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A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to:
Select one:
A. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.
B. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder.
C. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital.
D. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too.
A. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.
A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should:
Select one:
A. approach the patient with caution.
B. tell the patient that you want to help.
C. quickly tend to the bleeding wound.
D. calmly identify yourself to the patient.
D. calmly identify yourself to the patient.
A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following?
Select one:
A. Activities of daily living
B. Behavior that is acceptable to the community
C. Dressing, eating, or bathing
D. All of these answers are correct.
D. All of these answers are correct.
A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT:
Select one:
A. speaking privately with the patient.
B. at a distance when the patient is first seen.
C. when the patient is in the ambulance.
D. speaking with family members or bystanders first.
B. at a distance when the patient is first seen.
Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________.
Select one:
A. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill
B. and needs medication administered to control them
C. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT
D. because mental illness affects everyone
A. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill
From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least:
Select one:
A. 3 weeks.
B. 2 weeks.
C. 1 week.
D. 1 month.
D. 1 month.
Signs of excited delirium include:
Select one:
A. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts.
B. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
C. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.
D. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever.
B. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________.
Select one:
A. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status
B. functional and nonfunctional
C. physical and psychological
D. All of these answers are correct.
C. physical and psychological
What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness?
Select one:
A. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."
B. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse.
C. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous.
D. Everyone has some form of mental illness.
A. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."
When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors?
Select one:
A. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others
B. Visual or auditory hallucinations
C. Disruptions to activities of daily living
D. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community
A. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others
When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that:
Select one:
A. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia.
B. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs.
C. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior.
D. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.
D. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.
Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient?
Select one:
A. Avoid touching without permission.
B. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs.
C. Examine extremities first.
D. Always work toe-to-head.
A. Avoid touching without permission.
Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency?
Select one:
A. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job
B. A person who is experiencing a panic attack
C. A person violently attacking family members
D. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself
C. A person violently attacking family members
Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome?
Select one:
A. Depression
B. Schizophrenia
C. Alzheimer dementia
D. Anxiety conditions
C. Alzheimer dementia
Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality?
Select one:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Psychosis
C. Agitated delirium
D. Suicidal
B. Psychosis
Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large?
Select one:
A. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.
B. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large.
C. EMTs respond with law enforcement.
D. EMTs have to restrain patients.
A. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.
You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation?
Select one:
A. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody.
B. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan.
C. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her.
D. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport.
B. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan.
You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should:
Select one:
A. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them
B. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists
C. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family.
D. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.
B. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists
You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is:
Select one:
A. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD?
B. Were you shot at or under fire?
C. Can you tell me about your experience?
D. Were you in combat?
B. Were you shot at or under fire?
You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence?
Select one:
A. His shouting of obscenities
B. His clenched fists
C. The broken window
D. His large body size
D. His large body size
A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing:
Select one:
A. acute schizophrenia.
B. delirium tremens.
C. alcohol intoxication.
D. acute hypovolemia.
B. delirium tremens.
A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:
Select one:
A. tolerance.
B. withdrawal.
C. dependence.
D. addiction.
A. tolerance.
Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it:
Select one:
A. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs.
B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption.
C. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances.
D. induces vomiting and empties the stomach.
B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption.
An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause:
Select one:
A. liver failure.
B. kidney failure.
C. gastric ulcers.
D. CNS depression.
A. liver failure.
As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should:
Select one:
A. quickly gain access to the patient.
B. be alert for personal hazards.
C. look for drug paraphernalia.
D. observe the scene for drug bottles.
B. be alert for personal hazards.
Heroin is an example of a(n):
Select one:
A. hypnotic.
B. sympathomimetic.
C. cholinergic.
D. opioid.
D. opioid.
How do poisons typically act to harm the body?
Select one:
A. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions
B. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them
C. By interfering with normal neurologic function
D. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs
B. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them
Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:
Select one:
A. oxycodone (Percocet).
B. ecstasy.
C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine).
D. crack cocaine.
A. oxycodone (Percocet).
If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________.
Select one:
A. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department.
B. not approach the vomitus.
C. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary.
D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.
D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.
In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for:
Select one:
A. acute respiratory depression.
B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.
C. an increase in her blood pressure.
D. a sudden outburst of violence.
B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.
Most poisonings occur via the __________ route.
Select one:
A. injection
B. absorption
C. inhalation
D. ingestion
D. ingestion
Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider.
Select one:
A. injection
B. absorption
C. ingestion
D. inhalation
A. injection
The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________.
Select one:
A. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical
B. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place
C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance
D. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification
C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance
Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following?
Select one:
A. Suctioning to clear the airway
B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation
C. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask
D. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway
B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation
When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that:
Select one:
A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot.
B. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures.
C. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones.
D. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol.
A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot.
Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?
Select one:
A. How long ago was the substance taken?
B. Why was the substance ingested?
C. What type of substance was taken?
D. How much of the substance was taken?
B. Why was the substance ingested?
Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose?
Select one:
A. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min
B. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min
C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min
D. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min
B. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min
Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?
Select one:
A. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning.
B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
C. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.
D. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.
B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include:
Select one:
A. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).
B. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon).
C. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate.
D. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
A. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).
You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should:
Select one:
A. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.
B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C. ventilate her with a BVM.
D. contact the poison control center.
C. ventilate her with a BVM.
A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop:

A. irreversible renal failure.
B. acidosis and dehydration.
C. hypoxia and overhydration.
D. severe insulin shock.
A. irreversible renal failure.
A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?

A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Severe hypoglycemia
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Congestive heart failure
A. Pulmonary embolism
A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing:

A. hyperglycemia.
B. a heart attack.
C. hypoglycemia.
D. an acute stroke.
B. a heart attack.
A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should:

A. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.
B. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.
C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.
D. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.
A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________.

A. diabetic ketoacidosis
B. hyperglycemic crisis
C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma
D. hypoglycemic crisis
A. diabetic ketoacidosis
A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms?

A. Deep, rapid respirations
B. Warm, red, and dry skin
C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin
D. Hypertension
C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin
Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations.
B. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.
C. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.
D. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.
C. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.
During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that

A. he has thrombophilia.
B. he has a thrombosis.
C. he has hemophilia A.
D. his blood clots too quickly.
.
C. he has hemophilia A.
Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called

A. polydipsia.
B. polyphagia.
C. dyspepsia.
D. dysphasia.
B. polyphagia.
In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes:

A. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.
B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.
C. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells.
D. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body.
B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.
Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. requesting permission from medical control.
B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
C. assessing the patient's mental status.
D. checking the medication's expiration date.
B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:

A. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.
B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.
C. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.
D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because:

A. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do.
B. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury.
C. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.
D. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.
C. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.
The main function of the endocrine system is to _________.

A. maintain homeostasis
B. regulate glucose and calcium
C. regulate blood flow
D. produce glandular secretions
A. maintain homeostasis
The normal blood glucose level is between:

A. 60 and 80 mg/dL.
B. 30 and 150 mg/dL.
C. 160 and 200 mg/dL.
D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.
D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.
The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________.

A. transport and clotting
B. erythrocytes and leukocytes
C. platelets and plasma
D. hemoglobin A and S
B. erythrocytes and leukocytes
Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?

A. Blindness
B. Depression
C. Hepatitis B
D. Alcoholism
A. Blindness
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

A. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin.
B. Most cells will function normally without glucose.
C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.
D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.
C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?

A. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
B. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.
C. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.
D. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.
A. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes:

A. glucagon.
B. dextrose.
C. insulin.
D. oxygen.
C. insulin.
A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should:

A. position her legs well above the level of her heart.
B. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.
C. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible.
D. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.
D. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.
A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?

A. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.
B. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer.
C. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine.
D. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance.
A. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.
After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should:

A. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine.
B. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.
C. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.
D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.
D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.
Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself.

A. injected poison
B. irritating toxin
C. deadly venom
D. All of these answers are correct.
D. All of these answers are correct.
Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment.
B. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature.
C. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
D. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.
D. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.
At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________.

A. a series of small, raised pustules
B. an uncomfortable depression in the skin
C. a raised, well-defined area of the skin
D. a large area of red, blotchy skin
C. a raised, well-defined area of the skin
Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following?

A. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations.
B. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary.
C. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.
D. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury
C. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.
Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm.

A. parasympathetic
B. cardiac
C. respiratory
D. sympathetic
D. sympathetic
Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances?

a. All of these answers are correct.
b. Insect or animal bites and stings
c. Food and medications
d. Plant material
a. All of these answers are correct.
The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg.

A. 0.03; 0.3
B. 0.1; 0.01
C. 0.01; 0.1
D. 0.3; 0.15
D. 0.3; 0.15
The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration.

A. 1 minute
B. 1 hour
C. 30 seconds
D. 30 minutes
A. 1 minute
The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________.

A. kill their human host
B. spread disease and destruction
C. use a human body as a home
D. cause an immune response
C. use a human body as a home
The stinger from a honeybee should be:

A. scraped away from the skin.
B. irrigated with copious amounts of water.
C. left in place and covered.
D. squeezed with tweezers and removed.
A. scraped away from the skin.
Urticaria is the medical term for:

A. a wheal.
B. burning.
C. swelling.
D. hives.
D. hives.
When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________.

A. protect itself
B. go on alert
C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance
D. All of these answers are correct.
D. All of these answers are correct.
When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________.

A. slowly, over more than 30 minutes.
B. quickly, within 30 seconds.
C. slowly, over several hours.
D. quickly, within 30 minutes
D. quickly, within 30 minutes
Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?

A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B. Albuterol (Ventolin)
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction?

A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin
B. A sense of impending doom
C. Tightness in the chest or throat
D. All of these answers are correct.
C. Tightness in the chest or throat
Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

A. Stridor
B. Rhonchi
C. Wheezing
D. Rales
A. Stridor
Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction?

A. The environment in which the patient is found
B. The time of year in which the exposure occurred
C. The patient's general physical appearance
D. The patient's family history
A. The environment in which the patient is found
A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:


A. acute pancreatitis.
B. esophagitis.
C. Mallory-Weiss tear.
D. esophageal varices.
C. Mallory-Weiss tear.
A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

A. rapidly transport her to the hospital.
B. protect her airway from aspiration.
C. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.
D. keep her supine and keep her warm.
B. protect her airway from aspiration.
A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:

A. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.
B. transport him in a supine position.
C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy.
D. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
D. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:

A. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.
B. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.
C. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity.
D. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
D. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain?

A. Liver
B. Gallbladder
C. Kidney
D. Pancreas
C. Kidney
An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to:

A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital.
B. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.
C. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain.
D. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position.
A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital.
For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________.

A. determine the cause of the patient's complaint
B. perform all interventions prior to transport
C. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor
D. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport
D. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport
Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

A. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
B. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
C. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
D. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
D. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

A. referred pain.
B. remote pain.
C. radiating pain.
D. visceral pain.
A. referred pain.
Peritonitis may result in shock because:

A. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.
B. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.
C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present.
D. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
D. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________.

A. sedentary adults
B. women
C. men
D. active adults
B. women
When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:

A. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition.
B. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.
C. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.
D. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.
C. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.
Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function?

A. Large intestine
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Spleen
D. Spleen
Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient?

A. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment.
B. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment.
C. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport.
D. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient.
B. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment.
Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea?

A. Low-flow oxygen
B. Positive-pressure ventilation
C. Oral glucose
D. Cricoid pressure
A. Low-flow oxygen
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

A. Spleen
B. Gallbladder
C. Pancreas
D. Liver
C. Pancreas
Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?

A. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.
B. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.
C. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.
D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

A. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
C. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
D. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________.

A. appendicitis
B. cholecystitis
C. kidney stones
D. a hernia
B. cholecystitis
Your patient complains of chronic "burning" stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect:

A. pneumonia.
B. aortic aneurysm.
C. kidney stones.
D. peptic ulcer disease.
D. peptic ulcer disease.
A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport?
A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15
B. He is currently not prescribed any medications
C. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure
D. He has experienced seizures since he was 20
B. he is currently not prescribed any medications
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
A. has had a prior heart attack.
B. has bleeding within the brain.
C. has a GCS score that is less than 8.
D. is older than 60 years of age.
B. has bleeding within the brain
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
Select one:
A. dysphagia.
B. paraplegia.
C. dysarthria.
D. aphasia.
C. dysarthria
A patient with an altered mental status is:
Select one:
Select one:
A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.
B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
C. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
D. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
Select one:
A. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke.
B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations.
C. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level.
D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed
Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a thrombus.
B. an embolism.
C. cerebral vasodilation.
D. an acute arterial rupture.
C. cerebral vasodilation
The left cerebral hemisphere controls:
Select one:
A. the right side of the face.
B. the right side of the body.
C. breathing and blood pressure.
D. heart rate and pupil reaction.
B. the right side of the body
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Select one:
A. severe stress.
B. hypertension.
C. diabetes mellitus.
D. heavy exertion.
B. hypertension
The three major parts of the brain are the:
Select one:
A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput.
B. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
C. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.
D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.
D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem
When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:
Select one:
A. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.
B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side.
C. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes.
D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
Select one:
A. a seizure.
B. respiratory distress.
C. a febrile convulsion.
D. an acute stroke.
A. a seizure
When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine:
Select one:
A. when the patient last appeared normal.
B. the patient's overall medication compliance.
C. if the patient has been hospitalized before.
D. if there is a family history of a stroke.
A. when the patient last appeared normal
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
Select one:
A. Hypovolemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. A postictal state
D. Intracranial bleeding
A. hypovolemia
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
Select one:
A. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
B. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
D. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure?
Select one:
A. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly
B. A seizure that begins in one extremity
C. A generalized seizure without incontinence
D. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura
B. A seizure that begins in one extremity
Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?
Select one:
A. Confusion and fatigue
B. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation
C. A rapidly improving level of consciousness
D. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness
A. Confusion and fatigue
Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion?
A. The headache began suddenly
B. The pain is worse when bending over
C. There is numbness in the extremities
D. There is associated neck stiffness
B. The pain is worse when bending over
You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include:
Select one:
A. oral glucose gel and transport.
B. high-flow oxygen and transport.
C. ventilatory assistance and transport.
D. recovery position and transport.
D. recovery position and transport
You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should:
Select one:
A. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.
B. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula.
C. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.
D. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day.
C. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route
Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of:
Select one:
A. 9.
B. 8.
C. 6.
D. 7.
B. 8
A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.
B. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
C. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
D. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.
C. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

A. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
B. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.
C. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
C. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
C. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should

A. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.
B. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.
C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place
C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

A. Obstructive lung disease
B. Uncontrolled hypertension
C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
D. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Acute myocardial infarction
A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:

A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
C. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.
B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:

A. immediately resume CPR.
B. assess for a carotid pulse.
C. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.
D. transport the patient at once.
A. immediately resume CPR.
Angina pectoris occurs when:

A. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
B. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
C. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
D. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
C. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

A. right atrium.
B. left ventricle.
C. right ventricle.
D. left atrium.
A. right atrium.
Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:

A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
B. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
D. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:

A. who have experienced a head injury.
B. with a history of an ischemic stroke.
C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
D. who have taken up to two doses.
A. who have experienced a head injury.
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:
Select one:

A. perform CPR for 30 seconds.
B. dry the chest if it is wet.
C. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.
D. contact medical control.
B. dry the chest if it is wet.
Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:

A. family history.
B. lack of exercise.
C. excess stress.
D. hyperglycemia.
A. family history.
Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients

A. have chronic hypertension.
B. regularly take illegal drugs.
C. are older than 40 years of age.
D. have had a stroke in the past.
A. have chronic hypertension.
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:


A. atrioventricular node.
B. coronary sinus.
C. bundle of His.
D. sinoatrial node.
A. atrioventricular node
The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:
Select one:

A. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.
B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.
C. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.
D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.
A. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing
When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed:

A. anywhere on the arms.
B. on either side of the chest.
C. on the lower abdomen.
D. on the thighs or ankles.
D. on the thighs or ankles.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
C. A rapid heart rate
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

A. Dependent edema
B. Flat jugular veins
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Labored breathing
A. Dependent edema
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:

A. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
B. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
C. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.
D. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
B. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:

A. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.
B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.
C. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should:

A. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
B. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.
C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.
D. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.
A. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):

A. solution.
B. gel.
C. suspension.
D. elixir.
C. suspension.
Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:
B. ibuprofen.
After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):

A. therapeutic effect.
B. side effect.
C. untoward effect.
D. unpredictable effect.
B. side effect.
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.

A. patient-assisted
B. paramedic-administered
C. EMT-administered
D. peer-assisted
D. peer-assisted
Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:

A. tablets.
B. pills.
C. caplets.
D. capsules.
D. capsules.
The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________.

A. contraindication
B. side effect
C. indication
D. dose
D. dose
The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called:

A. absorption.
B. digestion.
C. adsorption.
D. suspension.
C. adsorption.
The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as:

A. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
B. the study of how medications affect the brain.
C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.
C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector?

A. Intramuscular
B. Sublingual
C. Intravenous
D. Intraosseous
A. Intramuscular
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:

A. reactive airway disease.
B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.
C. cardiovascular disease.
D. bacterial infection.
A. reactive airway disease.
B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.
C. cardiovascular disease.
D. bacterial infection.
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:

A. reactive airway disease.
B. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.
C. cardiovascular disease.
D. bacterial infection.
C. cardiovascular disease.
Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error?

A. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient.
B. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route.
C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.
D. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated.
C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.
Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient?

A. Medical direction approval
B. A patient with an altered level of consciousness
C. A patient with stable vital signs
D. An alert adult patient
A. Medical direction approval
Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose?

A. Middle adults
B. Pediatric patients
C. Patients with asthma
D. Females
B. Pediatric patients
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

A. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic.
B. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.
C. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream.
D. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.
D. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.
Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?

A. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.
B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects.
C. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.
D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:

A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure.
B. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.
C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.
D. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose.
C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.
You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should:

A. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.
B. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient.
C. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.
D. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.
C. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.
"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________.

A. stroke patients
B. seizure patients
C. respiratory patients
D. cardiac patients
C. respiratory patients
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

A. epinephrine.
B. an antihistamine.
C. a beta-antagonist.
D. albuterol.
A. epinephrine.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?

A. Acute pulmonary embolism
B. Rupture of the diaphragm
C. Exacerbation of his COPD
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

A. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
B. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
C. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
D. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
B. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
Asthma is caused by a response of the:

A. respiratory system.
B. endocrine system.
C. immune system.
D. cardiovascular system.
C. immune system.
Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.

A. mucus in the larger airways
B. narrowing of the upper airways
C. severe bronchoconstriction
D. air passing through fluid
D. air passing through fluid
His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

A. croup.
B. epiglottitis.
C. bronchiolitis.
D. pertussis.
C. bronchiolitis.
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur

A. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
B. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
D. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

A. Alveoli
B. Capillaries
C. Trachea
D. Bronchi
A. Alveoli
Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg
B. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety
C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%
D. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia
A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:

A. an absence of breath sounds.
B. normal breath sounds.
C. diminished breath sounds.
D. abnormal breath sounds.
D. abnormal breath sounds.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Severe anxiety
C. Narcotic overdose
D. Pleural effusion
B. Severe anxiety
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?

A. Celiac sprue
B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Multiple sclerosis
C. Cystic fibrosis
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

A. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
B. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
C. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
B. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?

A. Orthostatic vital signs
B. Blood glucose levels
C. Lung sounds
D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation
C. Lung sounds
While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

A. Early pulmonary edema
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Widespread atelectasis
D. Acute asthma attack
B. Aspiration pneumonia.
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:

A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.
C. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
D. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.
A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:

A. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
B. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.
C. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.
D. inflammation of the bronchioles.
A. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

A. influenza Type A.
B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C. tuberculosis.
D. pneumonia.
C. tuberculosis.
Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________.

A. CO2 drive
B. COPD drive
C. alternate drive
D. hypoxic drive
D. hypoxic drive
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
A. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.
B. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.
C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.
C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx
A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
A. Severe pulmonary edema
B. His extremities are cold
C. Increased body temperature
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
A. mouth-to-mask device.
B. nonrebreathing mask.
C. bag-valve mask.
D. nasal cannula.
B. nonrebreathing mask
During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:
A. fluid in the alveoli.
B. a lower airway obstruction.
C. secretions in the airway.
D. swelling of the upper airway.
B. a lower airway obstruction
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?
A. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.
B. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
C. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.
D. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung.
B. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
B. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree
C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet
D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma
A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
A. agonal respirations.
B. ataxic respirations.
C. eupneic respirations.
D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly.
B. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.
C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
D. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.
C. can maintain an airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
A. diffusion.
B. respiration.
C. oxygenation.
D. ventilation.
D. ventilation.
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
A. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
B. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.
C. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.
D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
A. air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
A. 100 mm Hg.
B. 200 mm Hg.
C. 400 mm Hg.
D. 300 mm Hg.
D. 300 mm Hg.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
A. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag
B. Consistently increasing heart rate
C. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
D. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult
C. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
A. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
B. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
C. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
D. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin
C. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
A. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
B. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
C. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
D. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
D. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
A. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
B. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.
C. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.
D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
A. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
C. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
C. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
D. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
A. oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
A. Bronchus
B. Larynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Pharynx
A. bronchus
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
A. 75%
B. 55%
C. 65%
D. 45%
B. 55%
You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:
A. thrust the jaw forward.
B. ventilate with less pressure.
C. seal the mouth and nose.
D. thoroughly suction the stoma.
C. seal the mouth and nose.
A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
Select one:
A. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
C. apply direct pressure to the wound.
D. ensure that his airway is patent.
apply direct pressure to the wound
A palpable pulse is created by:
Select one:
A. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
D. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
Select one:
A. obtaining baseline vital signs.
B. airway, breathing, and circulation.
C. providing immediate transport.
D. gathering medical history data.
airway, breathing, and circulation
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
Select one:
A. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
D. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension
Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
Select one:
A. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
B. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
C. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
Select one:
A. lips or oral mucosa.
B. dorsum of the hand.
C. forehead and face.
D. back of the neck.
lips or oral mucosa
Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. the patient's response to your treatment.
B. the nature of any newly identified problems.
C. the reason why the patient called EMS.
D. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.
the reason why the patient called EMS
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
Select one:
A. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
B. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
D. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
most serious thing the patient is concerned about
The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
Select one:
A. 60 to 90 seconds.
B. 120 to 180 seconds.
C. 90 to 120 seconds.
D. 30 seconds.
60 to 90 seconds
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
Select one:
A. the number of patients is known.
B. area hospitals have been notified.
C. all the patients have been triaged.
D. a physician arrives at the scene.
all the patients have been triaged
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Select one:
A. Tongue-jaw lift
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Head tilt-neck lift
D. Head tilt-chin lift
Jaw-thrust maneuver
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
Select one:
A. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.
C. assess his mental status by having him move his head.
D. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.
ensure that the patient can see you approaching him
When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
Select one:
A. become larger.
B. become smaller.
C. dilate.
D. not react.
become smaller
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
Select one:
A. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
B. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel
C. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle
D. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog
Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
Select one:
A. Drug overdose
B. Inadequate perfusion
C. Acute anxiety
D. Poisoning
Acute anxiety
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
Select one:
A. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
B. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
C. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
D. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
Select one:
A. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI.
B. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.
C. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
D. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.
The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries
Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
Select one:
A. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
B. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.
C. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.
D. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.
The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint
You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
Select one:
A. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
B. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.
C. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.
D. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.
position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance
You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:
Select one:
A. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
B. has an increased heart rate and retractions.
C. is restless and is working hard to breathe.
D. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.
has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone
"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means:
A. stomach.
B. intestine.
C. bowel.
D. tongue.
stomach.
"Myo" in the word myocarditis means:
A. vein.
B. bone.
C. cartilage.
D. muscle.
muscle.
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:
A. has low blood sugar.
B. urinates frequently.
C. is unable to swallow.
D. is excessively thirsty.
is excessively thirsty.
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called:
A. hemiplegia.
B. hematemesis.
C. hemostasis.
D. hemolysis.
hemostasis.
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position?
A. Recumbent
B. Dorsal
C. Supine
D. Prone
Prone
EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to:
A. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses.
B. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition.
C. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team.
D. perform and document more accurate patient assessments.
communicate effectively with other members of the health care team.
In relation to the chest, the back is:
A. anterior.
B. ventral.
C. posterior.
D. inferior.
posterior.
The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes?
A. "sub-" and "infra-"
B. "epi-" and "sub-"
C. "peri-" and "circum-"
D. "infra-" and "peri-"
"peri-" and "circum-"
The root "melan/o" means:
A. black.
B. red.
C. gray.
D. white.
black.
The term "pericardiocentesis" means:
A. a surgical opening made in the heart.
B. surgical repair of the sac around the heart.
C. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart.
D. the removal of fluid from around the heart.
the removal of fluid from around the heart.
You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for:
A. against ambulance advice.
B. abdominal aortic aneurysm.
C. acute abdominal aneurysm .
D. acute abdominal assessment.
abdominal aortic aneurysm.
You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that:
A. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease.
B. the organ involved is enlarged.
C. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition.
D. the problem is with the patient's liver.
the problem is with the patient's liver.
The central nervous system is composed of the:
Select one:
A. brain and spinal cord.
B. brain and sensory nerves.
C. motor and sensory nerves.
D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
A. brain and spinal cord.
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
Select one:
A. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles.
B. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.
C. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease.
D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular:
Select one:
A. medication.
B. assessment.
C. disease.
D. protocol.
C. disease.
Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities?
Select one:
A. Skeletal
B. Nervous
C. Endocrine
D. Reproductive
C. Endocrine
The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
Select one:
A. orbit
B. occiput
C. mastoid
D. sphenoid
A. orbit
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents:
Select one:
A. atrial contraction.
B. ventricular filling.
C. ventricular contraction.
D. ventricular relaxation.
C. ventricular contraction.
Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the:
Select one:
A. prostate.
B. ureters.
C. urethra.
D. renal duct.
B. ureters
The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen.
Select one:
A. costal arch
B. diaphragm
C. mediastinum
D. costovertebral angle
B. diaphragm
Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle?
Select one:
A. Blood vessels
B. Urinary system
C. Skeletal system
D. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Skeletal system
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
Select one:
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Cecum
D. Spleen
D. Spleen
What is the function of the fallopian tubes?
Select one:
A. To connect the ovaries
B. To supply blood to the uterine lining
C. To produce progesterone and estrogen
D. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
D. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause?
Select one:
A. Cardiogenic
B. Neurogenic
C. Obstructive
D. Hypovolemic
C. Obstructive
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?
Select one:
A. Sensory reception
B. Temperature regulation
C. Metabolic coordination
D. Pressure and pain perception
C. Metabolic coordination
A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:
Select one:
A. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering.
B. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults.
C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.
D. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents.
C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because:
Select one:
A. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.
B. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age.
C. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age.
D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
Atherosclerosis is defined as ________.
Select one:
A. constriction of the blood vessels
B. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels
C. dilation of the arteries
D. the blockage of a coronary artery
D. the blockage of a coronary artery
Children of which age group are considered toddlers?
Select one:
A. Over 6 years
B. 1 month to 1 year
C. 3-6 years
D. 1-3 years
D. 1-3 years
Older adults frequently ___________.
Select one:
A. are able to increase their muscle mass
B. are unable to overcome medical problems
C. experience a decrease in body fat as they age
D. take multiple medications
D. take multiple medications
Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an:
Select one:
A. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion.
B. increase in muscle strength and reflexes.
C. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
D. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.
C. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________.
Select one:
A. cranial valleys
B. sutures
C. fontanelles
D. ventricles
C. fontanelles
The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically:
Select one:
A. 80 beats/min.
B. 60 beats/min.
C. 90 beats/min.
D. 70 beats/min.
D. 70 beats/min.
The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________.
Select one:
A. too fast
B. normal
C. too shallow
D. too slow
B. normal
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
B. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells.
C. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging.
D. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.
A. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group?
Select one:
A. The systolic blood pressure decreases.
B. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
C. Secondary sexual development begins.
D. Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
C. Secondary sexual development begins.
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:
Select one:
A. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs.
B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
C. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.
D. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.
B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between:
A. 90 and 140 mm Hg
B. 80 and 120 mm Hg
C. 70 and 140 mm Hg
D. 60 and 120 mm Hg
A. 90 and 140 mm Hg.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
Select one:
A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
B. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.
C. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.
D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should:
Select one:
A. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher.
B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
C. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher.
D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.
B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for:

A. An increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers
B. Increased lifting capacity and patient weight load
C. increased patient comfort and dignity
D. Better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground
increased patient comfort and dignity.
You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her:
Select one:
A. supine with her legs elevated.
B. in the Fowler position.
C. on her left side.
D. in a position of comfort.
C. on her left side.
As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should:
Select one:
A. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient.
B. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.
C. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards.
D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.
B. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
Select one:
A. flex at the waist instead of the hips.
B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
C. use a direct carry whenever possible.
D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
Select one:
A. throw out
B. decontaminate
C. incinerate
D. properly store
B. decontaminate
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
Select one:
A. a collapsible undercarriage.
B. weight capacity of up to 650 lb.
C. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
D. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.
C. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
The proper technique for using the power grip is to:
Select one:
A. lift with your palms up.
B. rotate your palms down.
C. hold the handle with your fingers.
D. position your hands about 6² apart.
A. lift with your palms up.
The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
Select one:
A. unnecessarily wasting time.
B. injury to you or your patient.
C. causing patient anxiety or fear.
D. confusion among team members.
B. injury to you or your patient.
An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:
Select one:
A. back is bent forward at the hips.
B. hands are held close to the legs.
C. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.
D. force is exerted straight down the spine.
A. back is bent forward at the hips.
You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is:
Select one:
A. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end.
C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end.
D. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end.
A. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should:

A. Tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay

B. Acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her

C. Reassure that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time

D. Maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need to be scared
B. Acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her
At the scene of the automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should:

A. Proceed with normal extrication procedures

B. Mark off a danger zone around the downed lines

C. Advise the patients to carefully get out the car

D. Remove the lines with a nonconductive object
B. Mark off a danger zone around the downed lines
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:

A. Lengthy and complete

B. Spoken in a loud voice

C. Coded and scripted

D. Brief and easily understood
D. Brief and easily understood
Which of the following MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?

A. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia

B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children

C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same typeof car in which a child was killed

D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries
C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same typeof car in which a child was killed
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used:

A. During routine cleaning of the ambulance
B. Whenever you touch nonintact skin
C. While handling needles or other sharps
D. when performing endotracheal intubation
D. when performing endotracheal intubation
In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist?

A. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change
B. The EMT Witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty
C. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift
D. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing
A. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change
which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response?

A. closed-ended
B. multiple questions asked at once
C. yes or no questions
D. open ended questions
D. open ended questions
ethnocentrism is defined as:

A. subconsciously forcing your cultural values on to a patient because you feel like your own values are more acceptable
B. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently
C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture
D. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice on answering a question
C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture
you are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol will orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to ___________________.

A. your medical director
B. the state motor vehicle department
C. law enforcement personnel
D. the receiving nurse or doctor
D. the receiving nurse or doctor
medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate to the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should:

A. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual
B. state that you not carry out the order because it is inappropriate
C. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification
D. carry out the order and then carefully documented on the run form
C. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for classification
communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment
B. elevating the tone of your voice in exaggerating word pronunciation
C. providing pen-and-paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response
D. placing yourself in the position to ensure that the patient can see your lips
B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation
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which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?

A. "the patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day"
B. "significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle"
C. "after oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved"
D. "general impression reveal that the patient was intoxicated"
D. "general impression reveal that the patient was intoxicated"