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Cell and Molecular- old test questions
Terms in this set (97)
cell membrane is formed by two layers of phospholipids. Therefore, the thickness of cell membrane is within the size range of...
a ribosome is typically 20 nm big which equals ____ um
Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) picture of a yeast cell is shown on the right. Which of the following is FALSE about the cell?
the organelle indicated by an arrow is a giant vesicle
the central dogma of molecular biology refers to?
transcription and translation
most elements are neutral because they have equal numbers of electrons and protons. Normal carbon, 12C, has 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 6 neutrons but the rare carbon form, 13C, has an additional neutron. Which of the following is TRUE about 13C
it weighs heavier than 12C
covalent bond is formed when two elements
which of the following statements is FALSE about polar molecules?
they are also amphipathic
hydrophobic repulsion is likely to occur between
H2O and CH4 (methane)
isomers are molecules that
have the identical chemical formula but different chemical structure
the chemical reaction 1 shown on the right depicts how two monosaccharides combine to form a disaccharide. Reaction 2 is the reverse reaction to break down a disaccharide into two monosaccharides. Which of the following is true?
reaction 1 is called dehydration reaction
carbohydrates carry out many functions for the cell. Which of the following is a correct match?
enhancing white blood cell function---B-glucan
the prefix B1,3-of a polysaccharide name means that
the glycosidic bonds in the polysaccharide are formed between C1 and C3 of every two neighboring monosaccharides
lactose is a type of disaccharide formed by
glucose and galactose
which of the following is true about fatty acids?
they are amphipathic
phospholipids consist of the following except
Phosphotidylinositol is a type of phospholipids that is asymmetrically distributed on the cell membrane. It is mostly located on_______________
the cytosolic side of cell membrane
cell membrane usually forms functional domains by clustering certain proteins in a small area or by creating a diffusion barrier to restrict certain proteins in one side of the cell. One good example is the cell membrane of intestinal epithelial cells, which is divided into two domains by the diffusion barrier. What is the domain that Protein A is located?
which of the following is TRUE about cholesterol?
it is the precursor of steroid hormones
which of the following is amphipathic?
proteins make up____% of the cellular content?
which of the following statement is TRUE about peptide bonds?
they form between the carboxyl group and amino group of two amino acids
the correct one-letter abbreviation for the peptide with the following amino acids: Asp-Asn-Tyr-Thr-Ile should be
which of the following statements is FALSE about proteins?
a protein usually can form into several interchangeable 3-D structures while maintaining the same function
when a peptide is denatured
it loses its 3 dimensional structure
which of the following is true about prion diseases
the diseases cause commonly cell death and tissue collapse in the nervous system
which of the following is TRUE about the domain protein structure
it is usually the part of a protein that has enzymatic activity
differential centrifugation is a common method to fractionate cdll homogenate. Which cell component can only be brought down to a pellet by ultra high speed centrifugation?
in the cell diversity lab, the unique bi-concave shape of mature red blood cells is due to
absence of nucleus
hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining is a common histological method that stains the nuclei in _______ and cytoplasm in ___________
to pipet 5.5 ul solution, you use the___________ micropipettor and turn the setting knob to set the three digits at___________ (from top to bottom)
a spectrophotometer allows you to
measure the amount of color substance in a solution
when letter "d" is put under a compound microscope, what will it look like in the eyepiece?
below is a phase contrast image of a hermaphroditic nematode. Name the structure pointed by an arrow
C. elegans is a very good genetic tool for research because of the following advantages except
each generation has about the equal number of males and hermaphrodites
in the C. elegans lab, you studied the dpy mutant worms which has shorter but thicker body. What causes the dpy worms to be short and fat?
the mutation causes weaker cuticles in the dpy worm.
which of the following is NOT found in all cells
the the TEM picture on the right, the organelle at the end of the arrow is called?
which of the following is true about the organelle on the right?
it is the energy production center in the cell
the following organelles are made of two layers of membranes EXCEPT
in the TEM picture on the right, the arrow points to
which organelle contains no DNA
the highest resolution that you can get with a light microscope is
the basic design of a fluorescence microscope is shown on the right. Which of the following is TRUE
the filter 1 allows a particular wavelength of light to reach the specimen.
immune-staining, illustrated by the diagram on the right, is an important cell biology method using antibodies. Which of the following is TRUE about this method?
the 'D' molecule is called antigen
which of the following can NOT diffuse across cell membrane?
which of the following is TRUE about passive transport
it can be done by carrier proteins and ion
which of the following ions is purposely kept at high concentration on the inside of cells
which of the following is TRUE about the glucose transport across intestinal epithelial cells
Na+ and glucose are transported together from intestine lumen into the cell (top)
all of the following are required for neurotransmitter release EXCEPT
Closed Ca+2 channels
A neuron that is exposed to a Ca+2 channel blocker, a drug that inhibits Ca+2 channel from opening, will be
able to polarize, but no Ca+2 will enter the presynaptic membrane
synaptic transmission of a nerve impulse is important because it allows the impulse to be transmitted
in 1 direction only
which of the following experimental observations would provide the best evidence that synapsin is necessary for the release of neurotransmitters
a mutant cell line of neurons lacks only synapsin and is incapable of releasing neurotransmitters
the release of a neurotransmitter vesicle involves all of the following processes EXCEPT
fusion of the Golgi apparatus with the presynaptic membrane
what is the most likely function of synapsin in the process of neurotransmitter release?
to prevent premature release of neurotransmitter
which of the following is FALSE about ion channels?
they transport ions across membrane against concentration gradient
when a Na+ ion channel is in the inactivated conformation
the ion channel won't respond to any stimulus
at synapse, the electrical signal of an action potential is converted to chemical signal, which then travels through the synaptic cleft reaching the receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. which of the following is false?
the chemical signal is usually stable and stays in the synaptic cleft for a long time.
which of the following is TRUE about the 'a' mV of the membrane potential?
it is usually -60 mV
which of the following is TRUE about the 'c' mV of the membrane potential?
it is due to high concentration of Na+ inside the cell
which of the following is FALSE about NO (nitric oxide)?
it causes opening of ion channels
which of the following is TRUE about the G-protein-coupled receptors?
after binding with a signal molecule, they cause separation of G(alpha) from G(beta)y
enzyme-coupled receptors typically________________after signal molecules bind to them.
dimerize & phosphorylate each other
which of the following is TRUE about the fast response triggered by a signal molecule?
the signal alters protein function
the structure in C. elegans that functions like a human brain is called_______________
on the right is a graph from a chemotaxis experiment. Which of the following is a correct interpretation?
the T-L is a chemoattractant because the P (control vs T-L) is 0.03.
according the the base pairing rule, you would expect any section of DNA to contain equal numbers of
A and T
which of the following is FALSE about human chromosomes?
replication origins are located at the ends of human chromosomes
for a trait to show 3:1 phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross, the trait has to be determined by
one gene with two alleles
in genetics, the law of independent assortment means
the alleles of different traits assort independently
if a child belonged to a blood type O, he or she could NOT have been produced by which set of parents?
type AB mother and type O father
a curly haired person and a straight haired person mate and all their offspring have wavy hair (note that wavy hair is a phenotype in between that of the curly and straight haired individuals). What's the chance for a couple both with wavy hair to a child with straight hair?
the fur color of a Siamese cat (shown on the right) is due to
temperature sensitivity of the black allele
DNA replication starts at ori sites which have the following features EXCEPT
they usually form more hydrogen bonds than non-ori sequences
which of the following statement is FALSE about telomeres
transcription usually starts at telomeres
which of the following is TRUE the double-strand break DNA damage?
double stranded break usually causes deletion mutation
which of the following is TRUE bout the 'new strand A'
it is called leading strand because it is replicated continuously
which of the following is TRUE about the 'New strand B'
it will be joined with the neighboring fragments by DNA ligase
DNA replication is called semi-conservative which means
each new DNA contains 50% old nucleotides and 50% new nucleotides
Most restriction enzymes
cleave DNA to produce DNA fragments with sticky ends (also called overhangs)
restriction enzymes typically recognize palindromic sequences. Which of the following could be a restriction enzyme recognition site?
5' GATCGATC 3'
3' CTAGCTAG 5'
genetic engineering typically involves cloning DNA of interest into a vector. Plasmid is one of the commonly used vector. Which of the following is FALSE about plasmid.
plasmid can be used to clone up to 50 kb long DNA
which of the following is NOT required for PCR reaction?
PCR reaction typically goes through cycles of three temperatures: 94C, 55C, and 72C. what happens during the 55C step?
primers pair to the template
bacterial RNA polymerase is composed of five subunits, two a, one b, one b', and one o.
bind to the promoter of a gene
in bacteria, transcription starts with RNA polymerase binding to
the -35 and -10 promoter regions
in bacteria, transcription stops when
the transcribed RNA forms a GC-hair pin loop
in eukaryotic cells, transcription of mRNA starts with
TFII D binding to TATA box
There are three RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells. Which of the following is a CORRECT match of the RNA polymerase and the type of RNA they transcribe?
RNA polymerase II- microRNA
the similarity between transcription and DNA replication is that
they both synthesize new nucleic acid in 5'-->3' direction
what's the genotype of the cells in the A/D section?
the cells in the U/D section didn't grow because
they had trp mutation
your unknown is the________strain
what's the mating type of your neighbors unknown strain (N)
in the second experiment, you plated your unknown, A, and D strains in the SD-ade and SD-trp selection media, both contain essential growth materials except adenine and tryptophan, respectively
ultraviolent (UV) light in the sunlight can be divided into three categories: UV-A, UV-B and UV-C. which of the following is FALSE?
the most significant type of UV-induced DNA damage is depuration
in they yeast sunscreen lab, 10 seconds of UV exposure causes no growth of the cells because
yeasts are single cellular organisms and very sensitive to UV
in the restriction enzyme lab, we preformed gel electrophoresis to analyze the DNA fragments. Which of the following is FALSE about gel electrophoresis?
samples are loaded into the gel on the red (+) electrode side.
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