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Phlebotomy Final

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What does the term phlebotomy actually mean?

a. Incision of a vein.
b. Withdrawal of red blood cells.
c. Testing of blood.
d. Removal of a vein.
a. Incision of a vein.
What is the first step in routine blood collection?

a. Select and prepare the site of collection.
b. Obtain a requisition form from a licensed practitioner.
c. Choose the appropriate equipment for collecting the sample.
d. Correctly and positively identify the patient.
b. Obtain a requisition form from a licensed practitioner.
Which of the following acronyms is not a certification agency for phlebotomists?

a. AMT.
b. ASCP.
c. NAACLS.
d. ASPT.
c. NAACLS
Which of the following terms is evidence that an individual has demonstrated proficiency in a particular area of practice?

a. Accreditation.
b. Approval.
c. Standardization.
d. Certification.
d. Certification
A phlebotomist must ensure that the patient understands and agrees that his or her blood is going to be drawn. What is the name of this process?

a. Privacy.
b. Legality.
c. Informed consent.
d. Confidentiality.
c. Informed consent
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 regulates which of the following areas?

a. Informing patients of intended procedures.
b. Health insurance transfers on changing jobs.
c. Phlebotomy training.
d. Privacy of health information.
d. Privacy of health information
You have entered a patient's room and explained that you need to draw blood, and the patient repeatedly refuses. What should you do?

a. Notify the patient's physician according to the institution's written policies.
b. Call for another phlebotomist to help you to convince the patient.
c. Take the request form back to the laboratory after you have finished drawing your other patients.
d. Attempt to draw it anyhow because the physician ordered the test.
a. Notify the patient's physician according to the institution's written policies
The term informed consent means:

a. A patient must inform the physicians concerning what procedures they need.
b. A patient must be informed of all intended treatments and risks before the treatment is performed.
c. A nurse informed by the phlebotomist can overrule a patient's refusal.
d. As long as the patient is informed, he or she cannot refuse a treatment.
b. A patient must be informed of all intended treatments and risks before the treatment is performed
Which of the following is true of phlebotomy?

a. Phlebotomy is an ancient profession dating back at least 3500 years.
b. Phlebotomy is a new profession arising during World War II.
c. Phlebotomists today draw blood from patients for the same reasons as ancient phlebotomists.
d. Phlebotomy equipment has not changed since the original phlebotomists.
a. Phlebotomy is an ancient profession dating back at least 3500 years
Which of the following professionals performs a variety of tasks related to specimen preparation in the clinical laboratory?

a. Accessioner.
b. Medical assistant.
c. Medical technologist.
d. Laboratory assistant.
c. Medical technologist
After becoming certified, what is a requirement to maintain that certification?

a. Participate in continuing medical education.
b. Take an annual phlebotomy course.
c. Complete a minimum of 500 sticks each year.
d. Take a bi-annual national certification examination.
a. Participate in continuing medical education
What is the term given to any information about the patient's health status, treatment, or payment for health care?

a. Private Health Plan.
b. Protected Health Information.
c. Demographics.
d. Diagnosis.
b. Protected Health Information
Define phlebotomy
Phlebotomy is the practice of drawing blood samples for analysis
List the six steps of routine blood collection
1. Correctly and positively identify patient
2. Choose the appropriate equipment for obtaining the sample
3. Select and prepare the site for collection
4. Collect the sample, ensuring patient comfort and safety
5. Correctly label sample
6. Transport the sample to the laboratory in a timely manner, using appropriate handing procedures
Besides drawing blood samples, what other skills may a phlebotomist be trained to perform?
- Must adhere to safety regulations
- Interact with patients
- Keep accurate records
- Operate computers
Define certification
Evidence that an individual has demonstrated proficiency in a particular area of practice
Explain the purpose of CEUs
Required to remain certified and provide updates on new regulations and techniques to help refresh skills
List three organizations that provide accreditation for phlebotomy programs
- AMT: American Medical Technologists
- NAACLS: National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences
- NPA: National Phlebotomy Association
- ASPT: American Society of Phlebotomy Technicians
List three organizations that provide certification for phlebotomists
- ASCP: American Society for Clinical Pathology
- NPA: National Phlebotomy Association
- ACA: American Certification Agency for Healthcare Professionals
- AMT: American Medical Technologists
- ASPT: American Society of Phlebotomy Technicians
Why would a phlebotomist wish to become a member of professional organization?
May wish to become members of a professional organization to follow changes in the field and learn new techniques
What is informed consent?
A patient must be informed of intended treatments and their risks and must give consent before these treatments are preformed
List and explain at least 4 responsibilities in the phlebotomist's job-related duties
- Correctly/positively identifying the patient
- Choosing the appropriate equipment for obtaining the sample
- Selecting/preparing the site for collection
- Collecting the sample
-Ensuring patient comfort and safety
- Correctly labeling the sample
List the two most important legal aspects of the phlebotomist's profession
Obtaining informed consent and maintaining patient confidentiality
Phlebotomy skills would not include

a. organization
b. handling patient correspondence
c. interpersonal skills
d. being able to handle stress
b. handling patient correspondence
The monitoring system for institutions that train phlebotomists is known as

a. certification
b. accreditation
c. licensure
d. CEUs
b. accreditation
Once certified, what must a phlebotomist earn to ensure continues certification?

a. CEUs
b. Licensing points
c. Accreditation
d. A degree
a. CEUs
Informed consent means

a. patients must ask their physicians if they can have blood drawn
b. patients waive their rights
c. patients must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed
d. the phlebotomist may draw a patient's blood without the patient permission
c. patients must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed
Which characteristic is not a required personal characteristic of a professional phlebotomist?

a. Dependability
b. Honesty
c. Compassion
d. Sense of humor
d. Sense of humor
Which department of the laboratory processes Pap smears?

a. Hematology.
b. Microbiology.
c. Serology.
d. Cytology.
d. Cytology
Sodium, potassium, and chloride are all part of which panel of tests?

a. Liver function.
b. Lipid.
c. Electrolytes.
d. Immune function.
c. Electrolytes
Which of the following is the term for blood donated by a patient for his or her own use during a planned future surgical operation?

a. Autologous donation.
b. Blood typing.
c. Directed donation.
d. Compatibility testing.
a. Autologous donation
Which laboratory department uses genetic and biochemical techniques to analyze DNA in specimens?

a. Molecular diagnostics.
b. Chemistry.
c. Hematology.
d. Histology.
a. Molecular diagnostics
The director of a hospital clinical laboratory is usually which of the following?

a. Phlebotomist.
b. Medical technologist.
c. Registered nurse.
d. Pathologist.
d. Pathologist
Which kind of laboratory is independent and analyzes samples from other health care facilities?

a. PPO laboratory.
b. Reference laboratory.
c. HMO laboratory.
d. POL laboratory.
b. Reference laboratory
Which department within the laboratory performs complete blood counts (CBCs)?

a. Immunohematology.
b. Hematology.
c. Microbiology.
d. Chemistry.
b. Hematology
What are the proteins that help fight infection by binding to surface molecules of the infective agent?

a. Antibody.
b. Aerobe.
c. Antigen.
d. Agglutinin.
a. Antibody.
Name the branches of support personnel in the hospital organizational system
Fiscal, Support, Nursing, and Professional Services
Name the two main areas of the laboratory
&
Identify which area the phlebotomist works in
Anatomic and Clinical Areas

Phlebotomist works in the clinical area
What is the specialty of the physician who oversees the laboratory?
Pathology
Name 2 organizations that accredit clinical laboratories
The Joint Commission and College of American Pathologists
What organization sets laboratory standards and guidelines?
The Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute
Define professional services and give at least two examples of them
Services that are provided at the request of the physician to aid in the diagnosis and treatment of a patient

- Physical Therapy
- Occupational Therapy
- Respiratory Therapy
Fiscal services is responsible for

a. cleaning and maintenance
b. performing tests
c. diagnosis and treatment of the patient
d. admitting, medical records, and billing
d. admitting, medical records, and billing
In addition to the laboratory, the following department may draw arterial blood gases:

a. physical therapy
b. occupational therapy
c. respiratory therapy
d. radiation
c. respiratory therapy
The following department uses radioisotopes to perform tests:

a. respiratory therapy
b. cytogenetics
c. nuclear medicine
d. hematology
c. nuclear medicine
The clinical laboratory is typically under the direction of a

a. pathologist
b. phlebotomist
c. pharmacist
d. medical assistant
a. pathologist
The analytic tool used to identify cell makers in HIV patients is

a. a syringe
b. a flow cytometer
c. an electrolyte
d. a C&S test
b. a flow cytometer
A CBC is performed in what department?

a. chemistry
b. urinalysis
c. serology
d. hematology
d. hematology
aPTT testing monitors

a. chemotherapy
b. physical therapy
c. heparin therapy
d. warfarin/coumadin therapy
c. heparin therapy
The type of chemistry test associated with drug analysis is known as:

a. immunology
b. cardiology
c. toxicology
d. electrophoresis
c. toxicology
What department identifies pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples?

a. virology
b. microbiology
c. mycology
d. parasitology
b. microbiology
A C&S test is analyzed in what department?

a. microbiology
b. chemistry
c. hematology
d. urinalysis
a. microbiology
Occult blood testing is performed on

a. plasma
b. feces
c. serum
d. cerebrospinal fluid
b. feces
When patients donate their blood for use during their own surgery, this is known as what?

a. autologous donation
b. platelet donation
c. cryoprecipitate donation
d. fresh frozen plasma donation
a. autologous donation
Independent laboratories that analyze samples from other health care facilities are known as:

a. physician office laboratories
b. urgent care centers
c. reference laboratories
d. waived laboratories
c. reference laboratories
Which government agency is responsible for laboratory workplace safety?

a. CLIA.
b. FDA.
c. OSHA.
d. MSDS.
c. OSHA
Infectious agents such as bacteria and viruses represent which type of safety hazard?

a. Flammable.
b. Biological.
c. Chemical.
d. Physical.
b. Biological
Needles and lancets are which type of safety hazard?

a. Electrical.
b. Sharps.
c. Biological.
d. Physical.
b. Sharps
Which of the following is the first action you should take if you have been stuck with a used needle that has been in contact with blood?

a. Call 911.
b. Report the injury to your supervisor.
c. Seek medical attention.
d. Flood the exposed area with water.
d. Flood the exposed area with water
Written information about a chemical, its hazards, and procedures for cleanup and first aid are available in which of the following documents?

a. Chemical label.
b. NFPA diamond-shaped label.
c. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
d. OSHA regulations.
c. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Which of the following is the first action you should take if you splash a chemical in your eye?

a. Flush the eyes for 15 minutes at an eyewash station.
b. Clean up the spill on the laboratory counter or floor.
c. Go to the emergency department.
d. Report the incident to your supervisor.
a. Flush the eyes for 15 minutes at an eyewash station
Which term refers to a rapid, severe, life-threatening immune reaction?

a. Irritant contact dermatitis.
b. Allergic contact dermatitis.
c. Anaphylaxis.
d. Sensitivity.
c. Anaphylaxis
A wet floor is which type of safety hazard?

a. Sharps.
b. Chemical.
c. Physical.
d. Biological.
c. Physical
According to safety protocols, which of the following actions may be performed while working in the laboratory?

a. Applying lip balm.
b. Chewing gum.
c. Wearing sandals.
d. Wearing a watch.
d. Wearing a watch
Which of the following is an acceptable action according to safety standards?

a. Follow the chemical hygiene plan only when there is a spill.
b. Add acid to water.
c. Use only extension cords that have a ground built into the plug.
d. Ignore radioactive hazard symbols on hospital doors since all doses used on patients are very weak.
b. Add acid to water.
What is the most common allergy in the health care field?

a. Latex.
b. Vinyl.
c. Plastic.
d. Nitrile.
a. Latex
What is the name given to the new labeling system for hazardous chemicals that was adopted by OSHA in 2012?

a. GHS.
b. CDC.
c. NFPA.
d. DOT.
a. GHS
What is the term for invasion and growth of a disease-causing microorganism in the human body?

a. Fomite.
b. Reservoir.
c. Infection.
d. Pathogen.
c. Infection
What is the term for an object that is contaminated by bacteria?

a. Portal of entry.
b. Reservoir.
c. Fomite.
d. Host.
c. Fomite
What does the term reservoir mean?

a. A vector.
b. A contaminated piece of equipment.
c. A person who carries a disease agent but is not sick.
d. An airborne droplet.
c. A person who carries a disease agent but is not sick
What is the term for infections contracted by patients during hospitalization?

a. Chains of infections.
b. Nosocomial infections.
c. Colonization.
d. Nontransmitted infections.
b. Nosocomial infections
HEPA (high-efficiency particulate air) filters can help to prevent which type of disease transmission?

a. Vector.
b. Contact.
c. Airborne.
d. Common vehicle.
c. Airborne
The pathogen West Nile virus is carried by mosquitoes. What type of transmission is this?

a. Contact.
b. Vector.
c. Common vehicle.
d. Airborne.
b. Vector
What is the most frequent and important transmission route for infections contracted by hospitalized patients?

a. Airborne.
b. Common vehicle.
c. Vector.
d. Contact.
d. Contact
What is the transmission route of an infection acquired by ingestion of contaminated food?

a. Airborne.
b. Contact.
c. Vector.
d. Common vehicle.
d. Common vehicle
What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection?

a. Wearing gloves.
b. Isolation of infectious patients.
c. Wearing a mask.
d. Hand washing.
d. Hand washing
Which of the following acronyms refers to barriers used to protect skin, mucous membranes, and clothing from infectious agents?

a. PPE.
b. MRSA.
c. VRE.
d. CDC.
a. PPE
Proper hand-washing technique includes scrubbing hands together vigorously for at least how long?

a. Scrubbing hands is not necessary.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 5 seconds.
d. 15 seconds.
d. 15 seconds
Respirators must be certified by which of the following agencies?

a. NIOSH.
b. CDC.
c. CLIA.
d. OSHA.
a. NIOSH
When donning a gown, mask, respirator, face shield, and gloves, which item should be put on last?

a. Respirator.
b. Gown.
c. Gloves.
d. Mask.
c. Gloves
What is the term for infection control measures that use barrier protection and work practice controls to prevent contact with infectious body fluids from all patients?

a. Isolation precautions.
b. Hospital precautions.
c. Standard precautions.
d. Patient precautions.
c. Standard precautions
The Bloodborne Pathogens Standards require an employer to provide which of the following immunizations?

a. Hepatitis B.
b. Tetanus.
c. HIV.
d. Hepatitis A.
a. Hepatitis B
According to the Bloodborne Pathogens Standards, who is responsible for providing PPE to an employee?

a. The employer provides PPE but may deduct the cost from the employee's paycheck.
b. The employer must provide and pay for PPE.
c. The patient.
d. The employee.
b. The employer must provide and pay for PPE
According to the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard rules, which specimens are considered to be potentially infectious?

a. Specimens that a physician has indicated are infectious.
b. Only specimens from patients with HIV or hepatitis B.
c. All blood and body fluid specimens.
d. Specimens from patients with any known infection.
c. All blood and body fluid specimens
A diluted solution of which of the following can be used as a disinfectant against bloodborne pathogens on countertops and work spaces?

a. Acetic acid.
b. Bleach.
c. Lysol.
d. Iodine.
b. Bleach
Which of the following is the term for separation of an infectious source from its susceptible hosts?

a. Isolation.
b. Contact precautions.
c. Protective environment.
d. Infection.
a. Isolation
In addition to standard precautions, what type of precautions should also be used for patients with such diseases as tuberculosis and measles?

a. Airborne.
b. Bloodborne.
c. Contact.
d. Droplet.
a. Airborne
In addition to standard precautions, what type of precautions should also be used for patients with such diseases as herpes or wound infections?

a. Contact.
b. Droplet.
c. Bloodborne.
d. Airborne.
a. Contact
In addition to standard precautions, what type of precautions should be used for patients with such diseases as HIV or hepatitis B?

a. Bloodborne.
b. Contact.
c. Airborne.
d. Droplet.
a. Bloodborne
For a phlebotomist, what is the principal occupational risk for infection?

a. Infection from droplets in the emergency department.
b. Infection from airborne diseases in patient rooms.
c. Infection from an accidental needle stick.
d. Infection from a splash from a dropped specimen tube.
c. Infection from an accidental needle stick
A small blood spill from a specimen you are handling occurs on a laboratory countertop. What is the usual procedure you should use to handle the spill?

a. Leave the spill alone so it can dry, which will make it easier to clean up when you get time.
b. Wearing gloves and using 10% bleach as a disinfectant, clean up visible blood first, then disinfect the entire area of potential contamination.
c. Use a handful of paper towels and wipe up the spill, being careful not to get any on your skin.
d. Ask your supervisor to find someone to clean up the spill.
b. Wearing gloves and using 10% bleach as a disinfectant, clean up visible blood first, then disinfect the entire area of potential contamination
For what duration can HBV survive in dried blood?

a. 1 week.
b. 1 month.
c. 1 day.
d. 2 weeks.
a. 1 week
What is an organisms that remains alive despite the use of an antibiotic considered to be?

a. Nosocomial.
b. Susceptible.
c. Resistant.
d. Bloodborne.
c. Resistant
Which prefix means "decreased"?

a. Hyper-
b. Anti-
c. Intra-
d. Hypo-
d. Hypo-
What is the meaning of the root word phleb?

a. Needle.
b. Injecting.
c. Cutting.
d. Vein.
d. Vein
Which of the following prefixes means "after"?

a. Anti-
b. Mega-
c. Post-
d. Poly-
c. Post-
Which suffix means "surgical removal"?

a. -itis
b. -pathy
c. -ectomy
d. -emia
c. -ectomy
Which suffix means "inflammation"?

a. -itis
b. -pathy
c. -emia
d. -ectomy
a. -itis
Which suffix means "blood condition"?

a. -ectomy
b. -emia
c. -pathy
d. -itis
b. -emia
What is the medical term for "white blood cell"?

a. Thrombocyte.
b. Cyanosis.
c. Leukocyte.
d. Erythrocyte.
c. Leukocyte
What is the plural form of the word thrombus?

a. Thrombuces.
b. Thrombitis.
c. Thrombuses.
d. Thrombi.
d. Thrombi
What does the abbreviation "CA" mean?

a. Coronary.
b. Centigrade (or Celsius).
c. Cancer.
d. Chest radiograph.
c. Cancer
Which suffix means "disease"?

a. -oma
b. -ectomy
c. -pathy
d. -penia
c. -pathy
Which root means "kidney"?

a. Necr.
b. Nephr.
c. Pneu.
d. Hepat.
b. Nephr
Which abbreviation means "immediately"?

a. NPO.
b. ER.
c. ASAP.
d. STAT.
d. STAT
What does the abbreviation "NPO" on a patient's door mean?

a. No personal visitors.
b. Bedridden.
c. Check with the nurses' station.
d. Nothing by mouth.
d. Nothing by mouth
What does the root word cardi mean?

a. Kidney.
b. Lungs.
c. Heart.
d. Liver.
c. Heart
What does the root tox mean?

a. Protein.
b. Poison.
c. Artery.
d. Oxygenated.
b. Poison
Which prefix means "black"?

a. Cyan-
b. Rube-
c. Melano-
d. Albi-
c. Melano-
Which prefix means "blue"?

a. Rube-
b. Albi-
c. Cyan-
d. Melano-
c. Cyan-
What prefix means "increased"?

a. Dys-
b. Hypo-
c. Hyper-
d. Neo-
c. Hyper-
What does the abbreviation "PRN" mean?

a. Private duty nurse.
b. As soon as possible.
c. As needed (as required).
d. Every night.
c. As needed (as required).
Which prefix means "inside"?

a. Endo-
b. Ecto-
c. Epi-
d. Exo-
a. Endo-
From what languages do most medical terms originate?

a. English and Spanish.
b. Latin and Greek.
c. Italian and French.
d. German and Dutch.
b. Latin and Greek
What is the plural form of the word ovum?

a. Ovae.
b. Ovums.
c. Ovi.
d. Ova.
d. Ova.
What are the smallest living units in the body?

a. Cells.
b. Organs.
c. Tissues.
d. Systems.
a. Cells
The body is constantly trying to maintain a dynamic steady state of health, which is called what?

a. Regulation.
b. Homeostasis.
c. Interaction.
d. Balance.
b. Homeostasis
What part of the cell contains most of the DNA?

a. Plasma membrane.
b. Mitochondria.
c. Cytoplasm.
d. Nucleus.
d. Nucleus
What is another name for striated voluntary muscle?

a. Smooth muscle.
b. Cardiac muscle.
c. Skeletal muscle.
d. Tissue.
c. Skeletal muscle
What is another name for striated involuntary muscle?

a. Skeletal muscle.
b. Tissue.
c. Smooth muscle.
d. Cardiac muscle.
d. Cardiac muscle
What is another name for nonstriated involuntary muscle?

a. Skeletal muscle.
b. Cardiac muscle.
c. Tissue.
d. Smooth muscle.
d. Smooth muscle
What is a term for a nerve cell?

a. Neurotransmitter.
b. Neuron.
c. Synapse.
d. Axon.
b. Neuron
What is the term for a group of organs functioning together for a common purpose?

a. Physiology.
b. System.
c. Tissue.
d. Anatomy.
b. System
What term describes the wrist in relation to the shoulder?

a. Inferior.
b. Proximal.
c. Distal.
d. Superior.
c. Distal
What is the term for a vertical plane dividing the body into right and left sides?

a. Frontal.
b. Transverse.
c. Sagittal.
d. Thoracic.
c. Sagittal
What is the term for a movement that bends a joint?

a. Flexion.
b. Lateral.
c. Extension.
d. Medial.
a. Flexion
Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?

a. Thoracic.
b. Pelvic.
c. Abdominal.
d. Spinal.
a. Thoracic
Which body cavity contains the spleen?

a. Spinal.
b. Thoracic.
c. Abdominal.
d. Pelvic.
c. Abdominal
Which anatomic term refers to a person lying on his or her back?

a. Supine.
b. Prone.
c. Inferior.
d. Superior.
a. Supine
Bone is formed by which cells?

a. Lymphoblasts.
b. Osteoblasts.
c. Osteoclasts.
d. Myeloblasts.
b. Osteoblasts
Muscles attach to bones via which structures?

a. Membranes.
b. Cartilage.
c. Ligaments.
d. Tendons.
d. Tendons
Hematopoiesis occurs in what type of tissue?

a. Bone.
b. Nerve.
c. Integumentary.
d. Muscle.
a. Bone
A dermatologist treats disorders of which system?

a. Muscular.
b. Integumentary.
c. Respiratory.
d. Nervous.
b. Integumentary
The esophagus is part of which system?

a. Integumentary.
b. Respiratory.
c. Digestive.
d. Endocrine.
c. Digestive
What is the term for the entire functional structure unit of the kidney, from glomerulus through collecting tubule?

a. Urethra.
b. Larynx.
c. Nephron.
d. Alveolus.
c. Nephron
Food is forced through the digestive system in a series of wavelike motions as smooth muscles contract. What is the term for this motion?

a. Peristalsis.
b. Respiration.
c. Excretion.
d. Digestion.
a. Peristalsis
Which of the following is the protein within red blood cells that binds oxygen?

a. Hormone.
b. Hemoglobin.
c. Albumin.
d. Cilia.
b. Hemoglobin
What is the term for the chemical secretions produced by the endocrine system?

a. Hormones.
b. Sweat.
c. Hemoglobin.
d. Enzymes.
a. Hormones
Which of the following is often called the "master gland" of the endocrine system?

a. Pancreas.
b. Thyroid.
c. Adrenal.
d. Pituitary.
d. Pituitary
What is the principal hormone produced by the testes?

a. Progesterone.
b. Estrogen.
c. Testosterone.
d. Cortisone.
c. Testosterone
Which hormone is detected by pregnancy tests?

a. HCG.
b. Thyroxin.
c. Estrogen.
d. Testosterone.
a. HCG
What position is being described when the body is erect and facing forward and the arms are at the side with the palms facing forward?

a. Anatomic position.
b. Standing position.
c. Supine position.
d. Physiologic position.
a. Anatomic position
What body system is responsible for thermoregulation?

a. Integumentary.
b. Cardiovascular.
c. Muscular.
d. Digestive.
a. Integumentary
Which muscle contracts to push blood through the circulatory system?

a. Triceps brachii.
b. Myocardium.
c. Endometrium.
d. Biceps brachii.
b. Myocardium
The pulmonary circulation carries blood between which two organs?

a. Lungs and all other body tissues.
b. Lungs and brain.
c. Heart and lungs.
d. Heart and all other body tissues.
c. Heart and lungs.
Which structures carry blood away from the heart?

a. Veins.
b. Arteries.
c. Capillaries.
d. Bronchioles.
b. Arteries
Which structures return blood to the heart?

a. Arteries.
b. Bronchioles.
c. Veins.
d. Capillaries.
c. Veins
What is the term for the thin membranous sac that surrounds the heart?

a. Myocardium.
b. Epicardium.
c. Pericardium.
d. Endocardium.
c. Pericardium
Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?

a. Thermometer.
b. Spectrophotometer.
c. Pressometer.
d. Sphygmomanometer.
d. Sphygmomanometer
What causes the sounds that are normally heard when listening to the heart through a stethoscope?

a. Closing of the heart valves.
b. The heart does not make any noise.
c. Contraction of the heart muscle.
d. Blood flowing through blood vessels.
a. Closing of the heart valves
What is the medical term for "heart attack"?

a. Ischemia.
b. Angina.
c. Myocardial infarction.
d. Pericarditis.
c. Myocardial infarction
What is the medical term for a reduced blood supply to heart tissue, thereby causing damage to the heart muscle?

a. Angina.
b. Ischemia.
c. Pericarditis.
d. Infarction.
b. Ischemia
Which of the following is the major artery leaving the heart that takes oxygenated blood to body tissues?

a. Aorta.
b. Carotid artery.
c. Vena cava.
d. Coronary artery.
a. Aorta
Blood returning to the heart from the lungs enters which chamber?

a. Right ventricle.
b. Left ventricle.
c. Right atrium.
d. Left atrium.
d. Left atrium
Blood returning to the heart from the various tissues of the body enters which chamber?

a. Right ventricle.
b. Left ventricle.
c. Right atrium.
d. Left atrium.
c. Right atrium
Where does blood go immediately after it leaves the right ventricle?

a. Left atrium.
b. Left ventricle.
c. Lungs.
d. Rest of the body.
c. Lungs
Where does blood go immediately after it leaves the left atrium?

a. Left ventricle.
b. Right atrium.
c. Rest of the body.
d. Lungs.
a. Left ventricle
Which blood vessels are the smallest, consisting of only a single layer of epithelial cells?

a. Arteries.
b. Bronchioles.
c. Capillaries.
d. Veins.
c. Capillaries
What is the medical term for a bulge in an artery caused by a weakening of the wall?

a. Varicose veins.
b. Hemorrhoids.
c. Arteriosclerosis.
d. Aneurysm.
d. Aneurysm
CK-MB, myoglobin, and troponin are all measured in tests that can be used to diagnose what condition?

a. Stroke.
b. Liver disease.
c. Congestive heart failure.
d. Myocardial infarction.
d. Myocardial infarction
The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are all located in which area?

a. Antecubital fossa of the arm.
b. Capillary beds of the hand.
c. Anterior surface of the hand.
d. Radial surface of the wrist.
a. Antecubital fossa of the arm
Plasma makes up approximately what percentage of whole blood in a healthy person?

a. 25%.
b. 55%.
c. 10%.
d. 90%.
b. 55%
How much water is found in plasma?

a. 90%.
b. 10%.
c. 55%.
d. 25%.
a. 90%
What substance is produced when blood is collected in a tube, allowed to clot, and then centrifuged?

a. Platelets.
b. Serum.
c. Plasma.
d. Antibodies.
b. Serum
Blood cells are formed in the bone marrow from the divisions of what long-lived progenitor cells?

a. Granulocytes.
b. Neutrophils.
c. Stem cells.
d. Phagocytes.
c. Stem cells
What is the another term for white blood cells (WBCs)?

a. Leukocytes.
b. Reticulocytes.
c. Erythrocytes.
d. Thrombocytes.
a. Leukocytes
What is another term for red blood cells (RBCs)?

a. Reticulocytes.
b. Leukocytes.
c. Thrombocytes.
d. Erythrocytes.
d. Erythrocytes
The formed elements constitute what portion of the blood volume?

a. 5%.
b. 45%.
c. 99%.
d. 75%.
b. 45%
Which cells attack and digest bacteria and are found in increased numbers in the presence of bacterial infection?

a. Monocytes.
b. Neutrophils.
c. Erythrocytes.
d. Lymphocytes.
b. Neutrophils
Which cells produce antibodies and are often found in increased numbers in the presence of viral infection?

a. Neutrophils.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Erythrocytes.
d. Monocytes.
b. Lymphocytes
Which formed elements of the blood play a role in blood coagulation?

a. Erythrocytes.
b. Leukocytes.
c. Platelets.
d. Reticulocytes.
c. Platelets
What is the process by which blood vessels repair after injury?

a. Thrombophlebitis.
b. Autoimmunity.
c. Inflammation.
d. Hemostasis.
d. Hemostasis
What is the enzyme that breaks down the fibrin in clots?

a. Pepsin.
b. Plasmin.
c. Trypsin.
d. Amylase.
b. Plasmin
Which of the following is an inherited disease that causes decreased blood clotting?

a. Leukemia.
b. Thrombocytopenia.
c. Hemophilia.
d. Anemia.
c. Hemophilia
What is the term for an increase in the total number of RBCs?

a. Anemia.
b. Thalassemia.
c. Leukemia.
d. Polycythemia.
d. Polycythemia
In what condition will one find an increased number of lymphocytes, in response to infection with the Epstein-Barr virus?

a. Thalassemia.
b. Leukemia.
c. Hemophilia.
d. Infectious mononucleosis.
d. Infectious mononucleosis
What cells are infected and destroyed in HIV infection?

a. Antigens.
b. Human leukocyte antigens.
c. Helper T cells.
d. Plasma cells.
c. Helper T cells
Lymph nodes, fluids, and vessels, along with associated organs, are all part of what system?

a. Respiratory.
b. Immune.
c. Circulatory.
d. Lymphatic.
d. Lymphatic
What is the term for the accumulation of interstitial fluid in tissues due to a blocked lymphatic vessel?

a. Lymphedema.
b. Lymphoma.
c. Lymphadenoma.
d. Lymphocytes.
a. Lymphedema
What is the term for an attack by the immune system on the body's own tissues?

a. Autoimmunity.
b. Immunity.
c. Immune deficiency.
d. Allergy.
a. Autoimmunity
A blood specimen collected in a gold top tube will produce which of the following after centrifuging?

a. Serum.
b. Anticoagulated blood.
c. Whole blood.
d. Plasma.
a. Serum
What is the first stage of hemostasis?

a. Fibrinolysis.
b. Vascular spasm.
c. Coagulation.
d. Vasodilation.
b. Vascular spasm
What is another term for "infection"?

a. Sepsis.
b. Antiseptic.
c. Disinfectant.
d. Bacteriostatic.
a. Sepsis
Which of the following is the most commonly used antiseptic for routine blood draws?

a. Isopropyl alcohol.
b. Betadine.
c. Zephiran chloride.
d. Bleach.
a. Isopropyl alcohol
Which of the following actions is the first that should be taken immediately after withdrawing the needle from the patient?

a. Apply pressure to the puncture site.
b. Place an adhesive bandage on the puncture site.
c. Wash your hands.
d. Take off the tourniquet.
a. Apply pressure to the puncture site
Which needle size is most commonly used for routine venipunctures?

a. 26 gauge.
b. 21 gauge.
c. 16 gauge.
d. 18 gauge.
b. 21 gauge
What is the term for the hollow tube inside a needle's shaft?

a. Hub.
b. Gauge.
c. Lumen.
d. Bevel.
c. Lumen
Which part of a needle attaches to the collecting tube or syringe?

a. Lumen.
b. Hub.
c. Bevel.
d. Gauge.
b. Hub
What does the term multisample needle mean?

a. The needle can be used more than once on different patients.
b. The needle has a retractable rubber sleeve that covers one end of the needle when a blood collecting tube is not attached.
c. The needle can be used more than once, as long as it is on the same patient.
d. The needle can be left in place in a vein to use in future collections.
b. The needle has a retractable rubber sleeve that covers one end of the needle when a blood collecting tube is not attached
Which of the following is the most common size of butterfly needle?

a. 23 gauge.
b. 16 gauge.
c. 18 gauge.
d. 26 gauge.
a. 23 gauge
The anticoagulant EDTA works by binding which substance needed for blood clotting?

a. Calcium.
b. Iron.
c. Potassium.
d. Magnesium.
a. Calcium
Which anticoagulant is used for coagulation studies?

a. EDTA.
b. Sodium citrate.
c. Heparin.
d. SPS.
b. Sodium citrate
Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas determinations?

a. SPS.
b. EDTA.
c. Sodium citrate.
d. Heparin.
d. Heparin
What color tube should be collected for a CBC?

a. Lavender.
b. Green.
c. Red.
d. Light blue.
a. Lavender
A tube containing thixotropic gel could be used to collect blood for which of the following tests?

a. Chemistry screen.
b. CBC.
c. Blood cultures.
d. Coagulation testing.
a. Chemistry screen
What color tube should be collected for coagulation studies?

a. Green.
b. Light blue.
c. Lavender.
d. Red.
b. Light blue
Which of the following tubes should be drawn first?

a. Light blue.
b. Green.
c. Lavender.
d. Red.
a. Light blue
Which of the following tubes should be drawn first?

a. Gray.
b. Green.
c. Lavender.
d. Red.
d. Red
Which of the following tubes should be drawn first?

a. Blood culture tubes.
b. Lavender.
c. Red.
d. Light blue.
a. Blood culture tubes
Which of the following is the only tube that does not need to be inverted to mix after drawing?

a. Red plastic.
b. Lavender.
c. Red glass.
d. Green.
c. Red glass.
For maximum effectiveness, an antiseptic should be left in contact with the skin for how long?

a. 2 minutes.
b. 5-15 seconds.
c. 30-60 seconds.
d. 15-30 seconds.
c. 30-60 seconds
What color vacuum tube should be drawn for trace metal analysis?

a. Royal blue.
b. Pink.
c. Yellow.
d. Red.
a. Royal blue
Shaking a tube rather than gently inverting it can have what effect on the blood?

a. Hematoma.
b. Hemolysis.
c. Hemoconcentration.
d. Hemostasis.
b. Hemolysis
Completely filling a light blue tube will maintain what ratio?

a. 4 parts blood and 6 parts sodium citrate.
b. 6 parts blood and 4 parts sodium citrate.
c. 1 part blood and 9 parts sodium citrate.
d. 9 parts blood and 1 part sodium citrate.
d. 9 parts blood and 1 part sodium citrate
What is the appropriate equipment selection when performing venipuncture on fragile, easy to collapse veins?

a. Winged infusion set.
b. Retractable lancet.
c. Needle and syringe set-up.
d. Multisample needle.
c. Needle and syringe set-up
Before drawing blood in an inpatient setting, information found on the requisition form should be matched against which of the following?

a. Information on the door of the patient's room.
b. The patient's chart.
c. Information obtained from the nurse.
d. The patient's wristband.
d. The patient's wristband
What is the single most important step of the blood collection procedure?

a. Selection of the proper tubes.
b. Appropriate vein selection.
c. Patient identification.
d. Application of the tourniquet.
c. Patient identification
At what angle should the venipuncture needle be inserted?

a. 15-30 degrees.
b. 60-75 degrees.
c. 30-45 degrees.
d. 45-60 degrees.
a. 15-30 degrees
In which of the following choices are the steps in the correct order?

a. Select equipment, identify patient, label tubes, collect specimen, stop bleeding.
b. Select equipment, identify patient, collect specimen, stop bleeding, label tubes.
c. Select equipment, label tubes, identify patient, collect specimen, stop bleeding.
d. Select equipment, collect specimen, identify patient, stop bleeding, label tubes.
b. Select equipment, identify patient, collect specimen, stop bleeding, label tubes
If the number on the requisition does not match the arm band, what should you do?

a. Collect the blood and then clear up the discrepancy with the patient's nurse.
b. Ask the patient to state his name, and, if it matches the requisition, draw the blood.
c. Contact the patient's nurse to attach a proper ID wristband to the patient.
d. Return to the laboratory and tell your supervisor.
c. Contact the patient's nurse to attach a proper ID wristband to the patient.
When you tell a patient that you need to draw blood, he says that he does not want to have his blood drawn. What is the appropriate action?

a. Explain the procedure and ask the patient if he will consent.
b. Call for help to restrain the patient, so you can get the specimen.
c. Tell the patient the doctor ordered it, so he must have it collected.
d. Keep trying to convince the patient to have his blood drawn.
a. Explain the procedure and ask the patient if he will consent.
How far from the puncture site should the tourniquet be placed?

a. 5-6 inches above the puncture site.
b. 3-4 inches above the puncture site.
c. 1-2 inches above the puncture site.
d. 1-2 inches below the puncture site.
b. 3-4 inches above the puncture site
What is the term for an increase in the ratio of formed elements to plasma?

a. Hemolysis.
b. Hematoma.
c. Hemoconcentration.
d. Petechiae.
c. Hemoconcentration
What is the term for the small red spots on the skin that are caused by a tightly tied tourniquet?

a. Hemolysis.
b. Hemoconcentration.
c. Petechiae.
d. Hematoma.
c. Petechiae
What is the term for destruction of red blood cells due to a tightly tied tourniquet?

a. Hemolysis.
b. Hematoma.
c. Petechiae.
d. Hemoconcentration.
a. Hemolysis
Hemoconcentration can occur in which of the following situations?

a. Pressure was not applied after withdrawal of the needle.
b. The tourniquet was removed before withdrawing the needle.
c. The tourniquet was left on for 2 minutes.
d. The tourniquet was too loose.
c. The tourniquet was left on for 2 minutes
While having a blood sample collected, the patient complains of pain and tingling in the fingers. What is the likely cause?

a. The tourniquet was placed too far from the collection site.
b. The tourniquet was removed too soon.
c. The tourniquet is too loose.
d. The tourniquet is too tight or has been on too long.
d. The tourniquet is too tight or has been on too long
Which of the following veins is the most common second choice when the median cubital vein is not appropriate for withdrawing a blood sample?

a. Radial vein.
b. Cephalic vein.
c. Jugular vein.
d. Basilic vein.
b. Cephalic vein
Which vein lies on top of the brachial artery?

a. Brachial.
b. Median cubital.
c. Basilic.
d. Cephalic.
c. Basilic
How should a needle be inserted for venipuncture?

a. Bevel down, in a smooth quick motion.
b. Bevel up, very slowly.
c. Bevel up, in a smooth quick motion.
d. Bevel down, slowly.
c. Bevel up, in a smooth quick motion
If the needle is withdrawn before the tourniquet is removed, what is likely to occur?

a. Petechiae.
b. Hematoma.
c. Hemolysis.
d. Hemoconcentration.
b. Hematoma
When should the tourniquet be removed?

a. After finding the vein to be used.
b. After removing the needle.
c. After all tubes have been filled.
d. While the first tube is filling.
d. While the first tube is filling
What is the term for a collection of blood under the skin at the site of a venipuncture?

a. Hemoconcentration.
b. Hemolysis.
c. Petechiae.
d. Hematoma.
d. Hematoma
How should bleeding be stopped at a venipuncture site?

a. Press on the site with gauze and then remove the needle.
b. Remove the needle and apply pressure to gauze over the site.
c. Have patient bend his or her arm back up over the puncture site to hold the gauze in place.
d. Immediately place an adhesive bandage on the site after withdrawal of the needle.
b. Remove the needle and apply pressure to gauze over the site
When should blood collection tubes be labeled?

a. At the patient's bedside, before taking the blood.
b. Before leaving the laboratory, to make sure there is a tube for every test requested on the requisition.
c. As soon as you return to the laboratory after collecting the blood.
d. At the patient's bedside, after taking the blood.
d. At the patient's bedside, after taking the blood
Which of the following is the next step after removing your gloves?

a. Label the tubes.
b. Wash your hands.
c. Thank the patient.
d. Leave the room.
b. Wash your hands
Which of the following steps should be taken with a syringe before using it to collect blood?

a. Coat the inside of the syringe with an anticoagulant.
b. Loosen the hub of the needle to allow air to be able to enter during collection.
c. Pull the plunger back to break the seal, then expel all the air.
d. Attach the syringe to a vacuum tube adapter.
c. Pull the plunger back to break the seal, then expel all the air
When using a syringe, how do you tell when you have entered a vein?

a. The blood will automatically fill the syringe.
b. A flash of blood will appear in the syringe hub.
c. The plunger will begin to move on its own.
d. You have to pull the syringe back to see whether any blood enters the syringe.
b. A flash of blood will appear in the syringe hub
How should blood be transferred from a syringe to a vacuum tube?

a. Remove the needle and attach a needless transfer device to the syringe.
b. Remove the needle and remove the tube stopper. Expel blood from the syringe into the tube.
c. Using the needle that was used to draw the blood, insert the needle into the stopper on the vacuum tube.
d. Put a cap on the syringe and transfer it to the laboratory instead of putting in a vacuum tube.
a. Remove the needle and attach a needless transfer device to the syringe
What is the abbreviation for the form that indicates a service may not be covered and requires a signature by Medicare patients?

a. ABN.
b. ABG.
c. CMS.
d. PHI.
a. ABN
Advance Beneficiary Notice of noncoverage may be required for what patient?

a. Uninsured.
b. Tricare.
c. Medicare.
d. Workers compensation.
c. Medicare
What is true in the event that Medicare rejects a reimbursement claim and an ABN was not signed by the patient?

a. The service will remain unpaid.
b. The institution can bill the patient.
c. The institution can ask the patient to sign an ABN.
d. The patient must send payment for the service to the insurance company.
a. The service will remain unpaid
Which of the following is the preferred collection site for laboratory testing of a patient at high risk for venous thrombosis?

a. Arterial sample.
b. Routine venipuncture of median cubital vein.
c. Dermal puncture.
d. Hand vein with butterfly needle and syringe.
c. Dermal puncture
What is the preferred method of blood collection in newborns and infants?

a. Arterial sample.
b. Routine venipuncture of median cubital vein.
c. Hand vein with butterfly needle and syringe.
d. Dermal puncture.
d. Dermal puncture
Which of the following tests cannot be collected using a dermal puncture?

a. CBC.
b. Glucose.
c. Sodium.
d. Blood cultures.
d. Blood cultures
Which of the following has higher levels in capillary blood than in venous blood?

a. Sodium.
b. Glucose.
c. Chloride.
d. Calcium.
b. Glucose
Which of the following has higher levels in venous blood than in capillary blood?

a. Calcium.
b. Glucose.
c. Chloride.
d. Sodium.
a. Calcium
How long should a heel warmer be applied to an infant's heel?

a. 3-5 minutes.
b. 10 minutes.
c. 30 seconds.
d. 1-3 minutes.
a. 3-5 minutes
Puncture of a bone during dermal puncture can result in what potentially serious and sometimes fatal bone infection?

a. Osteochondritis.
b. Osteomyelitis.
c. Osteomalacia.
d. Osteoporosis.
b. Osteomyelitis
What is the maximum acceptable depth for a heel puncture?

a. 2 mm.
b. 3 mm.
c. 4 mm.
d. 1 mm.
a. 2 mm
What is the maximum acceptable depth for a dermal puncture on an adult?

a. 2 mm.
b. 1 mm.
c. 4 mm.
d. 3 mm.
d. 3 mm
What is the recommended depth for a heel puncture on a premature infant?

a. 1.0-1.5 mm.
b. 2.5-3.0 mm.
c. 1.5-2.0 mm.
d. 0.65-0.85 mm.
d. 0.65-0.85 mm
Which of the following bones is close to the surface and at risk of being damaged during a heel puncture?

a. Tarsal.
b. Metatarsal.
c. Calcaneus.
d. Navicular.
c. Calcaneus
What is the maximum acceptable width for a dermal puncture?

a. 1.0 mm.
b. 0.5 mm.
c. 2.4 mm.
d. 4.0 mm.
c. 2.4 mm
Which of the following is the appropriate site for dermal puncture on an infant's foot?

a. Medial and lateral borders of plantar surface.
b. Rear part of the arch of the foot.
c. Center of the plantar surface.
d. Fatty part of the middle toe.
a. Medial and lateral borders of plantar surface
Which antiseptic may affect the results of tests for bilirubin, uric acid, potassium, and phosphorus from a dermal puncture and therefore should not be used on a dermal puncture?

a. Sodium chloride.
b. Isopropyl alcohol.
c. Chlorhexidine gluconate.
d. Povidone-iodine.
d. Povidone-iodine
Betadine may elevate results of which tests if used to clean the skin for a dermal puncture?

a. Glucose, BUN, creatinine, uric acid.
b. Bilirubin, uric acid, phosphorus, potassium.
c. Sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate.
d. Bilirubin, acid phosphatase, potassium, sodium.
b. Bilirubin, uric acid, phosphorus, potassium
Which of the following is an acceptable step during collection of blood by dermal puncture?

a. Keep the finger upright and collect as the blood flows downward.
b. Constantly massage near the site to keep the blood flowing.
c. Wipe away the first drop of blood with a dry, clean gauze pad.
d. Wipe away the first drop of blood with an alcohol pad.
c. Wipe away the first drop of blood with a dry, clean gauze pad
Which screening test measures the overall integrity of primary hemostasis?

a. APTT.
b. Bleeding time.
c. PT.
d. FDP.
b. Bleeding time
Which of the following over-the-counter medications is known to increase bleeding times?

a. Aspirin.
b. Tums.
c. Benadryl.
d. Tylenol.
a. Aspirin
Which of the following is the standard incision size for a bleeding time test?

a. 5.0 mm deep by 0.1 mm long.
b. 0.5 mm deep by 1.0 mm long.
c. 0.1 mm deep by 5.0 mm long.
d. 1.0 mm deep by 5.0 mm long.
d. 1.0 mm deep by 5.0 mm long
Which of the following would be interpreted as a normal bleeding time?

a. 1 minute.
b. 6 minutes.
c. 20 minutes.
d. 12 minutes.
b. 6 minutes
When performing a bleeding time test, to what pressure should the blood pressure cuff be inflated?

a. 40 mm Hg.
b. 100 mm Hg.
c. 10 mm Hg.
d. 70 mm Hg.
a. 40 mm Hg
What is the usual site for performing a standard bleeding time test?

a. Finger.
b. Earlobe.
c. Forearm, just below antecubital crease.
d. Forearm, just above the wrist.
c. Forearm, just below antecubital crease
Which of the following is a part of proper technique when performing a bleeding time test?

a. Start the timing after the first drop of blood forms on the incision.
b. Press the cutting device on the arm until the skin indents slightly.
c. Touch the incision with filter paper every 30 seconds to blot blood.
d. Record the time when blood is no longer absorbed by the filter paper.
d. Record the time when blood is no longer absorbed by the filter paper
At what intervals should blood be wicked with filter paper when performing a bleeding time test?

a. 30 seconds.
b. 45 seconds.
c. 60 seconds.
d. 15 seconds.
a. 30 seconds
What is another name for a dermal puncture?

a. Microspecimen.
b. Capillary stick.
c. Arterial stick.
d. Venipuncture.
b. Capillary stick
Drawing excessive amounts of blood from a patient puts them at risk for what type of anemia?

a. Iatrogenic.
b. Sickle cell.
c. Aplastic.
d. Pernicious.
a. Iatrogenic
For which of the following cases would a capillary puncture be contraindicated?

a. Obese patients.
b. Geriatric patients.
c. Severely dehydrated patients.
d. Patients at risk for venous thrombosis.
c. Severely dehydrated patients
For which of the following patients would a capillary puncture be preferred?

a. A patient requiring routine coagulation studies.
b. A patient requiring a blood culture.
c. A patient with compromised lymphatic drainage.
d. A patient requiring frequent blood tests.
d. A patient requiring frequent blood tests
The emergency department has requested that blood alcohol level be drawn on a patient. What is the proper way to obtain the specimen?

a. Call the laboratory to get a phlebotomist who is experienced in drawing from arteries.
b. Use alcohol to clean the site and perform a dermal puncture.
c. Clean the site with Betadine (povidone-iodine) and perform a routine venipuncture.
d. Clean the site with alcohol and perform a routine venipuncture.
c. Clean the site with Betadine (povidone-iodine) and perform a routine venipuncture
What is the medical term for fainting?

a. Syncope.
b. Hematoma.
c. Lymphostasis.
d. Emesis.
a. Syncope
What condition can be caused by the removal of lymphoid tissue as part of a mastectomy?

a. Anemia.
b. Syncope.
c. Lymphostasis.
d. Hemoconcentration.
c. Lymphostasis
When you are unable to locate a vein after thoroughly examining a patient's arm, what step should be taken next?

a. Decide to perform a dermal puncture.
b. Call the laboratory for a more experienced phlebotomist.
c. Examine the other arm for a vein.
d. Try to collect the sample even though you do not see or feel a vein.
c. Examine the other arm for a vein
A patient has a seizure while you are performing a venipuncture. What should you do?

a. Remove the tourniquet and needle immediately and call the nurse for help.
b. Finish collecting the specimen and then call the nurse for help.
c. Call the laboratory for help restraining the patient, so you can obtain the sample.
d. Ignore the seizure and continue the procedure as usual.
a. Remove the tourniquet and needle immediately and call the nurse for help
When collecting blood from a vein in the back of the hand, where should the tourniquet be placed?

a. No tourniquet is used.
b. Above the elbow as usual.
c. Just below the wrist.
d. Just above the wrist.
d. Just above the wrist
Which of the following tests is most seriously affected by hemolysis?

a. Potassium.
b. Chloride.
c. Creatine kinase (CK).
d. Glucose.
a. Potassium
Which of the following can cause hemolysis of a blood specimen?

a. Using a small-gauge needle and a large vacuum tube.
b. Not mixing the tubes that contain anticoagulant.
c. Using a needle with a larger gauge than necessary.
d. Using a syringe to draw the specimen.
a. Using a small-gauge needle and a large vacuum tube
During a prolonged hospitalization, a patient requiring many laboratory tests may develop what condition as a result of multiple blood samples being drawn?

a. Anemia.
b. Hemoconcentration.
c. Edema.
d. Reflux.
a. Anemia
Which of the following may cause a hematoma?

a. Using a needle of too-small gauge.
b. Using a needle of too-large gauge.
c. Going through the back side of the vein when inserting the needle.
d. Leaving the tourniquet on for longer than 1 minute.
c. Going through the back side of the vein when inserting the needle
Collections for which department require a special patient identification system in addition to the hospital ID bracelet?

a. Blood bank.
b. Coagulation.
c. Chemistry.
d. Hematology.
a. Blood bank
A large amount of bleeding into the tissues surrounding a puncture site (i.e., in a patient who takes anticoagulant medication) can cause what condition?

a. Nerve damage.
b. Compartment syndrome.
c. Infection.
d. Vein collapse.
b. Compartment syndrome
What is the maximum amount of time that a tourniquet can be left on?

a. 30 seconds.
b. 2 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 1 minute.
d. 1 minute
What is the term used to describe a vein that is hardened due to repeated venipunctures, chemotherapy, or disease?

a. Sclerosed.
b. Blocked.
c. Edematous.
d. Occluded.
a. Sclerosed
If an IV is in place and there are no other accessible sites, where should the blood specimen be collected?

a. From the IV port.
b. Above the IV.
c. Distal to the IV.
d. Proximal to the IV.
c. Distal to the IV
If the antecubital space is inaccessible when venipuncture is required, what is the next best site for specimen collection?

a. Jugular veins.
b. Dorsal veins.
c. Foot veins.
d. Leg veins.
b. Dorsal veins
If the bevel is stuck to the wall of the vein, what should be done?

a. Slightly rotate the needle.
b. Pull back on the needle.
c. Switch tubes.
d. Terminate the procedure.
a. Slightly rotate the needle
Which of the following veins should be avoided to reduce chances of nerve damage?

a. Cephalic.
b. Basilic.
c. Median cubital.
d. Dorsal.
b. Basilic
All of the following are reasons for specimen rejection except for what?

a. Incompletely filled tubes.
b. Mislabeled specimen.
c. Hemolysis.
d. Collection from the wrong vein.
d. Collection from the wrong vein
What is the approximate blood volume of an average 150-pound adult?

a. 5 liters.
b. 3 liters.
c. 10 liters.
d. 1 liter.
a. 5 liters
Removal of greater than what percentage of a child's blood volume can cause cardiac arrest?

a. 5%.
b. 25%.
c. 10%.
d. 1%.
c. 10%
Infants should not have greater than what percentage of their blood volume removed in a 24-hour period?

a. 10%.
b. 15%.
c. 5%.
d. 1%.
c. 5%
What is the maximum amount of a child's blood volume that may be removed over a 1-month period?

a. 20%.
b. 10%.
c. 5%.
d. 1%.
b. 10%
A full-term newborn has a blood volume of 80 mL/kg of body weight. The infant weighs 3.2 kg. Your institution's policy is that a maximum of 3% of a patient's blood volume may be withdrawn without specific physician orders. How much blood can safely be withdrawn from the infant?

a. 2.25 mL.
b. 10.41 mL.
c. 7.68 mL.
d. 4.76 mL.
c. 7.68 mL
What is the primary reason that blood collection for a child should be kept as calm and comfortable as possible?

a. So the child does not become afraid of medical personnel.
b. The parents might not let you collect the sample if the child is upset.
c. To reduce your work stress.
d. Prolonged crying can affect white blood cell counts and pH levels.
d. Prolonged crying can affect white blood cell counts and pH levels
Which of the following choices is inappropriate when collecting blood from a child?

a. Tell the child the procedure will not hurt.
b. Distract the child just before the stick.
c. Explain what you are doing in age-appropriate terms.
d. Give the child some choices such as which finger or which bandage to use.
a. Tell the child the procedure will not hurt
Adhesive bandages are not used on children younger than what age due to the danger of choking?

a. 2 months.
b. 2 years.
c. 6 years.
d. 6 months.
b. 2 years
What is the most commonly used anesthetic cream for venipuncture in pediatric patients?

a. APTT.
b. EMLA.
c. EDTA.
d. PSA.
b. EMLA
How is identification of a newborn established before collecting a specimen?

a. By checking the name on the bassinet.
b. By checking the infant's ID band.
c. By confirming the name with the mother.
d. By verifying the name with the nurse on duty.
b. By checking the infant's ID band
Bilirubin is produced from the breakdown of which of the following?

a. Platelets.
b. Red blood cells.
c. White blood cells.
d. Epithelial cells.
b. Red blood cells
What organ processes bilirubin to keep its level from becoming too high in the blood?

a. Pancreas.
b. Heart.
c. Liver.
d. Kidney.
c. Liver
What is the term for a buildup of bilirubin in the blood and skin?

a. Hematoma.
b. Jaundice.
c. Edema.
d. Anemia.
b. Jaundice
What special precaution must be taken with neonatal bilirubin samples?

a. The infant should be fasting.
b. The specimen should be protected from light.
c. The infant should not be crying.
d. Betadine (povidone-iodine) should be used instead of alcohol.
b. The specimen should be protected from light
What effect does hemolysis of the specimen have on bilirubin tests?

a. It decreases the bilirubin level.
b. It has no effect.
c. It increases the bilirubin level.
d. It interferes with the testing, so that no value can be obtained.
a. It decreases the bilirubin level
U.S. law requires states to test for a minimum of two inherited conditions. What are the two conditions?

a. Hypothyroidism and diabetes.
b. PKU and multiple sclerosis.
c. Hypothyroidism and PKU.
d. PKU and diabetes.
c. Hypothyroidism and PKU
Why must neonatal PKU testing be performed by heel stick rather than venipuncture?

a. Phenylalanine levels are different between veins and capillaries.
b. Plastic in the collection tubes interferes with testing.
c. Metal in the needle interferes with testing.
d. Dermal puncture is easier.
a. Phenylalanine levels are different between veins and capillaries
How are neonatal screening samples usually collected?

a. By routine venipuncture into a vacuum tube.
b. By dermal puncture absorbed onto filter paper.
c. By venipuncture with butterfly needle and syringe.
d. By dermal puncture into a microtainer.
b. By dermal puncture absorbed onto filter paper
If a venipuncture is required on a child younger than 2, what is the preferred site for a phlebotomist using a butterfly needle to collect the sample?

a. Median cubital vein.
b. Cephalic vein.
c. Dorsal hand vein.
d. Scalp vein.
c. Dorsal hand vein
In the geriatric patient, what body change may have the most impact on the safety and effectiveness of venipunctures?

a. Arthritis.
b. Diabetes.
c. Stroke.
d. Less collagen in the skin.
d. Less collagen in the skin
What is the best way to identify a geriatric patient named Jane Doe?

a. Match the ID card on the door with Jane Doe's requisition.
b. Match Jane Doe's ID bracelet with Jane Doe's requisition.
c. Ask if she is Jane Doe.
d. Ask the nurse if this is Jane Doe.
b. Match Jane Doe's ID bracelet with Jane Doe's requisition
How should the tourniquet be applied to a geriatric patient?

a. No tourniquet should be used on the geriatric patient.
b. Tighter than usual.
c. The same as usual.
d. Looser than usual.
d. Looser than usual
How long should pressure be applied to the venipuncture site of a geriatric patient?

a. Less time than usual.
b. The same amount of time as usual.
c. No pressure should be applied.
d. More time than usual.
d. More time than usual
Which of the following is the most common type of vascular access device?

a. PICC.
b. Implanted port.
c. Central venous line.
d. Arterial line.
c. Central venous line
Which of the following is used for dialysis patients to connect to the dialysis machine?

a. PICC.
b. Arteriovenous (AV) shunt.
c. Heparin lock.
d. Central venous line.
b. Arteriovenous (AV) shunt
If a patient has an IV drip in one arm, what is the preferred site for venipuncture?

a. Above the IV site.
b. Arterial collection.
c. Below the IV site.
d. The opposite arm.
d. The opposite arm
Only specially trained individuals are permitted to collect from which of the following?

a. Teenagers.
b. Vascular access devices.
c. Geriatric patients.
d. Mentally ill patients.
b. Vascular access devices
What does the term jaundice mean?

a. Swelling.
b. Infection.
c. Bruising.
d. Yellow color.
d. Yellow color
If a patient appears jaundiced, which test may be requested to confirm the condition?

a. Glucose.
b. Bilirubin.
c. CBC.
d. PTT.
b. Bilirubin
How long should the heel of a neonate be warmed prior to a heel stick?

a. 8-10 minutes.
b. 3-5 minutes.
c. 1-2 minutes.
d. 30-45 seconds.
b. 3-5 minutes
All of the following are examples of LTC facilities except what?

a. Nursing home.
b. Assisted living.
c. Rehabilitation facility.
d. Adult daycare.
d. Adult daycare
What is the purpose of an AV shunt?

a. Phlebotomy.
b. Dialysis.
c. Angioplasty.
d. Medication instillation.
b. Dialysis
What is the required specimen amount when collecting a blood culture on an infant?

a. 8-10 mL.
b. .1-.5 mL.
c. .8-1 mL.
d. 1-5 mL.
d. 1-5 mL
Which artery is most commonly used for arterial blood gas collection?

a. Femoral.
b. Radial.
c. Ulnar.
d. Brachial.
b. Radial
What is the normal pH of blood?

a. 7.55-7.65.
b. 6.80-6.90.
c. 7.20-7.30.
d. 7.35-7.45.
d. 7.35-7.45
Which pH value indicates acidosis?

a. 7.40.
b. 7.48.
c. 7.36.
d. 7.25.
d. 7.25
Which pH value indicates alkalosis?

a. 7.49.
b. 7.33.
c. 7.25.
d. 7.42.
a. 7.49
Which blood parameter measures the acidity or alkalinity of the blood?

a. PO2.
b. pH.
c. O2 saturation.
d. PCO2.
b. pH
Which blood parameter measures the amount of oxygen in the blood?

a. O2 saturation.
b. PCO2.
c. pH.
d. PO2.
d. PO2
Which blood parameter is a measure of carbon dioxide levels in the blood?

a. O2 saturation.
b. pH.
c. PCO2.
d. PO2.
c. PCO2
What parameter is a measure of the percent of oxygen bound to hemoglobin?

a. O2 saturation.
b. PO2.
c. pH.
d. PCO2.
a. O2 saturation
Which test measures the level of bicarbonate in the blood?

a. H2CO3.
b. PCO2.
c. HCO3-.
d. CO2.
c. HCO3-
Which anticoagulant is used for arterial blood gas collections?

a. Heparin.
b. Oxalate.
c. Citrate.
d. EDTA.
a. Heparin
Where is the tourniquet placed for arterial blood gas collection?

a. 2 inches above the puncture site.
b. 2 inches below the puncture site.
c. No tourniquet is used.
d. Just above the elbow.
c. No tourniquet is used
Where is the radial artery located?

a. Thumb side of the wrist.
b. Pinkie finger side of the wrist.
c. In the center of the bend of the elbow.
d. Inner portion of the thigh.
a. Thumb side of the wrist
Which artery has the best collateral circulation?

a. Femoral.
b. Radial.
c. Ulnar.
d. Brachial.
b. Radial
What test is most commonly used to assess the collateral circulation of the radial artery?

a. Modified Allen test.
b. Modified Brown test.
c. Modified Jones test.
d. Modified Smith test.
a. Modified Allen test
Which of the following possible complications of arterial puncture can close the artery, thereby preventing oxygen from reaching tissues?

a. Arteriospasm.
b. Infection.
c. Hematoma.
d. Thrombosis.
a. Arteriospasm
Which of the following arterial sampling errors lowers pH values?

a. Too much heparin.
b. Air bubbles in syringe.
c. Too little heparin.
d. Insufficient mixing.
a. Too much heparin
A blood gas specimen that is not iced must be transported to the laboratory within what time frame?

a. 1 hour.
b. 15-30 minutes.
c. 1-3 minutes.
d. 5-10 minutes.
d. 5-10 minutes
A blood gas sample on ice cannot be used to test for what analyte due to the effect of lower temperature on the sample?

a. Calcium.
b. Sodium.
c. Potassium.
d. Glucose.
c. Potassium
Capillary blood gas specimens are collected in heparinized glass pipettes, and they are mixed using a magnet and what other metal device?

a. Insect.
b. Flea.
c. Mosquito.
d. Bug.
b. Flea
For an arterial puncture, at what angle should the needle be inserted into the skin?

a. 15-30 degrees.
b. 45-60 degrees.
c. 60-75 degrees.
d. 85-90 degrees.
b. 45-60 degrees
What is the minimum amount of time that a phlebotomist should hold pressure on an arterial puncture site?

a. 5 minutes.
b. 10 minutes.
c. 2 minutes.
d. No pressure is needed.
a. 5 minutes
How should an arterial blood gas sample in a syringe be mixed?

a. With a magnet and a flea.
b. By shaking the syringe vigorously.
c. No mixing is necessary.
d. By rolling between the fingers and thumb.
d. By rolling between the fingers and thumb
What is used to clean the site of an arterial blood draw?

a. Alcohol or providone-iodine.
b. Chlorhexidine.
c. Alcohol and providone-iodine.
d. Soap and water.
c. Alcohol and providone-iodine
What is the recommended needle gauge for an arterial puncture?

a. 27 g.
b. 21 g.
c. 18 g.
d. 25 g.
b. 21 g
All of the following are possible complications of an arterial puncture except for what?

a. Hematoma.
b. Thrombosis.
c. Hemorrhage.
d. Petechia.
d. Petechia
How many times should tubes with additives be inverted after collection?

a. 5-10.
b. None.
c. 1-5.
d. 10-15.
a. 5-10
Whole blood specimens collected in EDTA are stable for how long?

a. 1 hour.
b. 48 hours.
c. 12 hours.
d. 24 hours.
d. 24 hours
Which of the following problems with a blood sample may be caused by extremes of temperature?

a. Clotting.
b. Hemoconcentration.
c. Glycolysis.
d. Hemolysis.
d. Hemolysis
A small centrifuge head has 12 spots (holes) labeled in a manner similar to a clock face. There are three tubes of equal volume that need to be centrifuged. In which of the following choices for tube placement would the centrifuge be balanced?

a. 1, 3, 8.
b. 1, 5, 9.
c. 1, 2, 3.
d. 1, 4, 7.
b. 1, 5, 9
What is the major safety risk in removing stoppers from blood collection tubes?

a. Aliquots.
b. Breaking the tube.
c. Aerosols.
d. Needle puncture.
c. Aerosols
Before dividing a 24-hour urine sample into aliquots, what must be done with the sample?

a. Add anticoagulant to the container.
b. Place it in the refrigerator for 1 hour.
c. Mix it, then divide into aliquots as needed.
d. Measure and record the volume of the sample.
d. Measure and record the volume of the sample
What notation is used to indicate that the sample volume is insufficient for testing?

a. EDTA.
b. VIS.
c. IFT.
d. QNS.
d. QNS
Which of the following tubes can be centrifuged immediately after collection?

a. SST tube.
b. Thrombin tube.
c. Plain tube.
d. Heparin tube.
d. Heparin tube
What regulations must be adhered to when samples are being transported from an outside laboratory?

a. Local and state.
b. State and national.
c. State and federal.
d. Facility and state.
c. State and federal
What specimen would not meet requirements and is likely to be rejected from the laboratory?

a. Specimen for cold agglutinin testing maintained in a warm environment.
b. A urine specimen for C&S collected in a clean container.
c. Sending a light blue tube with 1 part additive and 9 parts blood.
d. Collecting a CBC in an EDTA tube.
b. A urine specimen for C&S collected in a clean container
Which of the following types of law is created by a legislative body?

a. Case law.
b. Public law.
c. Statutory law.
d. Administrative law.
c. Statutory law
Which of the following types of law is determined by court decisions through interpretation of existing law?

a. Public law.
b. Statutory law.
c. Administrative law.
d. Case law.
d. Case law
Which of the following types of law is created by an agency through written regulations?

a. Administrative law.
b. Case law.
c. Statutory law.
d. Public law.
a. Administrative law
The violation of which type of law leads to a criminal action?

a. Private law.
b. Civil law.
c. Public law.
d. Tort law.
c. Public law
An unjustifiable attempt to touch another person can lead to what charge?

a. Assault.
b. Tort.
c. Civil action.
d. Battery.
a. Assault
The intentional touching of another person without consent can lead to what charge?

a. Tort.
b. Assault.
c. Civil action.
d. Battery.
d. Battery
A violation of a private law may lead to which of the following?

a. Battery.
b. Assault.
c. Criminal action.
d. Civil action.
d. Civil action
Which of the following is the term for an injury to one person for which another person, who caused the injury, is legally responsible?

a. Battery.
b. Criminal action.
c. Assault.
d. Tort.
d. Tort
Which of the following is the legal basis for most medical malpractice cases?

a. Unintentional tort.
b. Battery.
c. Assault.
d. Intentional tort.
a. Unintentional tort
Which of the following is the legal term for a person claiming to have been harmed?

a. Defendant.
b. Plaintiff.
c. Victim.
d. Felon.
b. Plaintiff
What does the term "liable" mean?

a. Properly trained for.
b. Assigned to an individual.
c. Likely to take.
d. Legally responsible.
d. Legally responsible
Which of the following terms refers to the agreement of medical opinion on appropriate patient care in a given situation?

a. Correct care.
b. Best care available.
c. Accepted standard of care.
d. Consensus care.
c. Accepted standard of care
Which of the following terms represents the failure to perform an action that is consistent with the accepted standard of care?

a. Negligence.
b. Dereliction.
c. Liability.
d. Assault.
a. Negligence
What is the legal term for the delivery of substandard care that results in harm to a patient?

a. Liability.
b. Malpractice.
c. Duty.
d. Damages.
b. Malpractice
When drawing blood, the usual standard of care is to perform a maximum of how many unsuccessful punctures before calling for assistance?

a. One.
b. Two.
c. Five.
d. Three.
b. Two
In addition to good practice, what is one of the most important defenses against malpractice?

a. Witnesses.
b. A good lawyer.
c. Proper training.
d. Clear, complete medical records.
d. Clear, complete medical records
Which of the following is a violation of PHI (protected health information), as provided by HIPAA?

a. Asking patients whether they take anticoagulants.
b. Requiring written consent to release medical records.
c. Discussing a patient's results with another laboratory worker in the cafeteria.
d. Discussing information concerning a patient with the patient's nurse.
c. Discussing a patient's results with another laboratory worker in the cafeteria
What is the term for medical information that is linked to a specific patient?

a. Confidential health information.
b. Private information.
c. Potable health information.
d. Protected health information.
d. Protected health information
Who created the Patient Care Partnership?

a. Center for Disease Control.
b. American Hospital Association.
c. Joint Commission.
d. OSHA.
b. American Hospital Association
What is the term given to the period of time allowed to file a civil action?

a. File time.
b. Duration of action.
c. Statute of limitations.
d. Allotted law time.
c. Statute of limitations
After 12 hours of fasting and abstention from strenuous exercise, the body is said to be in what state?

a. Diurnal.
b. Resting.
c. Basal.
d. Peak.
c. Basal
Timed specimens are most likely to be requested for which of the following?

a. Creatinine.
b. Albumin.
c. Digoxin.
d. Bilirubin.
c. Digoxin
A test requisition lists the glucose specimen to be collected as a 2-hour postprandial. When should it be collected?

a. Two hours after the patient eats.
b. After the patient has fasted for 2 hours.
c. Two hours after the patient exercises vigorously.
d. Two hours after the patient takes diabetes medication.
a. Two hours after the patient eats
What does the term "hyperglycemia" mean?

a. Increased blood glucose.
b. Increased blood glucagon.
c. Decreased blood glucose.
d. Decreased blood glucagon.
a. Increased blood glucose.
Which test is used to diagnose hypoglycemia?

a. 3 hour oral GTT.
b. 1 hour oral GTT.
c. 2 hour pp (postprandial) glucose.
d. 5 hour oral GTT.
d. 5 hour oral GTT
What test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes?

a. 3 hour oral GTT.
b. 5 hour oral GTT.
c. 1 hour oral GTT.
d. 2 hour pp glucose.
c. 1 hour oral GTT
How is 2:30 PM expressed in military time?

a. 1230.
b. 2300.
c. 1430.
d. 0230.
c. 1430
When does the timing of an oral glucose tolerance test begin?

a. After the patient has finished drinking the glucose solution.
b. When the patient is given the glucose solution.
c. When the fasting blood is collected.
d. When the fasting urine is collected.
a. After the patient has finished drinking the glucose solution
During an oral GTT, what is the patient allowed to consume?

a. Water, black coffee, or diet cola.
b. Anything sugar-free.
c. Water only.
d. Nothing.
c. Water only
In an oral GTT, how much time may the patient take to drink the glucose solution?

a. 10 minutes.
b. 1 minute.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 15 minutes.
c. 5 minutes
Which of the following shows significant diurnal variation?

a. Uric acid.
b. Cortisol.
c. Hemoglobin.
d. Potassium.
b. Cortisol
Which of the following is a therapeutic drug that might be measured?

a. Albumin.
b. Hemoglobin.
c. Dilantin.
d. Sodium.
c. Dilantin
Which of the following therapeutic drugs is typically drawn in timed pairs known as peaks and troughs?

a. Vancomycin.
b. Theophylline.
c. Heparin.
d. Digoxin.
a. Vancomycin
For some therapeutic drugs with short half-lives, one of the specimens is drawn just before the next dose of medication. What is this specimen called?

a. Normal.
b. Trough.
c. Peak.
d. Basal.
b. Trough
What does the abbreviation FUO mean?

a. Fluid of umbilical origin.
b. Fever of unknown origin.
c. Fibrin ulnar obstruction.
d. Free unsaturated oxygen.
b. Fever of unknown origin
What is the most important factor in preventing contamination of a blood culture?

a. Timing of the collection.
b. Aseptic collection technique.
c. Collection from multiple sites.
d. Size of the needle.
b. Aseptic collection technique
What does the term anaerobic mean?

a. Without bubbles.
b. Without oxygen.
c. A bacterial pathogen.
d. Must have oxygen.
b. Without oxygen
What organizations set guidelines for blood donor collection procedures for blood banks?

a. AABB and AMA.
b. OSHA and FDA.
c. AABB and FDA.
d. ABA and OSHA.
c. AABB and FDA
Which of the following is true about blood donor screening?

a. It consists of just a medical history.
b. It can be omitted if the donor has donated regularly.
c. It can be shortened if the donor has donated before.
d. It must be performed every time a person donates blood.
d. It must be performed every time a person donates blood
What is the approximate volume of a unit of donor blood?

a. 750 mL.
b. 1 L.
c. 250 mL.
d. 450 mL.
d. 450 mL
Which of the following needle gauges would be appropriate for drawing a donor unit?

a. 25.
b. 22.
c. 20.
d. 16.
d. 16
For blood donor collection, the venipuncture site is first cleaned with soap and water. What is the second cleaning agent used on the site?

a. Alcohol.
b. Zephiran chloride.
c. Hibiclens.
d. Iodine.
d. Iodine
What is the term for a blood donation that is intended to be used later on the donor?

a. Directed donation.
b. Therapeutic donation.
c. Autologous donation.
d. Preprocedure donation.
c. Autologous donation
Which of the following conditions might be treated with a therapeutic phlebotomy?

a. Thalassemia.
b. Toxoplasmosis.
c. Hemochromatosis.
d. Hemophilia.
c. Hemochromatosis
Which of the following conditions might be treated with a therapeutic phlebotomy?

a. Thyrotoxicosis.
b. Anemia.
c. Bacteremia.
d. Polycythemia.
d. Polycythemia
What is the common name for antibodies formed in response to an infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

a. Cryoglobulin.
b. Autoantibody.
c. Cryofibrinogen.
d. Cold agglutinins.
d. Cold agglutinins
For which test does a blood sample need to be collected in a prewarmed tube and kept at body temperature until delivered to the laboratory?

a. Cold agglutinins.
b. Cryoglobulin.
c. Warm agglutinins.
d. Cryofibrinogen.
a. Cold agglutinins
Which test requires the blood sample to be chilled immediately after collection and delivered to the laboratory on ice?

a. Vitamin A.
b. Cold agglutinins.
c. Ammonia.
d. Bilirubin.
c. Ammonia
Which test requires the blood sample to be protected from light?

a. Bilirubin.
b. Ammonia.
c. Arterial blood gases.
d. Lactic acid.
a. Bilirubin
What is the most important concept in handling forensic blood specimens?

a. Having someone witness the blood collection.
b. Patient consent.
c. Collecting urine to compare to the blood.
d. Chain of custody.
d. Chain of custody
What agency has established standard requirements for handling forensic samples?

a. American Medical Association.
b. American Bar Association.
c. National Institute on Drug Abuse.
d. FDA.
c. National Institute on Drug Abuse
When preparing blood smears at what degree should the spreader slide be?

a. 10-15 degrees.
b. 60-65 degrees.
c. 25-30 degrees.
d. 40-45 degrees.
c. 25-30 degrees
Malaria is diagnosed with regular smears and a thick smear. How is a thick smear prepared?

a. Prepare a thin smear, allow it to dry, then prepare another smear directly on top the first one.
b. With a syringe and needle, completely cover half the slide with blood.
c. Use a larger drop of blood than a thin smear and spread the drop to the size of a dime.
d. The same way as a thin smear but with a bigger drop of blood.
c. Use a larger drop of blood than a thin smear and spread the drop to the size of a dime
Upon making a regular blood smear, there are many little holes on the smear. What is the most likely cause?

a. Wrong angle of spreader smear.
b. Drop of blood too small.
c. Dirty slide.
d. Drop of blood too large.
c. Dirty slide
Most specimens collected for therapeutic drug monitoring are collected in a tube with what color stopper?

a. Blue.
b. Tiger.
c. Lavender.
d. Red.
d. Red
Use of what blood culture collection method would require you to draw the aerobic tube before the anaerobic tube?

a. Butterfly collection.
b. Syringe collection.
c. Multisample needle collection.
d. Capillary collection.
a. Butterfly collection
The time it takes for half of the drug to be metabolized is referred to as what?

a. Peak level.
b. Trough level.
c. Therapeutic time.
d. Half-life.
d. Half-life
How is the site prepared for a blood donor collection?

a. Only soap and water.
b. Only alcohol.
c. Soap and water than iodine.
d. Soap and water than alcohol.
c. Soap and water than iodine
What happens when a patient with cold agglutinins body temperature falls?

a. The agglutinins attach to WBCs.
b. The agglutinins attach to platelets.
c. The antibodies die.
d. The agglutinins attach to RBCs.
d. The agglutinins attach to RBCs
When implementing Chain of Custody protocols, when does the chain begin?

a. When the reference laboratory receives the specimen.
b. When the specimen is collected.
c. When the courier picks the specimen up from the office.
d. When the patient is identified.
d. When the patient is identified
All of the following can alter lactic acid levels except what?

a. Maintaining the collected specimen at room temperature.
b. The patient making a fist during collection.
c. Chilling the specimen after collection.
d. Using a tourniquet during collection.
c. Chilling the specimen after collection
Which of the following requires a sample of feces?

a. O&P.
b. CSF.
c. NP.
d. C&S.
a. O&P
Which organ of the body creates urine?

a. Bladder.
b. Liver.
c. Pancreas.
d. Kidney.
d. Kidney
How soon after collection must a urine sample be delivered to the laboratory?

a. Within 24 hours.
b. Within 5 minutes.
c. Within 1 hour.
d. Within 30 minutes.
c. Within 1 hour
What type of urine collection is commonly used for routine testing of metabolic abnormalities?

a. Random.
b. Times.
c. Catheterized.
d. First morning.
a. Random
What type of urine collection is best for pregnancy tests?

a. First morning.
b. Timed.
c. Random.
d. Catheterized.
a. First morning
The most common timed urine collection is done over what time period?

a. 1 hour.
b. 24 hours.
c. 4 hours.
d. 1 week.
b. 24 hours
Which of the following is the proper way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen, beginning at 9 AM Thursday?

a. Collect and keep the 0900 Thursday urine and all the urine samples for 24 hours, and discard the 0900 Friday specimen.
b. Collect and keep the 0900 Thursday urine and all the urine samples for 24 hours, and keep the 0900 Friday specimen.
c. Collect and discard the Thursday 0900 urine. Collect and keep all urine samples for 24 hours, and discard the 0900 Friday specimen.
d. Collect and discard the first specimen (0900 Thursday). Collect and keep all the samples until 0900 Friday. At 0900 Friday, collect and keep the last sample.
d. Collect and discard the first specimen (0900 Thursday). Collect and keep all the samples until 0900 Friday. At 0900 Friday, collect and keep the last sample.
What collection technique is most often used to collect a urine sample for a urine culture?

a. First morning.
b. Clean catch.
c. Timed.
d. Random.
b. Clean catch
What urine collection technique requires a nurse or trained patient care assistant to collect the specimen?

a. Catheterized.
b. Suprapubic.
c. First morning.
d. Clean catch.
a. Catheterized
What urine collection technique requires a physician to collect the specimen?

a. Suprapubic.
b. Catheterized.
c. First morning.
d. Clean catch.
a. Suprapubic
What type of urine testing usually requires a temperature-sensitive strip on the outside of the container?

a. Routine.
b. C&S.
c. Pregnancy test.
d. Drug test.
d. Drug test
What type of fecal testing is used to screen for colorectal cancer?

a. Culture.
b. Occult blood.
c. Fecal fat.
d. O&P.
b. Occult blood
What type of fecal testing is used to detect diarrhea-causing bacterial diseases such as Salmonella?

a. Occult blood.
b. Culture.
c. Fecal fat.
d. O&P.
b. Culture
What type of fecal testing is used to detect the amoeba Giardia?

a. Culture.
b. O&P.
c. Occult blood.
d. Fat.
b. O&P
Patients must be instructed to abstain from ingesting meat and the drugs aspirin and vitamin C for 3 days for some brands of what type of fecal testing?

a. Occult blood.
b. Culture.
c. O&P.
d. Fat.
a. Occult blood
A 72-hour stool specimen is a rarely collected test that may be used for what type of fecal testing?

a. Occult blood.
b. Fat.
c. Culture.
d. O&P.
b. Fat
What specimen sample is used to check the success of vasectomy procedures?

a. Urine.
b. Saliva.
c. Semen.
d. Blood.
c. Semen
Which of the following is an acceptable specimen for semen analysis?

a. A sample collected in a condom at the health care facility.
b. A urine sample collected in a sterile container immediately after ejaculation.
c. A sample collected in a sterile container at home and immediately delivered to the laboratory.
d. A sample collected in a sterile container at home and refrigerated during transport.
c. A sample collected in a sterile container at home and immediately delivered to the laboratory
What is the minimum period that a man should be instructed to wait after the last ejaculation before collecting a semen sample for analysis?

a. 12 hours.
b. 1 week.
c. 1 day.
d. 3 days.
d. 3 days
What type of specimen is needed for a rapid strep test?

a. Blood.
b. Urine.
c. Sputum.
d. Throat swab.
d. Throat swab
The sweat electrolyte test is used in the diagnosis of what condition?

a. Cholecystitis.
b. Chloride deficit.
c. Cystitis.
d. Cystic fibrosis.
d. Cystic fibrosis
What is the procedure that induces sweating via application of a weak electric current?

a. Pericarditis.
b. Ascites.
c. Electrophoresis.
d. Iontophoresis.
d. Iontophoresis
What drug is used to increase sweating for sweat collection studies?

a. Lidocaine.
b. Trypsin.
c. Pilocarpine.
d. Aspirin.
c. Pilocarpine
What type of specimen is tested in the diagnosis of meningitis?

a. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
b. Synovial fluid.
c. Amniotic fluid.
d. Pleural fluid.
a. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Which type of fluid collection requires a physician?

a. Sweat.
b. CSF.
c. Nasopharyngeal (NP) swab.
d. Semen.
b. CSF
An amniotic fluid specimen must be protected from which of the following?

a. Moisture.
b. Air.
c. Light.
d. Heat.
c. Light
Amniotic fluid can be analyzed to detect the presence of what genetic chromosomal abnormality in the fetus?

a. Ascites.
b. Diabetes.
c. Cleft palate.
d. Down syndrome.
d. Down syndrome
What specimen is collected to diagnose whooping cough and croup?

a. Urine.
b. Throat swab.
c. CSF.
d. NP swab.
d. NP swab
When 4 tubes are collected for cerebrospinal fluid testing what is the last tube used for?

a. Protein and glucose analysis.
b. Cell count.
c. Repeat analysis.
d. Gram stain and culture.
c. Repeat analysis
How is a CSF specimen collected?

a. Capillary puncture.
b. Venipuncture.
c. Lumbar puncture.
d. Arterial puncture.
c. Lumbar puncture
What urine specimen tends to be the most concentrated?

a. Random sample.
b. Clean catch midstream.
c. Catheter specimen.
d. First morning collection.
d. First morning collection
What is another name for point-of-care testing (POCT)?

a. FDA testing.
b. CLIA testing.
c. Alternate site testing.
d. Reference site testing.
c. Alternate site testing
Which of the following agencies decides whether a given test is a CLIA-waived test?

a. CLIA.
b. AMA.
c. FDA.
d. OSHA.
c. FDA
Which of the following procedures is important when drawing blood at a patient's home and is not necessary in a hospital building?

a. Carry a cell phone for emergencies.
b. Be sure the patient is sitting or reclining in a safe position.
c. Make sure the patient has stopped bleeding before leaving.
d. Ensure that the materials used during the procedure are properly removed and disposed of.
a. Carry a cell phone for emergencies
A simple, fast method of anemia testing measures which of the following with a portable instrument of dipstick?

a. ACT.
b. Hemoglobin.
c. Cholesterol.
d. PTT.
b. Hemoglobin
Which of the following types of therapy is monitored by the activated clotting time (ACT) test?

a. Insulin.
b. Aspirin.
c. Heparin.
d. Warfarin.
c. Heparin
Coumadin (warfarin) therapy can be monitored using which of the following tests?

a. APTT.
b. ACT.
c. Potassium.
d. PT.
d. PT
What is the most common chemistry test performed via POCT?

a. CBC.
b. Sodium.
c. Glucose.
d. Potassium.
c. Glucose
Blood levels of which of the following analytes rise within 4 hours after an acute myocardial infarction?

a. PTT.
b. Cardiac troponins.
c. BNP.
d. Cholesterol.
b. Cardiac troponins
Blood levels of which of the following analytes are increased in congestive heart failure?

a. Cardiac troponin.
b. BNP.
c. APTT.
d. PT.
b. BNP
Which of the following is a recording of the electrical activity of the heart?

a. BNP.
b. ECG.
c. Cardiac troponin.
d. PTT.
b. ECG
A normal electrocardiogram (ECG) consists of a tracing of five prominent points, which are identified in what manner?

a. A B C D E.
b. V W X Y Z.
c. J K L M N.
d. P Q R S T.
d. P Q R S T
A complete heartbeat, consisting of depolarization and repolarization, is also known as which of the following?

a. Conduction cycle.
b. P-wave cycle.
c. Sinoatrial cycle.
d. Cardiac cycle.
d. Cardiac cycle
Most ECGs place how many electrodes on the body?

a. 4.
b. 8.
c. 10.
d. 16.
c. 10
Which of the following is a POCT used to screen for colon cancer and gastric ulcers?

a. BNP.
b. Occult blood.
c. Cardiac troponin T.
d. PTT.
b. Occult blood
Which type of sample is used for an occult blood test?

a. Throat swab.
b. Urine.
c. Blood.
d. Feces.
d. Feces
Which group of Streptococcus bacteria is detected by the rapid strep test?

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
a. A
The detection of HCG in a patient sample is useful in the diagnosis of what condition?

a. Heart attack.
b. Anemia.
c. Pregnancy.
d. Kidney disease.
c. Pregnancy
Before urinalysis testing, a urine specimen needs to be in which of the following states?

a. Centrifuged and at room temperature.
b. At body temperature and well-mixed.
c. Filtered and at refrigerator temperature.
d. At room temperature and well-mixed.
d. At room temperature and well-mixed
What is a laboratory values that is well outside of the designated range called?

a. High range value.
b. Panic value.
c. Low range value.
d. Bad value.
b. Panic value
What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a. Atrioventricular node.
b. Sinoatrial node.
c. Bundle of His.
d. Purkinje fibers.
b. Sinoatrial node
What portion of the ECG depicts ventricular depolarization?

a. T wave.
b. P wave.
c. QRS complex.
d. ST segment.
c. QRS complex
Bedside glucose testing is usually performed on patients with what condition?

a. Kidney failure.
b. Liver disease.
c. Diabetes.
d. Hemophilia.
c. Diabetes
According to CLIA, what is the classification of tests in which the procedure is simple and erroneous results are unlikely?

a. Low level.
b. Waived level.
c. High complexity.
d. Moderate complexity.
b. Waived level
What type of medication is Aspirin?

a. Antianxiety.
b. Antidiuretic.
c. Antiplatelet.
d. Antidiarrhea.
c. Antiplatelet
Which of the following is a bacteria found in the stomach that can cause ulcers?

a. H. pylori.
b. RSV.
c. EBV.
d. Mononucleosis.
a. H. pylori
Which of the following organizations mandates quality assurance programs?

a. Joint Commission.
b. OSHA.
c. ASCP.
d. AMA.
a. Joint Commission
Which of the following refers to the quantitative methods used to monitor the quality of procedures to ensure accurate test results?

a. CQI.
b. QC.
c. TQM.
d. QA.
b. QC
Which of the following represents the major goal of total quality management (TQM) programs?

a. QP.
b. QA.
c. CQI.
d. QC.
c. CQI
Which of the following stands for the larger set of methods used to guarantee quality patient care, including patient preparation and specimen collection and transport protocols?

a. QA.
b. TQM.
c. CQI.
d. QC.
a. QA
Which of the following refers to the entire set of approaches used by the institution to provide patient satisfaction?

a. TQM.
b. CQI.
c. QC.
d. QA.
a. TQM
Which philosophy sees the potential for improvement in every area, no matter how high the current performance level?

a. TQM.
b. QA.
c. QP.
d. QC.
a. TQM
What document in the laboratory contains information about the principles underlying testing and other protocols?

a. Procedure manual.
b. Delta check.
c. QA manual.
d. Floor book.
a. Procedure manual
What document contains information about laboratory schedules, patient preparation, and specimen handling?

a. Directory of services.
b. Procedure manual.
c. QA manual.
d. Delta check.
a. Directory of services
A phlebotomist is most responsible for controlling for which of the following types of variables in test results?

a. Postanalytic.
b. Analytic.
c. Preanalytic.
d. Quality monitors.
c. Preanalytic
A delay in reporting test results is considered what type of variable?

a. Analytic.
b. Postanalytic.
c. Preanalytic.
d. Quality monitors.
b. Postanalytic
Improper identification of the patient is considered what type of variable?

a. Postanalytic.
b. Preanalytic.
c. Quality monitors.
d. Analytic.
b. Preanalytic
Which of the following terms refers to a QA procedure that helps spot identification errors by comparing previous results of the patient to current results?

a. Chi-square.
b. Diurnal check.
c. Delta check.
d. Analytic variable.
c. Delta check
A blood sample collected from a patient who is standing up will have higher levels of what analyte compared to samples from a patient who is supine?

a. Calcium.
b. Creatinine.
c. Urea.
d. Albumin.
d. Albumin
Which of the following medications causes a prolonged bleeding time?

a. Benadryl.
b. Accutane.
c. Aspirin.
d. Tylenol.
c. Aspirin
For a patient on anticoagulant therapy, pressure should be held on a venipuncture site longer than normal to avoid which of the following complications?

a. Nerve damage.
b. Hemolysis.
c. Compartment syndrome.
d. Infection.
c. Compartment syndrome
A sample drawn for which of the following requires special timing due to diurnal variation in its blood levels?

a. Potassium.
b. Hemoglobin.
c. Sodium.
d. Cortisol.
d. Cortisol
A blood sample collected from a nonfasting patient may result in a plasma characteristic that is called what?

a. Lipemia.
b. Hemolysis.
c. Polycythemia.
d. Icteric.
a. Lipemia
Blood levels of which of the following often increase with age?

a. Cholesterol and triglycerides.
b. Electrolytes.
c. RBC and WBC counts.
d. Thyroid hormones.
a. Cholesterol and triglycerides
Values for which of the following are higher in infants than adults?

a. RBC and WBC counts.
b. Electrolytes.
c. Cholesterol and triglycerides.
d. Thyroid hormones.
a. RBC and WBC counts
Values for which of the following are higher in patients living at high altitudes?

a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin.
b. BUN and creatinine.
c. Cholesterol and triglycerides.
d. Sodium and potassium.
a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
Anxiety can increase levels of which of the following hormones?

a. Testosterone from the testes.
b. Cortisol from the adrenal cortex.
c. ADH from the pituitary gland.
d. Estrogen from the ovaries.
b. Cortisol from the adrenal cortex
Which of the following can occur in a blood sample if a patient has been suffering from prolonged diarrhea or vomiting?

a. Hemoconcentration.
b. Compartment syndrome.
c. Occluded veins.
d. Hemolysis.
a. Hemoconcentration
Men have a higher level than women of which analyte?

a. Glucose.
b. Calcium.
c. Potassium.
d. Hemoglobin.
d. Hemoglobin
How often should centrifuges be calibrated?

a. Every month.
b. Every 3 months.
c. Every year.
d. Every week.
b. Every 3 months
How often should refrigerator and freezer temperatures be recorded?

a. Hourly.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Daily.
d. Daily
Name 6 types of safety hazards in the workplace and give an example of each.
- Biological: Bacteria, viruses
- Sharps: Needles, lancets, broken glass
- Electrical : High-voltage equipment
- Chemical: Lab reagents, preservatives
- Latex Sensitivity: Gloves
- Physical: wet floors, Lifting heavy objects
- Radioactive, X-Ray: Equipment, reagents
List 5 safety precautions that can reduce risk of injury in the workplace
- wearing PPE
- never storing food w/ biohazard substances
- protecting feet from spills,slips, and falling
- avoiding putting things in the mouth in the work area
-avoid eye-hand contact in work area
- not wearing loose clothing, hair, or jewelry that can get caught in equipment or contaiminated
Because needle sticks are a major concern, what should you never do after performing a venipucture?
Never recap after collection; needle sticks can occur
List the 5 identifying features that all hazardous material labels must display.
- a warning to alert you to the hazard
- the manufacturer or other responsible party
- an explanation of the hazard
- a list of precautions to reduce risk
- first aid measures to take in case of exposure
Describe the purpose of an SDS
Provides information on the chemical, its hazards, the procedure for its cleanup, and first aid in case of exposure
In the even of a chemical spills on your arm, what steps should be taken?
Proceed to the safety shower, flush the area for 15 minutes, and go to emergency room for treatment
Name the organization that regulates workplace safety, and define its purpose.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulates all work enviornemts to prevent accidents, and it provides guidelines for accident prevention
OSHA stands for

a. Occupational Standards in Health Associations
b. Outline of Safety Hazards and Accidents
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. Occupational Standards and Health Administration
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
When mixing acids and water, you should

a. add acid to water
b. add water to acid
c. never mix acids and water together
d. add equal amounts in an empty container
a. add acid to water
Chemicals should be

a. stored above eye level
b. labeled properly
c. cleaned up using soap and water
d. disposed of in the sink
b. labeled properly
The first action to take in the event of fire is to

a. call the fire department
b. close windows and doors
c. remove patients from danger
d. pull the fire alarm
c. remove patients from danger
In the event of electric shock, the first thing you should do is

a. call 911
b. attempt to turn off the electrical equipment
c. break contact between the source and the victim
d. start CPR
b. attempt to turn off the electrical equipment
Class C fires involve

a. wood
b. grease or oil
c. flammable materials
d. electrical equipment
d. electrical equipment
Which of the following does the NFPA symbol not warn about?

a. protective equipment
b. fire
c. chemical stability
d. health
a. protective equipment
The first thing to do when giving CPR to a victim is

a. clear the pathway
b. place the victim on a firm, flat surface
c. begin mouth-to-mouth
d. determine whether the victim is conscious
d. determine whether the victim is conscious
Safety equipment in the laboratory may include

a. PPE
b. an emergency shower
c. an eyewash station
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
An SDS provides information on

a. sharps
b. patients
c. chemicals
d. office procedures
c. chemicals
Reaction to latex products may include

a. irritant contact dermatitis
b. allergic contact dermatitis
c. anaphylaxis
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The yellow diamond in the NFPA label indicates

a. health hazards
b. flammability
c. reactivity warning
d. other
c. reactivity warning
Define infection
Invasion and growth of disease-causing microorganisms in the human body
Name four classes of pathogens
Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, and Protists
What are health care-associated infections, and how are they typically caused?
Contracted by a patient during a hospital stay as the result of direct contact with other patients or by failure of hospital personnel to follow infection control protocols
What 3 main elements make up the chain of infection?
A source
A means of transportation
A susceptible host
List 3 ways you can break the chain of infection
>> preventing transmission by;

- hand washing
- using PPE
- isolating patients at risk of spreading/contracting infections
- using standard precautions
Explain the difference between direct and indirect contact transmission
Direct Contact
- Involves the transfer of microorganisms from an infected person to a susceptible host by body contact

Indirect Contact
- Involves contact between a susceptible host and a contaminated object
What is the difference between a vector and a fomite?
Fomites
- objects

Vectors
- organisms
HBV may be stable in dried blood for at least how many days?
At least 7 days
Bleach should be in contact with a contaminated area for how many minutes for complete disinfection?
20 minutes
Which of the following would not be considered a pathogen?

a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. fungi
d. vectors
d. vectors
Varicella-zoster is the cause of

a. syphilis
b. chickenpox
c. malaria
d. hepatitis
b. chickenpox
HIV is the causative agent of

a. gonorrhea
b. food poisoning
c. AIDS
d. hepatitis B
c. AIDS
Vectors include

a. doorknobs
b. medical instruments
c. needles
d. insects
d. insects
Some types of E. coli are normal flora of the

a. urinary tract
b. respiratory tract
c. colon
d. circulatory system
c. colon
The most important way to stop the spread of infection is through

a. isolation procedures
b. standard precautions
c. hand hygiene
d. PPE
c. hand hygiene
In putting on PPE, the first article that is put on is the

a. mask
b. face shield
c. gown
d. pair of gloves
c. gown
Which of the following is not an OSHA standard?

a. all biohazard material must be labeled
b. employees must practice standard precautions
c. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace
d. employers must provide their employees with immunization against HBV free of charge
c. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace
Although Standard Precautions apply to all potentially infections situations, EPs are chosen based on

a. whether isolation is employed
b. the potential means of transmission of the disease or condition
c. airborne transmission
d. the risk to the health care worker from accidental needle sticks
b. the potential means of transmission of the disease or condition
10% bleach used as a cleaning agent should be made fresh every

a. week
b. 3 hours
c. day
d. 6 hours
c. day
The continuous links in the chain of infection are, in order,

a. means of transmission, susceptible host, and source
b. source, means of transmission, and susceptible host
c. susceptible host, source, and means of transmission
d. none of these
b. source, means of transmission, and susceptible host
The purpose of a PE for highly immunosuppressed patients is to

a. prevent transmission of infection to the patient
b. protect the public from disease
c. prevent transmission of infection from the patient
d. protect the patient from spores in the enviornment
a. prevent transmission of infection to the patient
Hepato refers to the

a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. blood
a. liver
Cyan- refers to

a. red
b. yellow
c. black
d. blue
d. blue
Hemi- means

a. many
b. half
c. whole
d. two
b. half
-tomy means

a. study of
b. to cut
c. shape or form
d. opening
b. to cut
Anti- means

a. between
b. among
c. against
d. for
c. against
Leauko- refers to

a. red
b. yellow
c. blue
d. white
d. white
-emia means

a. blood condition
b. tumor
c. opening
d. paralysis
a. blood condition
Pulmon refers to the

a. liver
b. lung
c. colon
d. heart
b. lung
Thromb refers to

a. hemolysis
b. clotting
c. lymphostasis
d. tumor
b. clotting
Derm refers to

a. death
b. bone
c. skin
d. blood
c. skin
Heme refers to

a. clot
b. vessel
c. blood
d. joint
c. blood
Erythro refers to

a. black
b. cell
c. white
d. red
d. red
-logy refers to

a. form
b. tumor
c. to cut
d. study of
d. study of
-stomy refers to

a. opening
b. cut
c. study
d. disease
a. opening
The term to define the overall well-being of the body is

a. hemolysis
b. hemostasis
c. homeostasis
d. hematopoiesis
c. homeostasis
The functional unit of the nervous system is

a. nephron
b. neuron
c. neoplasm
d. nucleus
b. neuron
Which types of muscle tissue is involved in hemostasis?

a. skeletal
b. smooth
c. epithelial
d. striated
b. smooth
Blood is considered what type of tissue?

a. nerve
b. connective
c. muscle
d. epithelial
b. connective
In which system does hematopoiesis occur?

a. skeletal
b. nervous
c. muscular
d. digestive
a. skeletal
Which is not a laboratory test that assesses for muscle disorders?

a. AST
b. Troponin
c. C&S
d. Myoglobin
c. C&S
Which is not a laboratory test that assesses for disorders of the integumentary system?

a. C&S
b. KOH Prep
c. BUN
d. Skin Biopsy
c. BUN
Hepatitis involves the

a. heart
b. liver
c. brain
d. ovaries
b. liver
Which laboratory test is not useful in the assessment of liver problems?

a. AST
b. GGT
c. ALP
d. All are important
d. all are important
What promotes the breakdown of glycogen back to glucose?

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Thymosin
d. Calcitonin
b. Glucagon
Pancreatitis can be screened for by performing which lab test?

a. Amylase
b. CSF
c. Myoglobin
d. Occult blood
a. Amylase
The functional unit of the kidney is known as the

a. neuron
b. medulla
c. thalamus
d. nephron
d. nephron
Microbiology may perform the following laboratory test for urologic disorders:

a. BUN
b PPD
c. C&S
d. FBS
c. C&S
ABGs typically test for

a. digestive disorders
b. urinary disorders
c. respiratory disorders
d. muscular disorders
c. respiratory disorders
The hormone that regulates the amount of clacium and phosphorus in the circulation is

a. insulin
b. thymosin
c. oxytocin
d. parathyroid hormone
d. parathyroid hormone
Which hormone regulates water reabsorption by the kidney?

a. ACTH
b. TSH
c. ADH
d. MSH
c. ADH
Thyroxine is otherwise known as

a. T3
b. T4
c. TSH
d. T1
b. T4
Describe the different functions of the circulatory system
- transports blood containing oxygen and nutrients throughout the body
- picks up metabolic waste products for disposal
Discuss the difference between pulmonary and systemic circulation
Pulmonary Circulation
- carries blood between the heart and lungs for gas exchange

Systemic Circulation
- carries blood between the heart and the rest of the body
Explain the functional difference between veins and arteries
Veins
- carry blood toward the heart

Arteries
- carry blood away from the heart
Name the 4 heart valves
Atrioventricular
Pulmonary Semilunar
Bicuspid
Aortic Semilunar
Contraction of the heart is known as ________________, and relaxation is known as ___________________.
Systole
Diastole
Name the 3 layers surrounding the lumen of veins and arteries
- Tunica Adventitia
- Media
- Intima
The yellow liquid portion of whole blood, containing fibrinogen, is known as _________________.
plasma
The firmed elements constitute what precent of blood volume?
45%
What is the role of a phagocyte?
attacks and digests bacteria
Which types of lymphocyte produces antibodies?
B Cells
Describe the two pathways in the coagulation cascade.
The Extrinsic Pathway
- Begins with the release of tissue factor by endothelial cells

The Intrinsic Pathway
- Begins when the plasma coagulation factors contact materials exposed when blood vessels are damaged
Define and give an example of autoimmunity.
An attack by the immune system on the body's own tissues

Examples;
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Myasthenia Gravis
Multiple Sclerosis
In the circulatory system, gas exchange occurs in the

a. capillaries
b. veins
c. arteries
d. venules
a. capillaries
What blood vessels are a single cell in thickness?

a. capillaries
b. veins
c. arteries
d. arterioles
a. capillaries
Veins and arteries are composed of how many layers?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. 3
An average adult has how many liters of blood?

a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
d. 7-8
c. 5-6
Plasma constitutes what percent of total blood volume?

a. 45
b. 55
c. 80
d. 92
b. 55
Which leukocyte is known as a phagocyte?

a. lymphocyte
b. neutrophil
c. eosinophil
d. basophil
b. neutrophil
Platelets remain in the circulation for

a. 2-5 days
b. 9-12 days
c. 10-20 days
d. 1 month
b. 9-12 days
Explain the purpose of a tourniquet.
Prevents venous flow out of the arm
What type of test is used for a tan tube?
Lead analysis
What type of test is used for a red/pink tube?
Blood bank
What type of test is used for a light blue tube?
Coagulation
What type of test is used for a lavender tube?
CBC
What type of test is used for a gray tube?
Glucose Tolerance Test
What type of test is used for a black tube?
Sedimentation Rate
What type of test is used for a gold BD hemogard closure tube?
Chemistry Testing
What type of test is used for a green tube?
ABGs
What type of test is used for a royal blue tube?
Trace Metals
What is the correct order of draw using the evacuated method?
1. Light Blue
2. Lavender
3. Green
4. Red (plastic tube)
5. Yellow (sterile)
6. Gray
7. Gold BD Hemogard
Which of the following is not an anticoagulant?

a. polymer gel
b. sodium heparin
c. sodium citrate
d. EDTA
a. polymer gel
The most common antiseptic used in routine venipuncture is

a. povidone-iodine solution
b. bleach
c. isopropyl alcohol
d. chlorhexidine gluconate
c. isopropyl alcohol
Complete clotting of a blood sample in a SST (gold or red-gray) tube takes how many minutes at room temperature?

a. 10
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60
b. 30
Serum contains

a. fibrinogen
b. clotting factors
c. plasma
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
Which color-coded tube does not contain any additives?

a. red, plastic tube
b. red, glass tube
c. Gold BD Hemogard Closure
d. royal blue
b. red, glass tube
EDTA prevents coagulation in blood tubes by

a. inactivating thrombin
b. binding calcium
c. inactivating thromboplastin
d. inhiniting glycolysis
b. binding calcium
Tubes with gray tops are used for

a. sedimentation rate tests
b. glucose tolerance tests
c. coagulation studies
d. CBC
b. glucose tolerance tests
Tubes with green tops may contain

a. sodium citrate
b. sodium heparin
c.sodium oxalate
d. sodium phosphate
b. sodium heparin
The syringe method of draw is useful because

a. it allows for control of blood flow
b. it shows the appearance of blood at the hub
c. it allows for greater flexibility and less bulk
d. both a and b above
d. both a and b above
The additive sodium citrate is used in blood collection to test for

a. blood alcohol
b. prothrombin time
c. lactic acid
d. lead
b. prothrombin time
What is the most common gauge used for a routine venipuncture?

a. 16
b. 21
c. 25
d. 23
b. 21
Blood collection tubes containing an anticoagulant should be

a. inverted gently and repeatedly after blood collection
b. shaken aggressively after blood collection
c. allowed to sit for 30 minutes before centrifugation
d. centrifuges immediately
a. inverted gently and repeatedly after blood collection
Tubes containing the SPS anticoagulant are used for

a. antibody serum
b. HLA studies
c. nutritional analysis
d. blood culture analysis
d. blood culture analysis
Blood collected in lavendar-topped tubes is used for which test?

a. FBS
b. CBC
c. stat potassium
d. stat chemistry
a. FBS
Blood collected in light-blue tubes is used for which test?

a. sedimentation rate
b. glucose toleramce
c. toxixology
d. coagulation
d. coagulation
What is the most important aspect of any phlebotomy procedure?
Correctly and positively identify the patient
What is the purpose of the requisition?

a. identifying the patient
b. determining the specimens to be collected
c. allowing the equipment necessary for the collection to be gathered
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which vein is often the only one that can be palpated in an obese patient?

a. median
b. cephalic
c. basilic
d. iliac
b. cephalic
Upon entering a patient's room, you should first

a. assemble your equipment
b. put on your gloves
c. introduce yourself
d. identify the patient
c. introduce yourself
Which vein lies close to the brachial artery?

a. cephalic
b. median cubital
c. basilic
d. iliac
c. basilic
When should the tourniquet be removed from the arm in a venipuncture procedure?

a. after the needle is withdrawn
b. as the needle is withdrawn
c. before the needle is withdrawn
d. the tourniquet should not be removed
c. before the needle is withdrawn
Tourniquets should be placed how many inches above the venipuncture site?

a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 4-5
c. 3-4
The following can occur if the tourniquet is left on the patient too long:

a. nerve damage
b. hemoconcentration
c. occluded radial pulse
d. hematoma
b. hemoconcentration
Hematomas can be caused by

a. removing the tourniquet after removing the needle
b. withdawing the needle before removing the last tube
c. withdrawing the needle too quickly
d. removing the tourniquet before removing the needle
a. removing the tourniquet after removing the needle
An increase in the ration of formed elements to plasma is called

a. hemolysis
b. petechiae
c. hemoconcentration
d. hematoma
c. hemoconcentration
Small red spots on the skin are referred to as

a. hemolysis
b. petechiae
c. hemoconcentration
d. hematoma
b. petechiae
Which vein is the first choice for venipuncture?

a. basilic
b. median cubital
c. cephalic
d. iliac
b. median cubital
During the venipuncture procedure, the tourniquet should stay on no longer than

a. 30 seconds
b. 45 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes
c. 1 minute
Name two sites commonly used for adult capillary collection
Palmar surface of the distal segments of the third and fourth fingers, and the big toe
Capillary collections are performed on

a. capillaries
b. veins
c. arteries
d. arterioles
a. capillaries
Which of the following has a higher value in a capillary sample as opposed to a venous serum sample?

a. potassium
b. calcium
c. total protein
d. hemoglobin
d. hemoglobin
An infant heel-warming device should be applied for approximately?

a. 1-2 minutes
b. 8-10 minutes
c. 30 seconds
d. 3-5 minutes
d. 3-5 minutes