress with some beverages of the alcoholic variety. After eating a small lunch a few hours before and chugging 3
margaritas, Jenny starts heavily feeling the effects of the alcohol. Her friends suggest eating a basket of fries to calm the effects. How will the French fries affect her?
A. She will begin to feel more drunk
B. The fries will have no effect.
C. She will begin to feel more sober and ready for another margarita.
Ashley consumes a 2300 calorie diet (on average) daily. On Thursday, she consumes 10 grams of alcohol. On Friday, she consumes 15 grams of alcohol. Calculate her total intake of calories from alcohol, as well as the percentage of calories from alcohol each day.
A: Thursday: 10 x 7 = 70 kcal
Friday: 15 x 7 = 105 kcal
Percentage of total kcal: 70 / 2300 = 3% total kcal // 105/2300 = 5% total kcal
If a person who previously misused alcohol goes in for surgery but does not disclose this information to the surgeon, what may happen with anesthesia during the procedure?
A. MEOS will be inactive and nothing will happen.
b. MEOS has no involvement with anesthesia.
c. MEOS will be hyperactive depleting anesthesia quicker than expected.
d. MEOS will be hypoactive requiring less anesthesia than expected.
True/False: Ethanol's acute effects are largely due to its nature as a central nervous system depressant.
True/ False Binge drinking in men is considered more than 10 drinks and binge drinking in women is considered more than 8 drinks in a day.
False: 5 or more for men 4 or more for women
T/F: Microbes differ greatly across regions of the human body and from person to person.
According to the video "Microbiome Diet-Animation Show How to Feed Your Gut" which of the following is absorbed by the large intestine and stimulates blood flow in the blood vessels of the large intestines, encouraging tissues to remain healthy?
What is the preferred method of birth for infants that is most beneficial to the microbiome?
How many microbial cells do we harbor? Are they more or less than human cells?
100 trillion microbial cells. There are more in the body than human cells.
T/F: Butyrate is the most abundant SCFA and aids in cholesterol metabolism and lipogenesis.
Which of the following diets are most beneficial for improving and fueling the microbiome?
T/F: There is some disease that has been associated with microbiome dysfunctions?
List three chronic illnesses that are thought to be a consequence of a loss of microbes.
Asthma, allergies, Celiac's, T1DM
T/F:Studies have shown that what we do that can be considered detrimental to our microbiome early in life can affect health and wellness in later life-cycles?
According to the Human Microbiome Project of the NIH, what yeast does NOT dominate in the microbiome?
Which of the following food sources does NOT contribute to a healthy gut microbiome?
Meat & Fried Foods
T/F: The number of human bacteria and their genetic material far outnumber the number of human cells and genes.
Protein has been _______ associated with overall microbial diversity. Regarding vegetarian protein, pea protein is reported to _______ Bifidobacterium and Lactobacillus.
T/F: autoimmune diseases: are passed on in the family by inheriting microbiomes not by DNA
T/F: Infants born via cesarean show lower levels of some healthy bacteria.
Which of the following is a function of the microbiome?
A. It helps us digest our food
B. It helps us fight disease
C. It helps us regulate our immune system
D. It produces certain vitamins
E. All of the above are functions
Why do scientists believe that asthma, allergies, and other diseases are increasing?
A. The increase in cesarean births
B. The lack of babies being breastfed
C. The increase of antibiotic use
D. The obsession with staying clean and germ free
E. All of the above
Recently there has been a decline in our microbiome. Which of the following is this likely due from? a. increase in C-sections
b. increase of children receiving antibiotics}
c. increase in cleaning habits
d. not enough breast feeding
e. all of the above
name 3 foods that contain probiotics and 3 foods that contain probiotics.
-Probiotics: yogurt, sauerkraut, kimchi
-Prebiotics: asparagus, onions, raw honey
All of the following are different communities of microbes found in the human body EXCEPT for:
d: GI tract
What is/are the benefits of prebiotics?
a: enhanced immunity
b: reduction of harmful bacteria
c: increased bowel motility
d: all of the above
Briefly explain the differences between prebiotics and probiotics.
Prebiotics are non-digestible food substances that encourage the growth and activity of favorable intestinal bacteria, thus improving the gut health of the host. Prebiotics are also resistant to gastric acidity, enzymatic hydrolysis and GI absorption.
Which of the following is a specific function of the microbiome?
A- Metabolic end products and therapeutic drug
B- Mitigate intestinal pathogens
C- Maintain tissue homeostasis
D- Facilitate fermentation of dietary fiber (inulin, pectin...)
E- All of the above
In an adult, different parts of the body host _________ microbial communities, while newborns have _______ microbial communities in each body site.
A. similar : similar
B. similar : distinct
C. distinct : similar
D. distinct : distinct
Which of these are functions of the gut microbiome?
a. Microbiota stimulate the immune system
b. break down potentially toxic food compounds
c. and synthesize certain vitamins and amino acids including the B vitamins and vitamin K
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
True/False: The gut microbiome is not effected by the use on antibiotics. Antibiotics only attack the bad bacteria that is making a person sick.
True or False: Carbohydrates, such as natural sugars, are among the MOST well-suited dietary components for the gut microbiota.
True or False: The colon is not responsible for the absorption of any nutrients
True or False: The elderly are particularly susceptible to PEM because of functional declines, illness, poverty, and long-term residential care situations.
True or False. Dietary Protein increases microbial diversity of the microbiome and enhances gut health
What foods support increased levels of Short Chains Fatty Acids and how do they relate to our microbiota?
Foods that support increased levels of SCFA are indigestible carbohydrates and fibers such as inulin, resistant starches, gums, pectins, and fructooligosaccharides. These fibers are sometimes called prebiotics because they feed our beneficial microbiota.
What diseases are associated with a dysfunction of the microbiome?
Diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, fibromyalgia
True or False - Synbiotics are a combination of food sources containing prebiotics and probiotics that improve the efficacy of gut microbiota and the production of short chain fatty acids.
True or False - Short chain fatty acids lower intestinal PH.
What does the effectiveness of prebiotics depend on?
The effect of the prebiotic depends on the type, dietary dose, and the concentration.
True or false- a baby delivered by C section does not develop their microbiome as efficiently s one born in a traditional birth
How could healthy bacteria in the large intestine improve symptoms of flatulence?
Some bacteria that can be present in the large intestine actually consume gases that would be excreted as opposed to producing more.
Which of the following are benefits of prebiotics?
A. Decreased large bowel motility and increased transit time
B. Maintenance of healthy intestinal function
C. Support of microflora
D. B and C
T/F- Microbes differ greatly across regions of the human body and from person to person.
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