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If a tetraploid with 28 chromosomes: 4N=28 chromosomes. A hexaploid has how many chromosomes?

42, 6N=42

When an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete haploid set


Hershey and Chase experiment offered evidence in support of DNA being genetic material. This made use of these radioactively labeled components:

Phosphorous (DNA) and sulfur (proteins)

Griffith's transforming element was DNA was the major conclusion of who's experiment?

Hershey and Chase

If the transforming element described by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty had been RNAse sensitive, this would have indicated that ___ was the genetic material

RNA (RNAse destroys RNA)

Cultivated American cotton is thought to have arisen from a _____ event


The salivary glands of water gliders often contain cells with thousands of chromosomes. This condition is termed ____


Metacentric chromosomes are frequently formed from two acrocentric chromosomes by the process of _____

centric fusion

In two point mapping, the presence of both dominant alleles on one homolog is termed ____

coupled configuration (AA, repulsed Aa)

In chromosome location studies with fruit flies, females are normally selected as the heterozygous parent. This is because....

crossing over is inhibited in male fruit flies.

Trisomy 21 is commonly called

Down's Syndrome

Monosomy X is commonly called

Turner's Syndrome

Cri-du-chat is a

terminal deletion

Triploidy is represented by...


Monoploidy is represented by....


2n+3 is called a


Centromere involved


No centromere involved


XXXX represents a...


4N represents a....


Dominant in males, recessive in females.

Sex influenced

Human color blindess is an example of a ..... trait

sex linked

X and Y are....

sex chromosomes

Chromosomes that don't differ between the sexes


the time during mitosis when sister chromatids separate


haploid cells specialized for reproduction


one of the identical halves of a replicated chromosome


Any variation in chromosome number that does not involve whole sets of chromosomes is termed....


A theoretical measure of the number of independent genomic units that would be represented in or contribute to the next gene pool is termed...

effective population size

The most extreme form of inbreeding possible in sexually reproducing organisms is:

self fertilization

familial down's syndrome is caused by a chromosome.....


Improvement of humans through selective breeding was originally termed.... and used by Hitler


Hardy weinberg equilibrium cannot have a genotypic frequency of the heterozygotes greater that.....


endopolyploidy is a condition often observed in

liver cells, water gliders

If 2 gene loci are on nonhomologous chromosomes, alleles at these loci are expected to assort independently. T/F


A paracentric inversion includes the centromere. T/F

False (pericentric includes)

DNA has no sulfur, proteins have no phosphorous. T/F


An individual with Turner Syndrome has no barr bodies. T/F


The transforming principle discovered by griffith was RNA. T/F

False (DNA)

Assume a species has a diploid chromosome number of 24. The term applied to an individual with 25 chromosomes should be triploid. T/F

False (12N+1)

Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome # of 14. The term applied to an individual with 28 chromosomes would be tetraploid. T/F


Familial Down's syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosomes #1 and #14. T/F

False (that's trisomy 21)

An individual with Patau's syndrome would be called a monosomy. T/F

False (Trisomy. Monosomy not possible in Auto)

When considering the structure of DNA, we would say that the complementary strands are parallel. T/F

False (antiparallel)

Hershey and Chase used labeled DNA and protein to determine that DNA is the genetic material in bacteria. T/F


G and C are present in both DNA and RNA. T/F


Thymine is a pyrimidine base. T/F


A section of DNA with the sequence TTTTTTTT would be expected to be more thermally stable than a section with GGGGGGGG. T/F

False (G is most stable)

The B form of DNA is a left handed helix. T/F

False. (Z is only left form)

Both acentric and dicentric chromatids can result from crossovers with inversion loops. T/F


Double stranded DNA that contains 200 bp would be approximately 480 A long. T/F


The alleles that we used in the Molecular Genotyping lab exercise were from repeated regions of DNA called microsatellites. On a CoT curve, these are called HR regions. T/F


The base content of a DNA sample is found to be: A=31%, G=31%, T=19%, C=19%. The DNA in this sample is single stranded. T/F


The maternal age effect was first associated with Turner's syndrome.

False (Down's syndrome)

Considering the structure of double-stranded DNA, what kind of bonds hold one complementary strand to the other?

Hydrogen bonds

When 2 genes fail to assort independently, the term normally applied is....


The human genome contains fewer than ____ genes.


Telomerase adds nucleotides to the __ end of the __ strand of DNA

3', old

Uracil is an example of a ____ and is found in ____.

pyrimidine, RNA

If a dsDNA molecule has 1,000 base pairs, how long is it?

3,400 A

If a dsDNA molecule has 1,000 base pairs, how many turns of the spiral would you expect?

100 (10 bp/turn)

Which genome characteristics would likely be representative of an organism found inhabiting the hot springs that supply water to Roman spas in Bath, England?

% GC would be larger than % AT

If a dsDNA molecule has 12% adenine, how much Cytosine would be found? Who's rule is this?

38%, Chargaff's

Chain termination sequencing of DNA works because ______ are included in small amounts in each reaction tube


If a peptide occurs in one of your cells that is 50 aa long, what is the minimum number of nucleotides that would have been required for efficient translation?

154 (50 aa * 3 codons each= 150+3 stop codons + 1G=154)

An inactivated X chromosome (Barr body) is an example of _____

facultative heterochromatin

AUG is an example of a ____

start codon

required to initiate transcription


complimentary to antisense

Sense strand

Adds poly a tail

poly a polymerase

catalyzes amino acid addition to tRNA

Amino-acyl synthetase

Synthesizes RNA

RNA polymerase

component of ribosome


carrier of amino acids


responsible for intron removal

SNURP (Splicesome)

Met in P site is a ....

start codon

degrades RNA (function)


"Cap" nucleotide


added post-transcriptionally

200+ adenines

found only in the nucleus


catalyzes peptide bond

Peptidyl transferase

reduce supercoiling of DNA


unzips DNA (unwinds H-bonds)


enzyme that fills the gap


300 A wide


100 A wide


A length of a double stranded DNA that is 2000 bp long would have how many nucleosome structures?

10 (dsDNA=150 bp, linker DNA=50 bp so 200 bp per nucleosome, 2000/200=10 nucleosomes)

DNA replication occurs in the 5' to 3' direction, that is, new nucleotides are added to the 3' end. T/F


A nucleosome is a structure associated with the nuclear membrane. It helps maintain a stable relationship between the extracellular matrix and the membrane itself. T/F

False (It helps condense DNA)

DNA replicates semiconservatively, meaning of the two daughter double-helixes, one is old and the other is new. T/F

False (DNA replicates semi-conservatively and conservative is old-old)

In contrast to euchromatin, heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating. T/F

False (heterochromatin contains no genes and is non-coding)

Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. T/F


When one speaks of a 5' cap, one is describing the addition of a base, usually thymine, to the 5' end of a completed peptide. T/F


The genetic code is non-overlapping, meaning that, assuming "standard translation", a given base participates in the specification of one and only one amino acid. T/F


The primary structure of a protein is composed of the sequence of amino acids in that protein. T/F


During replication, primase adds a DNA primer to RNA. T/F


A 3' Poly-A tail and a 5' cap are common components of prokaryotic RNA's. T/F

False (eukaryotic)

Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by 5'-3' phosphodiester bonds. T/F

False (RNA)

The triplet AUG is commonly used as a start codon during translation. T/F


rDNA is that portion of a genome which is involved in the production of ribosomal RNA. T/F


An intron is a section of RNA which gets spliced out. T/F


Unambiguous refers to the fact that the third position of many codons can vary without changing the amino acid the code for. T/F

FALSE (degenerate)

Human Barr bodies are termed facultative heterochromatin. T/F


Dideoxynulceotide is important in DNA sequencing. T/F


The term peptidyl transferase relates to ....

peptide bond formation

What name is given to the 3 bases in a mRNA which bind to the anticodon of tRNA to specify an amino acid placement in a protein?


The genetic code is fairly consistent among all organisms. The term is called....


When considering the initiation of transcription, one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA pol binds. Which are the common consensus sequences?


Side groups of aa are typically grouped under which of the following?

Polar, nonpolar

One form of posttranslational modification of a protein includes:

removal or modification of terminal aa.

The secondary structure of a protein includes the following elements:

alpha helix and beta pleated sheet

Sequence of aa in peptide

Primary structure

3-D structure

tertiary structure

Oligometric proteins, more than 1 peptide chain

quarternary structure

What is the initiator triplet in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? What is aa coded for?

AUG, methionine

The lagging strand produced during DNA replication is caused by the....

5' to 3' polarity restriction of DNA polymerase

What enzyme functions to help unwind dsDNA during replication?


THe name of the protein structure that appears at the G2/M boundary and assists in the final condensation of chromosomes is called


Chromatin refers to a complex consisting of proteins and....


3 nucleotides taken together are termed a.....


In a cell with no uracil would replication, ribosome formation, and transcription occur?


Old parental strand of DNA and one new strand in each of the sister chromatids composes....

sister chromatids

During replication, ...... adds a short length of RNA to the new DNA strands.


Linkage and crossing over are......., linkage keeps genes......, crossing over ........ genes up.

opposite, together, mixes

Crossing over take place in ..... and is the exchange of genetic material between......

Prophase 1 of meiosis, non-sister chromatids

Arrangement in which the wild type alleles are found on one chromosome and mutant alleles are found on the other chromosomes is called.....or....configuration.

coupling, cis

The arrangement in which each chromosome contains one wild type and one mutant allele is called.....or .....configuration

repulsion, trans

Between genes of different chromosomes, arises from independent assortment in anaphase 1 of meiosis.

interchromosomal recombination

You can tell genes are linked if there are more......progeny than...... progeny

nonrecombinant, recombinant

The degree to which one crossover interferes with additional crossovers in the same region is called......


number of observed double crossovers/number expected double crossovers .........the equation for the____

coefficient of coincidence

1- coefficient of coincidence calculates....


When interference is complete and no double crossover is observed, the coefficient of coincidence is __ and the interference is ___


Chromosome where the centromere is in the middle and so the chromosome has two arms of equal length


centromere is displaced toward one end, creating a long arm and a short arm (in humans, short arm is p and long arm is q)


centromere is near one end, producing a long arm and a knob or satellite on the other end


the centromere is at or very near the end of the chromosome


The complete set of chromosomes possessed by an organism


Chromosome rearrangements, aneuploids, and polyploids are the three types of ......

chromosome mutations

Chromosome rearrangements alter the ____ of chromosomes.


In aneuploidy, the ____ of chromosomes is altered, one or more is added or deleted.


In polyploidy, one or more __ of chromosomes is added or deleted.


Mutations in which point of the chromosome has been doubled.

chromosome duplication

Type of duplication mutation where duplicated region is immediately adjacent to the original segment called a .....

tandem duplication

Type of duplication mutation where duplicated segment is located some distance from the original segment, either on the same chromosome or a different one, the chromosome rearrangement is called a ____

displaced duplication

Type of duplication mutation when the duplication is inverted

reverse duplication

Do duplications effect the phenotype?


The expression of a recessive mutation. An indication that one of the homologous chromosomes has a deletion


When a single copy of a gene is not sufficient to produce a wild type phenotype, it is said to be a ..........

haploinsufficient gene

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