87 terms

Clinical Procedures Mid Term

STUDY
PLAY

Terms in this set (...)

What is the normal range of temperature?

A. 98 °F to 99 °F
B. 96 °F to 98 °F
C. 97 °F to 100.4 °F
D. 97 °F to 99 °F
D. 97 °F to 99 °F
Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature?

A. 96.8 °F
B. 98.6 °F
C. 99.6 °F
D. 37.8 °C
B. 98.6 °F
A temperature of 103 °F is classified as


A. Hyperpyrexia
B. Pyrexia
C. Hypopyrexia
D. Low-grade fever
B. Pyrexia
Which of the following terms refers to a fever?

A. Afebrile
B. Febrile
C. Hypothermia
D. Dehydration
B. Febrile
You take Mrs. Main's temperature at 7:00 a.m.; it reads 97.8 °F. At 3:00 p.m., you take her temperature again; it reads 99 °F. How do you account for the difference?

A. Women normally run a higher body temperature than men.
B. Mrs. Main normally runs a low body temperature.
C. During sleep, body metabolism slows down.
D. During sleep, muscle activity increases.
C. During sleep, body metabolism slows down.
A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue is known as


A. Adventitious
B. The blahs
C. Crisis
D. Malaise
D. Malaise
If a rectal temperature of 99 °F was taken orally, it would register as

A. 100 °F
B. 98 °F
C. 99 °F
D. 97 °F
B. 98 °F
Why is the temporal artery a good site for measuring body temperature?


A. It is easily accessible.
B. It has a constant, steady flow of blood.
C. It is located close to the surface of the skin.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult?

A. 80-100 beats/min
B. 70-90 beats/min
C. 60-100 beats/min
D. 60-80 beats/min
C. 60-100 beats/min
Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate?


A. Tachycardia
B. Tachypnea
C. Bounding
D. Bradycardia
A. Tachycardia
One respiration consists of

A. One exhalation
B. One inhalation and one exhalation
C. One inhalation
D. The opening and closing of the valves of the heart
B. One inhalation and one exhalation
Internal respiration is the


A. Measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood
B. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells
C. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood
D. Removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs
B. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells
The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from


A. 16-22 respirations per minute
B. 12-20 respirations per minute
C. 8-16 respirations per minute
D. 10-18 respirations per minute
B. 12-20 respirations per minute
What term is used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration?

A. Hypopnea
B. Tachypnea
C. Orthopnea
D. Bradycardia
A. Hypopnea
The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is

A. PO2
B. PCO2
C. SaO2
D. SpO2
D. SpO2
Blood pressure measures

A. The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
B. The expansion and recoiling of the aorta
C. The number of times the heart beats per minute
D. The contraction and relaxation of the heart
A. The force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood
Normal blood pressure for an adult is

A. 120/80 mm Hg or higher
B. 70-80 beats/min
C. 110-140 over 60-90 mm Hg
D. Less than 120/80 mm Hg
D. Less than 120/80 mm Hg
Blood pressure is measured in

A. Units
B. Degrees
C. Beats/min
D. Millimeters of mercury
D. Millimeters of mercury
Which of the following BP readings can be classified as hypertension, stage 1?

A. 116/78 mm Hg
B. 120/80 mm Hg
C. 130/88 mm Hg
D. 144/92 mm Hg
E. All of the above
D. 144/92 mm Hg
If a patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient's pulse pressure would be

A. 130
B. 45
C. 85
D. 215
B. 45
Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with

A. Diseases of the reproductive organs of women
B. Diseases of geriatric patients
C. Care of the newborn
D. Prenatal care
A. Diseases of the reproductive organs of women
The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as

A. Puberty
B. Amenorrhea
C. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
D. Pregnancy
B. Amenorrhea
Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as

A. Dyspareunia
B. Dysuria
C. Dysplasia
D. Dysmenorrhea
D. Dysmenorrhea
Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as

A. Metrorrhagia
B. Dyspareunia
C. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
D. Hemorrhaging
C. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
A complete gynecologic examination consists of a

A. Bimanual pelvic examination
B. Breast and pelvic examination
C. Breast examination
D. Pap test
B. Breast and pelvic examination
In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?

A. Lithotomy
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Dorsal recumbent
B. Supine
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination

A. Every 2 months
B. Once each month
C. Twice each year
D. Once each week
B. Once each month
Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination?

A. Supine
B. Sims
C. Lithotomy
D. Dorsal recumbent
E. Knee-chest
C. Lithotomy
Almost all cervical cancers are caused by

A. Hepatitis B
B. Having multiple sexual partners
C. HPV
D. HIV
C. HPV
What is the purpose of the Pap test?

A. Early detection of cervical cancer
B. Diagnosis of gonorrhea
C. Evaluation of the cause of infertility
D. Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding
E. All of the above
A. Early detection of cervical cancer
Which of the following is NOT included in a complete patient examination?

A. The physical examination
B. Laboratory tests
C. The health history
D. Therapeutic procedures
D. Therapeutic procedures
Which of the following may require a physical examination?

A. Prerequisite for employment
B. Participation in sports
C. School admission
D. Summer camp attendance
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease?

A. Final diagnosis
B. Cure
C. Therapy
D. Prognosis
D. Prognosis
What term is used to describe a tentative diagnosis obtained through the evaluation of the health history and the physical examination?

A. Final diagnosis
B. Clinical diagnosis
C. Differential diagnosis
D. Physical diagnosis
B. Clinical diagnosis
The process of determining which of two diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patient's illness is known as a

A. Tentative diagnosis
B. Final diagnosis
C. Differential diagnosis
D. Clinical diagnosis
C. Differential diagnosis
Which of the following is an example of a chronic illness?

A. Arthritis
B. Poison ivy
C. Chickenpox
D. Strep throat
A. Arthritis
What term describes an illness characterized by symptoms that have a rapid onset, that are severe and intense, and that subside after a short period?

A. Chronic illness
B. Fatal illness
C. Self-limiting illness
D. Acute illness
D. Acute illness
A risk factor means that

A. The chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease
B. A patient must avoid foods that trigger an allergic reaction
C. A patient will develop a certain disease
D. A patient has a genetic disorder
A. The chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease
Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure?

A. Electrocardiography
B. CT scan
C. Antibiotic injection
D. Sigmoidoscopy
C. Antibiotic injection
What is the name of the instrument used to examine the interior of the eye?

A. Rhinoscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
C. Otoscope
D. Stethoscope
B. Ophthalmoscope
What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?

A. Laryngoscope
B. Stethoscope
C. Otoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope
C. Otoscope
How should a patient be identified?

A. By phone number and address
B. By SSN
C. By hair and eye color
D. By name and date of birth
D. By name and date of birth
The process of measuring the patient is known as

A. Inspection
B. Calibration
C. Mensuration
D. Micturition
C. Mensuration
The reason for weighing a prenatal patient is to

A. Determine if the fetus is growing
B. Ensure the placenta is developing normally
C. Determine the due date
D. Detect the presence of twins
A. Determine if the fetus is growing
What is the reason for weighing a child?

A. To observe the pattern of growth
B. To determine medication dosage
C. To identify nutritional problems
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following need NOT be removed before weighing a patient?

A. Jacket
B. Heavy sweater
C. Shoes
D. Jewelry
D. Jewelry
One pound is equal to

A. 10 oz
B. 200 kg
C. 1000 g
D. 2.2 kg
D. 2.2 kg
The patient's height should be recorded in

A. Feet and inches
B. Centimeters
C. Inches
D. Meters
A. Feet and inches
The height of an adult patient usually is measured only

A. When the patient is ill
B. After a loss of weight
C. When medication has been prescribed
D. During the first office visit
D. During the first office visit
Using proper body mechanics helps to prevent which of the following?

A. Bursitis
B. Musculoskeletal injuries
C. Chronic disease
D. Arthritis
B. Musculoskeletal injuries
Which of the following principles should be followed when practicing proper body mechanics?

A. Do not reach for something farther than 14-18 inches away.
B. Store lighter items on higher shelves.
C. If possible, push or slide an item rather than lifting it.
D. Use the large muscles of the arms and legs when lifting an object.
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above
What should you do if a patient starts to fall?

A. Form a wide base of support and gradually lower the patient to the floor.
B. Hold the patient in an upright position.
C. Call out for assistance and try to break the patient's fall.
D. Let the patient fall.
A. Form a wide base of support and gradually lower the patient to the floor.
Which of the following steps should NOT be followed when lifting an object?

A. Keep the back straight when lifting the object.
B. Stand in front of the object with the feet 6-8 inches apart.
C. Bend at the hips to lift the object.
D. Determine if you can safely lift the object.
C. Bend at the hips to lift the object.
The purpose of draping a patient is to

A. Make it easier for the physician to examine the patient
B. Assist the physician in making a diagnosis
C. Protect the patient from pathogens
D. Provide patient with warmth and modesty
E. All of the above
D. Provide patient with warmth and modesty
The lithotomy position is used to examine the

A. Breasts
B. Vagina
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Abdomen
B. Vagina
Sims' position is used to perform which of the following?

A. Breast examination
B. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
C. Urinary catheterization
D. Pelvic examination
B. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
Which of the following is an example of palpation?

A. Assessing a patient's mental status
B. Performing a breast examination
C. Measuring visual acuity
D. Assessing the fetal heart rate
B. Performing a breast examination
Which of the following is an example of auscultation?

A. Measuring blood pressure
B. Testing pupillary reaction
C. Measuring body temperature
D. Urine testing
A. Measuring blood pressure
Before applying a stethoscope chest piece to the patient's skin, it should be

A. Calibrated
B. Soaked in bleach
C. Autoclaved
D. Warmed
D. Warmed
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant during the physical examination?

A. Providing the patient with educational information
B. Handing the physician instruments and supplies
C. Positioning the patient
D. Listening to the patient's heart and lung sounds
D. Listening to the patient's heart and lung sounds
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a minor office surgery?

A. Performed in a short period of time
B. Performed in an ambulatory care facility
C. Requires a general anesthetic
D. Does not pose a major risk to life
C. Requires a general anesthetic
The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to

A. Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
B. Prevent the formation of a purulent discharge
C. Reduce patient discomfort
D. Prevent damage to surgical instruments
A. Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it

A. Comes in contact with a pathogen
B. Comes in contact with a nonpathogen
C. Becomes wet
D. Touches something clean
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
What should the medical assistant do if in doubt about the sterility of an article?

A. Ask the physician if the article should be used.
B. Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using.
C. Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique.
D. Do not use the article; obtain another one.
D. Do not use the article; obtain another one.
Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique?

A. Facing a sterile field
B. Reaching over a sterile field
C. Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
D. Holding a sterile article above waist level
B. Reaching over a sterile field
Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used to make surgical incisions and divide tissue?

A. Operating scissors
B. Bandage scissors
C. Scalpel
D. Dissecting scissors
C. Scalpel
Which of the following instruments has serrated tips, ring handles, and ratchets and is used to clamp off blood vessels?

A. Hemostatic forceps
B. Curette
C. Sponge forceps
D. Allis tissue forceps
A. Hemostatic forceps
What is the term for a break in the skin surface or mucous membrane that exposes underlying tissues?

A. Infection
B. Closed wound
C. Open wound
D. Contusion
C. Open wound
What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges?

A. Puncture
B. Cut
C. Abrasion
D. Laceration
D. Laceration
For which of the following wounds, would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus booster?

A. Laceration
B. Cut
C. Puncture
D. Abrasion
C. Puncture
What is the first line of defense of the body?

A. Mucous membranes
B. Acidic secretions of the stomach
C. White blood cells
D. Skin
D. Skin
The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called

A. Healing
B. Infection
C. Inflammation
D. Immunity
C. Inflammation
The function of the healing process of a wound is to

A. Prevent inflammation of the wound
B. Control bleeding
C. Prevent infection of the wound
D. Restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
D. Restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
Which of the following is NOT a local sign of inflammation?

A. Swelling
B. Fever
C. Pain
D. Redness
B. Fever
What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process?

A. A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound.
B. The tissue becomes a translucent red color.
C. New capillaries grow.
D. Fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
A. A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound
What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process?

A. A scab forms.
B. Scar tissue forms.
C. Bleeding is controlled.
D. New skin is generated.
B. Scar tissue forms
Which of the following types of exudates contains pus?

A. Serosanguineous
B. Sanguineous
C. Serous
D. Purulent
D. Purulent
Which of the following types of exudates contains both serum and blood?

A. Sanguineous
B. Purulent
C. Serosanguineous
D. Serous
C. Serosanguineous
After a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to

A. Keep the dressing dry
B. Keep the dressing clean
C. Contact the office if signs of inflammation occur
D. Return for further care as directed by the physician
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
The function of sutures is to

A. Approximate a wound
B. Prevent inflammation
C. Prevent infection of a wound
D. Promote the formation of scar tissue
A. Approximate a wound
What is the name given to the type of sutures that are gradually digested by the body?

A. Absorbable sutures
B. Silk sutures
C. Swaged sutures
D. Nonabsorbable sutures
A. Absorbable sutures
Sutures inserted into the arms or legs are usually removed after

A. 7-14 days
B. 2 weeks
C. 24 hours
D. 3-5 days
A. 7-14 days
Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples?

A. Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
B. Better approximation of the edges of a wound
C. Faster healing of the wound
D. A local anesthetic is not required for their application
A. Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adhesive skin closures?

A. A local anesthetic is not required for their application.
B. They are easy to apply.
C. They are stronger than skin sutures.
D. They result in less scarring than sutures.
C. They are stronger than skin sutures.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a local anesthetic, such as Xylocaine?

A. Causes a brief stinging sensation
B. Begins working in 5-15 minutes
C. Has a duration of action of 1-3 hours
D. Produces a loss of sensation in a localized area
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
The purpose of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic is to

A. Prevent an allergic reaction
B. Prolong the effect of the anesthetic
C. Increase the rate of systemic absorption of the anesthetic
D. Reduce patient discomfort during the minor surgery
E. All of the above
B. Prolong the effect of the anesthetic
Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?

A. Asymmetric
B. Irregular border
C. Color varies from one area to another
D. Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
E. All of the above
E. All of the above