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Clinical Procedures Final

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An electrocardiogram is a recording of the

A. Force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels
B. Electrical activity of the heart
C. Contraction and relaxation of the ventricles
D. Opening and closing of the valves of the heart
B. Electrical activity of the heart
Electrocardiography is used to

A. Detect a dysrhythmia
B. Evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath
C. Detect the presence of cardiac ischemia
D. Determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What is a cardiac cycle?

A. One complete heartbeat
B. Relaxation of the entire heart
C. Contraction of the atria
D. Contraction of the ventricles
A. One complete heartbeat
What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves?

A. Interval
B. Segment
C. Baseline
D. Polarization line
B. Segment
Which of the following conditions can cause the ECG tracing to exhibit a larger than normal Q wave and an elevated S-T segment?

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Hypertrophy of the heart
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Coronary artery disease
C. Myocardial infarction
How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?

A. 15 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
How many leads are there on a standard electrocardiogram?

A. 7
B. 12
C. 15
D. 5
B. 12
A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as

A. An electrolyte
B. An electrode
C. A lead wire
D. An amplifier
B. An electrode
Which electrode is used as a ground reference?

A. Right leg
B. Left leg
C. Left arm
D. Right arm
A. Right leg
An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to

A. Protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph
B. Amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart
C. Facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart
D. Reduce the amount of dryness of the skin
C. Facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart
A disposable electrode is held in place by

A. Superglue
B. An adhesive backing on the electrode
C. A vacuum cup
D. A rubber strap
B. An adhesive backing on the electrode
All of the following are guidelines for electrodes except

A. After use, reseal the electrode pouch and place it in a plastic bag
B. Check the expiration date on the electrode pouch before use
C. Store electrodes in a refrigerator
D. Do not use a dried out electrode
C. Store electrodes in a refrigerator
Leads 1, 2, and 3 are the

A. Precordial leads
B. Augmented leads
C. Bipolar leads
D. Chest leads
C. Bipolar leads
The aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as the

A. Bipolar leads
B. Chest leads
C. Standard leads
D. Augmented leads
D. Augmented leads
Electrocardiograms are normally recorded with the paper moving at a speed of

A. One-half standard
B. Twice the normal standard
C. 50 mm/sec
D. 25 mm/sec
D. 25 mm/sec
Chest lead V2 is located at the

A. Fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
B. Fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
C. Fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
D. Fifth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
B. Fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
Where is chest lead V5 located?

A. Midway between V4 and V6
B. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left midaxillary line
C. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left anterior axillary line
D. At the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
C. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left anterior axillary line
All of the following are guidelines for patient preparation for an ECG except

A. Women should not wear tights
B. Wear comfortable clothing
C. Do not apply body lotion or oil on the day of the test
D. Do not consume food or fluids except water for 12 hours before the ECG
D. Do not consume food or fluids except water for 12 hours before the ECG
What are artifacts?

A. A type of standardization mark
B. The marking code recorded by the ECG to indicate which lead is being run
C. Rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru
D. Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
D. Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
Which of the following artifacts appears as small, straight, spiked lines that are consistent in nature?

A. Alternating current
B. Wandering baseline
C. Muscle
D. Interrupted baseline
A. Alternating current
All of the following result in muscle artifacts except

A. Patient discomfort
B. An apprehensive patient
C. Electrodes that have come loose
D. Patient coughing or talking
C. Electrodes that have come loose
Which of the following may cause a 60-cycle interference artifact?

A. Patient movement
B. A broken patient cable
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Lead wires not following body contour
D. Lead wires not following body contour
Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram?

A. Working on the left side of the patient
B. Instructing the patient to lie still and not to talk during the procedure
C. Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower legs
D. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
D. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to

A. Assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities
B. Evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain
C. Detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature
D. Assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What term is used to refer to an electrocardiogram result that is within normal limits?

A. Baseline recording
B. Normal sinus rhythm
C. Sinus arrhythmia
D. WNL
B. Normal sinus rhythm
The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to

A. Dilate the bronchial tubes to increase airflow
B. Detect cardiac dysrhythmias
C. Remove mucus from the bronchial tubes
D. Assess lung functioning
D. Assess lung functioning
All of the following are examples of pulmonary function tests except

A. Coronary angiography
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Arterial blood gas studies
D. Diffusion capacity
A. Coronary angiography
Which of the following devices measures how much air is exhaled by the lungs and how fast it is exhaled?

A. Pulse oximeter
B. Tympanogram
C. Blood gas analyzer
D. Spirometer
D. Spirometer
All of the following are indications for spirometry except

A. A patient with emphysema
B. A patient who has worked in the coal mines for 20 years
C. A patient with an upper respiratory infection
D. A patient complaining of dyspnea
C. A patient with an upper respiratory infection
All of the following are patient preparation requirements for spirometry except

A. Do not take aspirin for 4 hours before the test.
B. Wear loose, nonrestrictive clothing.
C. Do not eat a heavy meal for 8 hours before the test.
D. Stop smoking at least 8 hours before the test.
A. Do not take aspirin for 4 hours before the test.
All of the following are characteristics of asthma except

A. It is a chronic disease with no cure.
B. It primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs.
C. Its symptoms include wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
D. It most often affects children and young adults.
B. It primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs.
Which of the following are asthma triggers?

A. House dust
B. Tobacco smoke
C. Animal dander
D. Vigorous physical exercise
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What happens to the bronchial tubes during an asthma attack?

A. They become hard and stiff.
B. They constrict, swell, and become clogged with mucus.
C. They dilate and go into a spasm.
D. They become hyposensitive to allergens.
B. They constrict, swell, and become clogged with mucus.
Which of the following is a characteristic of quick-relief asthma medication?

A. It quickly opens up the airways.
B. It is usually taken every day.
C. It is used to prevent asthma symptoms.
D. It helps to relieve bronchial inflammation.
E. All of the above.
A. It quickly opens up the airways.
The purpose of a peak flow meter is to

A. Prevent an asthma attack
B. Measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs
C. Deliver asthma medication to the lungs
D. Diagnose asthma
B. Measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs
Which of the following does NOT lead to inaccurate peak flow measurements?

A. Patient is fearful and anxious
B. Not moving the indicator to the bottom of the numbered scale
C. A crack in the peak flow meter
D. Not changing the disposable mouthpiece between patients
D. Not changing the disposable mouthpiece between patients
Oxygen combines with glucose in the cells of the body to produce

A. Adrenalin
B. Energy
C. Insulin
D. Lactose
B. Energy
Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level?

A. Death of cells
B. Organ failure
C. Body system failure
D. Death
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
All of the following require home oxygen therapy except

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Hepatitis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. COPD
B. Hepatitis
Which of the following oxygen delivery systems separates oxygen from the air for use by the patient?

A. Compressed oxygen gas
B. Oxygen compressor
C. Liquid oxygen
D. Oxygen concentrator
D. Oxygen concentrator
All of the following are characteristics of a nasal cannula except

A. Does not interfere with the patient's ability to talk, eat, or drink
B. Used for patients who need a high flow of oxygen
C. Contains two prongs that are inserted into the patient's nose
D. Most frequently used device for administering home oxygen therapy
B. Used for patients who need a high flow of oxygen
All of the following are guidelines for oxygen usage except

A. Never smoke while using oxygen.
B. Store in a clean, dry, well-ventilated room.
C. Use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system.
D. Store oxygen cylinders in an upright position.
C. Use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system.
Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stool?

A. Hemorrhoids
B. Diverticulosis
C. Colorectal cancer
D. Polyps
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What is occult blood?

A. Visible red blood
B. Less than 5 ml of blood in the stool
C. Blood that is not visible
D. Digested blood
C. Blood that is not visible
Which of the following may result in a false-positive test result on a guaiac slide test?

A. Taking aspirin
B. Eating red meat
C. Eating foods containing peroxidase
D. Performing the test during a menstrual period
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing?

A. To prevent gastrointestinal irritation
B. To prevent a false-negative test result
C. To prevent a false-positive test result
D. To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
D. To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
All of the following medications must be discontinued before and during guaiac slide testing except

A. Aspirin
B. Vitamin C
C. Antihistamines
D. Iron supplements
C. Antihistamines
Patient instructions for the guaiac slide test include

A. Begin the diet modifications three days before collecting the first stool specimen.
B. Store slides at room temperature.
C. Protect slides from heat and sunlight.
D. Collect a sample from two different parts of each stool specimen.
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as

A. No reaction
B. Positive
C. Invalid
D. Negative
B. Positive
Which of the following can cause failure of the expected control results to occur on a guaiac slide test?

A. Outdated slides
B. Outdated developing solution
C. Error in technique
D. Improper storage of the testing kit
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following tests may be performed if the fecal occult blood test result is positive?

A. MRI
B. Colonoscopy
C. Upper GI x-ray study
D. Colposcopy
E. All of the above
B. Colonoscopy
The function of the prostate gland is to

A. Secrete testosterone
B. Produce sperm
C. Store sperm
D. Secrete fluid that transports sperm
D. Secrete fluid that transports sperm
All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer except

A. Painful urination
B. Difficulty in urinating
C. Thick, yellow discharge from the penis
D. Weak urinary flow
C. Thick, yellow discharge from the penis
Testicular cancer occurs most commonly

A. After age 40
B. After age 50
C. Between age 15 and 34
D. Between age 30 and 50
C. Between age 15 and 34
Mammography is used to detect

A. Fibrocystic breast disease
B. Breast cancer
C. Benign breast masses
D. Breast calcifications
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Patient instructions for a mammogram include which of the following?

A. Do not wear lotions, powders, or deodorants.
B. Fast for 12 hours before the examination.
C. Schedule the examination several days before your menstrual period.
D. Take a mild sedative before the examination.
E. All of the above
A. Do not wear lotions, powders, or deodorants.
Before performing an IVP, the patient must be asked if he or she is allergic to

A. Penicillin
B. Barium
C. Iodine
D. Beets
C. Iodine
How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day?

A. 500-1,000 mL
B. 1-3 liters
C. 250-500 mL
D. 750-2,000 mL
D. 750-2,000 mL
Polyuria may be caused by

A. Excessive intake of fluids
B. Consumption of caffeine
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Taking a diuretic
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following does NOT result in oliguria?

A. Vomiting
B. Diarrhea
C. Edema
D. Profuse perspiration
C. Edema
Which of the following normally contains microorganisms?

A. Urinary bladder
B. Urinary meatus
C. Kidneys
D. Ureters
B. Urinary meatus
Which of the following tests requires a clean-catch midstream specimen?

A. Urine drug testing
B. Urine culture
C. Microscopic examination of urine sediment
D. Urine pregnancy testing
B. Urine culture
When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a front-to-back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to

A. Avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
B. Avoid contaminating the distal urethra
C. Prevent the cleaning solution from irritating the urinary meatus
D. Prevent patient discomfort during the cleansing process
A. Avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the specimen to

A. Remove pathogens from the bladder
B. Prevent irritation of the urethra
C. Flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra
D. Ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine
C. Flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra
What is included in a complete urinalysis?

A. A physical examination of urine
B. A chemical examination of urine
C. Microscopic examination of urine sediment
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature?

A. The specific gravity decreases.
B. Pathogens are destroyed.
C. It becomes cloudy.
D. The pH becomes more acidic.
C. It becomes cloudy.
What does it mean if a urine specimen is light yellow?

A. Bacteria are present in the urine specimen.
B. The pH of the urine specimen is slightly acidic.
C. The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances.
D. White blood cells are present in the urine specimen.
C. The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances.
If a freshly voided specimen is cloudy, it means that

A. A urinary tract infection may be present
B. Improper technique was used to collect the specimen
C. The specimen has remained in the bladder too long
D. Nitrates are present in the specimen
A. A urinary tract infection may be present
What odor does a urine specimen have if it has been allowed to stand at room temperature for long time?

A. Ammonia
B. Slightly aromatic
C. Foul-smelling
D. Fruity
A. Ammonia
Which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result?

A. 2 +
B. 500 mg/dL
C. Small
D. Positive
E. Trace
B. 500 mg/dL
The pH of most urine specimens is

A. Negative
B. Neutral
C. Alkaline
D. Acidic
D. Acidic
A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is

A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Contaminated
D. Neutral
B. Alkaline
Blood may normally be present in the urine because of

A. Cystitis
B. Pregnancy
C. Vigorous physical exercise
D. Menstruation
D. Menstruation
How should urine reagent strips be stored?

A. In a cool area
B. In a dark container
C. In a dry area
D. With the cap tightly closed
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?

A. Using a freshly voided urine specimen
B. Touching the reagent areas with the fingers
C. Completely immersing the reagent areas in the urine specimen
D. Holding the reagent strip in a horizontal position when reading results
E. None of the above
B. Touching the reagent areas with the fingers
What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman?

A. Estrogen
B. Testosterone
C. HCGH
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
E. Progesterone
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
Which of the following represents an error in technique when performing a urine pregnancy test?

A. A clean specimen container is used to collect the specimen.
B. A first-voided morning specimen is used to run the test.
C. The urine specimen is at room temperature.
D. The specific gravity of the specimen is 1.003.
E. None of the above
C. The urine specimen is at room temperature.
The study of blood is known as

A. Blood banking
B. Blood chemistry
C. Serology
D. Hematology
D. Hematology
Which of the following tests is NOT included in a CBC?

A. Hemoglobin
B. Prothrombin time
C. Hematocrit
D. Red and white blood cell counts
E. Differential white blood cell count
B. Prothrombin time
The function of hemoglobin is to

A. Transport electrolytes in the body
B. Transport oxygen in the body
C. Defend the body against infection
D. Assist in blood clotting
B. Transport oxygen in the body
Mr. Peterson has a hemoglobin reading of 16. This is considered to be

A. Within the reference range
B. Below the reference range
C. An invalid result
D. Above the reference range
A. Within the reference range
A low hemoglobin reading may occur with all of the following except

A. Severe hemorrhaging
B. Polycythemia
C. Leukemia
D. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
An increase in the hemoglobin level occurs with

A. Polycythemia
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Congestive heart failure
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The term hematocrit means

A. The breakdown of blood
B. A decrease in blood cells
C. To separate blood
D. An increase in blood cells
C. To separate blood
The buffy coat consists of

A. White blood cells and platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. White blood cells
D. Plasma
A. White blood cells and platelets
Mr. Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60. This is considered to be

A. Increased
B. Normal
C. Invalid
D. Decreased
A. Increased
When using a microhematocrit centrifuge, the hematocrit test results should be read at the

A. Top of the red cell column
B. Bottom of the red cell column
C. Top of the plasma column
D. Top of the buffy coat
A. Top of the red cell column
Mrs. Nelson has a white blood cell count of 14,500. This is considered

A. Below normal range
B. Above normal range
C. An inaccurate test result
D. Within normal range
B. Above normal range
Mr. Stoney has a white blood cell count of 8,000. This is considered

A. Below normal range
B. An inaccurate test result
C. Above normal range
D. Within normal range
D. Within normal range
Which of the following results in leukocytosis?

A. Appendicitis
B. Chickenpox
C. Mononucleosis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following results in leukopenia?

A. Appendicitis
B. Chemotherapy
C. Chickenpox
D. Rheumatic fever
B. Chemotherapy
What is the normal range for a red blood cell count for a woman (in cells per cubic millimeter of blood)?

A. 4.5-6.2 million
B. 3-4 million
C. 4-5.5 million
D. 5-6 million
C. 4-5.5 million
Which of the following causes a decrease in the red blood cell count?

A. Anemia
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Leukemia
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The red blood cell indices assist the diagnosis of the different types of

A. Hepatitis
B. Leukemia
C. Influenza
D. Anemia
D. Anemia
The red blood cell indices include all of the following except

A. MCV
B. MCHC
C. RBC
D. RDW
C. RBC
How many blood smears are required for a differential white blood cell count?

A. 1
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
D. 2
The results of a differential white blood cell count indicate that there are 45 neutrophils. This is considered

A. Above normal
B. Below normal
C. Normal
C. Normal
The results of a differential white blood cell count indicate there are no basophils. This is considered

A. Above normal
B. Below normal
C. Normal
C. Normal
What is the PT/INR result of a healthy individual with a normal clotting ability?

A. 10-20 seconds
B. 2.5-3.5
C. 1-2
D. 0.8-1.2
D. 0.8-1.2
What is the function of warfarin?

A. To speed up production of red blood cells
B. To inhibit the formation of blood clots
C. To prevent atrial fibrillation
D. To encourage blood clotting
B. To inhibit the formation of blood clots
How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?

A. Every 2-4 weeks
B. Every 6 months
C. Every 2 months
D. Once each week
A. Every 2-4 weeks
Which of the following tubes may occur if the PT/INR blood tube is not filled to the exhaustion of the vacuum?

A. Hemolysis of the blood specimen
B. Inaccurate test results
C. Contamination of the blood specimen
D. Clotting of the blood specimen
B. Inaccurate test results
What term is used to describe the scientific study of microorganisms and their activities?

A. Pathology
B. Parasitology
C. Microbiology
D. Histology
C. Microbiology
Microorganisms that reside in the body but that do not cause disease are known as

A. Staphylococci
B. Normal flora
C. Transient flora
D. Extraneous microorganisms
B. Normal flora
The invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is known as

A. Infection
B. Inflammation
C. Susceptibility
D. Disease
A. Infection
Which of the following is NOT a natural defense mechanism of the body?

A. Phagocytosis by white blood cells
B. Antibodies
C. Antibiotics
D. The skin
C. Antibiotics
A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as

A. A contagious disease
B. Droplet infection
C. An acute disease
D. An infectious disease
A. A contagious disease
The transfer of pathogens on a fine spray of moisture droplets is known as

A. Susceptibility
B. Droplet infection
C. Inoculation
D. Indirect transfer
B. Droplet infection
What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the disease?

A. Infectious period
B. Incubation period
C. Inoculation
D. Prodromal period
B. Incubation period
The period of time in which the first symptoms indicating an approaching disease occur is known as the

A. Convalescent period
B. Prodromal period
C. Acute period
D. Symptomatic
B. Prodromal period
Escherichia coli normally reside in the

A. Urinary tract
B. Vagina
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach
C. Large intestine
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?

A. Rubella
B. Tetanus
C. Chickenpox
D. Mumps
B. Tetanus
A microbiologic specimen may be obtained from the

A. Throat
B. Nose
C. Wounds
D. Vagina
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the extraneous microorganisms may

A. Alter the morphology of the pathogens
B. Prevent visualization of the pathogen
C. Change the pH of the specimen
D. Result in the death of any pathogens present
B. Prevent visualization of the pathogen
Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen?

A. Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen
B. Licking a label for a specimen container
C. Having an open sore on the hand
D. Drinking coffee in the office laboratory
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A throat specimen is collected to perform tests to assist in the diagnosis of

A. Streptococcal sore throat
B. Tetanus
C. Staphylococcal food poisoning
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. All of the above
A. Streptococcal sore throat
A throat specimen should be collected from the

A. Tonsillar area and posterior pharynx
B. Hard palate
C. Posterior pharynx
D. Adenoids
A. Tonsillar area and posterior pharynx
Which of the following represents a violation of technique when collecting a throat specimen?

A. Using a rotating motion to collect the specimen
B. Using a sterile swab to collect the specimen
C. Labeling the specimen container
D. Touching the inside of the mouth with the swab
D. Touching the inside of the mouth with the swab
What is the purpose for an EKG?
It exhibits the amount of electrical activity produced by the heart and the time required for the impulse to travel through the heart
Identify the P Wave
Atrial depolarization
Identify the QRS Complex
Ventricular depolarization
Identify the T Wave
Ventricular repolarization
Identify the baseline following the T Wave
At rest or polarized
What is the Standardization Mark?
10 mm
What are electrodes?
Good conductor of energy
Picks up electrical impulses given off by the heart
What is a galvanometer?
Changes the amplified voltages into mechanical motion to be recorded
How many electrodes does it take to run a standard 12 lead EKG?
12
What causes Muscle Artifact?
Fuzzy, irregular baseline

Two types;
- Involuntary muscle movement
- Voluntary muscle movement
~ Apprehensive patient
~ Patient discomfort
~ Patient movement
~ A physical condition
What causes Wandering Baseline Artifact?
- Loose electrodes
- Dried-out electrolyte
- Body creams, oils, or lotions
- Excessive movement of the chest wall during respiration
What causes 60-Cycles Interference Artifact?
Caused by electrical interference

- Lead wires not following body contour
- Other electrical equipment in the room
Wiring in the walls, ceilings, or floors
What causes Interrupted Baseline Artifact?
May be caused by the metal tip of a lead wire becoming detached or by a frayed/broken patient cable
Identify examples of arrhythmias
-Atrial Premature Contraction
- Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia
- Atrial Flutter
- Atrial Fibrillation
- Premature Ventricular Contraction
- Ventricular Tachycardia
- Ventricular Fibrillation
Explain the purpose of a fecal occult blood test
Screen for the presence of occult blood in the stool

mainly caused by colorectal cancer, but other conditions as well
Patient preparation for Guaiac Slide
- Follow special diet beginning 3 days before the test and must continue the diet until all three slides have been prepared
~ High-fiber diet
~ No red meat or rare meat
- Certain medications should be avoided
~ Motrin, Advil, Ibuprofen, Aleve, and no more than 1 asprin a day
- Iron and Vitamin C supplements should be discontinued before testing
Explain the importance of proper patient preparation for radiographic examination that may use a contrast medium
To get clear results

To prevent poor quality

Make sure they are not allergic to Iodine
Explain the general purpose of a laboratory test
They provide objective and quantitative information regarding the status of body conditions

The clinical analysis and study of materials, fluids, or tissues obtained from patients to assist in the diagnosis and treatment of disease
What is a lab requisition used for and what information should be included on a lab requisition?
Serves as a valuable reference source for the proper collection and handling of specimens for transport to the outside laboratory

- Name & CPT code of the test
- Reference Range
- Amount and type of specimen collected
- Supplies necessary for collection of specimen
- Techniques to be used for collection of specimen
- Special instructions
- Patient Prep
- Proper handling and storage of the specimen
- Instructions for transporting the specimen
- Caused for rejection of the specimen by the lab
- Uses and limiations of the test
Methodology used to perform the test
What is CLIA?
Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendments
CLIA Waved Tests
Laboratory test that has been determined by CLIA to be a simple procedure that is easy to perform and has a low risk of erroneous test results
CLIA Moderately Complex Tests
Nonwaived test that is subject to the CLIA 1988 regulations

Account for 75% of the estimated 7 to 10 billion laboratory test performed in the US each year

Most of these are performed in outsides labs (hospitals, independent labs)
Some offices perform tsts known at PPM (provider-preformed microscopy)
~ involve the examination of a specimen under the microscope
CLIA High Complex Tests
Nonwaived test that is subject to CLIA 1988 regulations

Include all procedures related to cytogenetics, histopathology, histocompatibility, and cytology

Tests are not performed in medical offices, most are performed in labs already subject to federal regulations
Why would you use quality control in a lab?
Application of methods and means to ensure that test results are reliable and valid, and errors that may interfere with obtaining accurate test results are detected and elminated
Why is a first-voided morning specimen often preferred for urinalysis?
It contains the greatest concentration of dissolved substances, and a small amount of any abnormal substance that is present would be more easily deteced
Why would the physician order a clean-catch midstream specimen?
Purpose is the removal of microorangisms from the urinary meatus and distal urethra
Can you identify the various tests that are included in the physical and chemical examination of urine?
Physical examination of Urine: includes determination of color, appearance, and specific gravity (maybe odor)

Chemical examination of Urine: Include testing for pH, glucose, protein, and ketone, blood, bilirubin, urobilinogen, nitrite, and leukocytes
Normal Ranges for Hemoglobin
Used to measure indirectly the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

Men: 14 to 18 g/dL
Women: 12 to 16 g/dL
Normal Ranges for Hematocrit
"to separate blood"
Purpose is to measure the percentage volume of packed red blood cells in the whole blood

Men: 40% to 54%
Women: 37% to 47%
What does it mean to have a Differential Cell Count?
Purpose is to identify and count the five types of white blood cells in a representative blood sample
Reference Range for Neutrophils
40% to 75%
Reference Range for Eosinophils
1% to 6%
Reference Range for Basophils
0% to 2%
Reference Range for Lymphocytes
20% to 40%
Reference Range for Monocytes
3% to 10%
What are platelets used for?
Clotting
Purpose of PT/INR Test
*PT= Prothrombin Time
INR= International Normalized Ratio*

Measures how long is takes an individual's blood to form a clot

PT test results are measure in seconds
~ Reference Range: 10-20 seconds
Different layers which blood separates after it has been centrifuges
Top layer: Plasma
Middle layer: Buffy Coat
Bottom layer: Red Blood Cells
Reference Range for White Blood Cells
4,500 to 11,000
(4.5 to 11 x 10^3 / mm^3)
Reference Range for Red Blood Cells
Men: 4.5 to 6.2 million
(4.5 to 6.2 x 10^6 / mm^3)

Women: 4 to 5.5
(4 to 5.5 x 10^6 / mm^3)
Can you explain the function of glucose and insulin in the body?
Glucose is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism; Chief Source of Energy

Insulin is a hormone that is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas and is required for normal use of glucose in the body
Purpose of the Hemoglobin A1C Test
Provides valuable information for determining whether a diabetic patient's blood glucose level is under control
Recommended Blood Glucose Level
Individual WITHOUT Diabetes: 4% to 6%

Individual WITH Diabetes: (usually higher than this) try to maintain a less less than 7%
Stages of an Infectious Disease
1. The infection is the invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms in the body

2. The Incubation Period: interval of time between the invasion of the pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms
~ Depending on type of disease can range from a few days to several months

3. The Prodromal Period: short period in which the first symptoms indicate an approaching disease occur

4. The Acute Period: disease is at its peak and symptoms are fully developed

5. The Decline Period: symptoms of the disease begin to subside

6. The Convalescent Period: State in which the patient regains strength and returns to a state of good health
Can you explain the purpose of obtaining a specimen?
This examination identifies the pathogen causing the disease and aids in diagnosis
What is the purpose of first aid?
The immediate care administered before complete medical care can be obtained to an individual who is injured or suddenly becomes ill
3 symptoms of a heart attack
Chest pain
~ squeezing
~ crushing pressure
~ severe indigestion
~ burning
~ heaviness
~ aching

Discomfort
~ mildly uncomfortable to intense
~ accompanied by a feeling of suffocation and doom
~ felt behind the sternum and may radiate to neck, throat, jaw, or both shoulders/arms

Shortness of breath

Profuse Perspiration

Nausea

Fainting
Explain the difference between an embolic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke
Embolic Stroke: Caused by a blood clot or plaque debris that develops elsewhere in the body and then travels to one of the blood vessels in the brain through the bloodstream

Hemorrhagic Stroke: Occur when a blood vessel that supplies the brain ruptures and bleeds.
What would be the first line of treatment for a patient going into anaphylactic shock?
Life-threatening reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic

Administration of epinephrine