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Combo with "chap 19" and 2 others
Terms in this set (441)
Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane.
The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima.
Vasodilation is a widening of the lumen due to smooth muscle contraction.
Histologically, the ________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
The thick-walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular arteries.
Which statement best describes arteries?
All carry blood away from the heart.
The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________.
Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?
The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.
The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called ________.
A precapillary sphincter is a cuff of smooth muscle that regulates the flow of blood into the capillaries.
Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.
Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called ________.
The most common type of blood capillary is the ________.
Which of the following is not true regarding fenestrated capillaries?
Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier.
Which of the following is true about veins?
Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.
The pancreas is an example of an organ with arteries that do not anastomose.
Arteries supplying the same territory are often merged with one another, forming arterial anastomoses.
An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.
Peripheral resistance ________.
increases as blood viscosity increases
The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is ________.
significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius
Select the correct statement about blood flow.
Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output.
Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?
blood vessel diameter
Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.
Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.
Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase.
The pulse pressure is ________.
systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
Which of the choices below does not explain why low capillary pressures are desirable?
Low blood pressure is associated with longer life span than high blood pressure.
Arteriolar blood pressure increases in response to all but which of the following?
falling blood volume
Hypotension is generally considered systolic blood pressure that is below 100 mm Hg.
The carotid sinus reflex protects the blood supply to the brain, whereas the aortic reflex is more concerned with maintaining adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole.
Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure?
Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?
Aldosterone will ________.
promote an increase in blood pressure
Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?
Which of the following do not influence arterial pulse rate?
the vessel selected to palpate
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?
170/96 in a 50-year-old man
Mechanisms that do not help regulate blood pressure include ________.
the dural sinus reflex
A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except ________.
decreased size of the heart muscle
The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, primarily operate via all but which of the following?
altering blood volume
Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________.
The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?
changes in arterial pressure
What would be the effect of a high salt diet on blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer?
Increased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, increasing the total extracellular fluid volume.
How would a blow to the head that damages (disables) the vasomotor center affect blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer?
Damage to the vasomotor center will cause a loss of vasomotor tone and a drop in blood pressure, because the vasomotor center is the integrating center for blood pressure control.
How would an attack by a mugger effect blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer?
Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
Mr. Wilson is a 45-year-old stockbroker with essential hypertension. He is African American, obese, and he smokes 2-3 packs of cigarettes daily. What risk factors for hypertension are typified by Mr. Wilson? What complications are likely if corrective steps are not taken?
The risk factors are obesity, race, a high-stress job, and smoking. Complications could include atherosclerosis, heart failure, renal failure, and stroke.
A pregnant patient comes into a clinic and asks about a small dark bulge that is becoming more apparent on her leg. What is it and what caused it?
A varicose vein. The growing fetus puts downward pressure on the vessels of the groin and restricts the return of blood to the heart, causing the valves in the peripheral veins to begin to fail.
The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.
Every minute, about 1.5 ml of fluid leaks out of the capillaries.
Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid.
Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?
rapidly falling blood pressure
Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?
Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.
Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.
is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist
Blood flow to the skin ________.
increases when environmental temperature rises
Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?
hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?
vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone
The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________.
shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea
In the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries, hydrostatic pressure ________.
is the same as capillary blood pressure
Which of the choices below does not involve tissue perfusion?
The velocity of blood flow is ________.
slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by ________.
intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms
Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?
If blood pressure is almost normal in a person who has lost blood, does that mean the tissues are receiving adequate blood flow?
What is the effect of hypovolemic shock on the blood vessels and the heart?
Blood vessels constrict to increase venous return and maintain pressure. Heart rate increases to compensate for loss of blood pressure and to maintain cardiac output.
Which of the following would not result in the dilation of the feeder arterioles and opening of the precapillary sphincters in systemic capillary beds?
a local increase in pH
Mrs. Gray, a 50-year-old mother of seven children, is complaining of dull, aching pains in her legs. She reports that the pain has been getting progressively worse since the birth of her last child. During her physical examination, numerous varicosities are seen in both legs. What pathologic changes have occurred in these veins?
The veins have become tortuous and dilated because of incompetent valves that allow the blood to pool, stretching the vein walls.
Arterial pressure in the pulmonary circulation is much higher than in the systemic circulation because of its proximity to the heart.
The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is an arterial anastomosis.
The pulmonary circulation does not directly serve the metabolic needs of body tissues.
An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart.
The azygos vein originates in the abdomen.
Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?
right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium
A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ________.
right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is false?
It branches off of the inferior vena cava.
The term ductus venosus refers to ________.
a special fetal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver
Normal average blood pressure for a newborn baby is ________.
What do the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale become at birth?
ligamentum arteriosum; fossa ovalis
Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located?
carotid sinus and aortic arch
If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?
increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity
Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles?
decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following?
an increase in heart rate and contractility
A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following?
an increase in heart contractility
In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________.
The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________.
capillary; interstitial fluid
Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary?
34 mm Hg
The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________.
proteins in the blood
Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary?
net osmotic pressure
Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?
Examine the lower left figure of Focus Figure 19.17. Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable membrane separating the solutions on either side. Predict what will occur to the water level if large nondiffusible solutes are added only to the left arm of the tube.
The water level on the left side of the U-tube will rise.
Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable capillary membrane made of simple squamous epithelium separating the solutions on either side. Blood will be on the left side of the tube, and watery extracellular fluid (ECF) will be on the right side of the tube. Predict what will occur to the water levels by hydrostatic pressure, the pressure of watery fluid pushing on a boundary.
A pump pushing down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood will increase ECF fluid levels on the right side.
Which layer of the typical blood vessel is constructed from simple squamous epithelium?
Which layer of the typical vessel can be regulated via vasoconstriction or vasodilation?
What is the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall for an artery or vein?
Which type of vessel contains elastin in all three tunics to allow the vessel to expand and recoil as the heart ejects blood?
What type of vessel has relatively more smooth muscle and less elastic tissue?
What type of vessel has relatively little smooth muscle or elastin in the tunica media, a large lumen (average of 5.0 mm in diameter), and thin walls (average of 0.5 mm)?
What type of tissue is found in the walls of the arteries but not in the walls of capillaries and venules?
The aorta is an example of a(n) __________.
Which capillaries are the most common in the body?
Gas and nutrient exchanges between the blood and tissues take place at the __________.
Leaky capillaries found in the bone marrow are called __________.
All capillary beds are continuously perfused with blood.
Varicose veins seen in the superficial veins of the legs are unsightly and often treated by surgically removing them. However, even without these veins being present, the return of all blood toward the heart from the legs is not diminished primarily because ______.
blood can still return via the deep veins
Which of the following is true about veins?
Veins have valves; arteries do not.
Veins carry only oxygen deficient blood.
Which of the following is NOT an important source of resistance to blood flow?
total blood volume
Which of the following would decrease peripheral resistance to blood flow?
Vasodilation will result in increased blood flow to a given tissue.
Why is it important that blood pressure drop to lower levels as it reaches the capillary beds?
Because capillaries are fragile and extremely permeable.
__________ is the pressure that propels blood to the tissues.
Mean arterial pressure
A sustained blood pressure of 140/90 or greater indicates hypertension in the patient.
Calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP) if systolic blood pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure is 70 mm Hg.
87 mm Hg
What blood vessel experiences the steepest drop in blood pressure?
What vessels sustain a drop in pressure from approximately 35 mm Hg to around 17 mm Hg?
Which of the following is a long-term mechanism for maintaining blood pressure?
Which of the following will lower blood pressure?
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Which of the following is involved in long-term blood pressure regulation?
Which of the following is a stimulus in local autoregulation of blood flow?
Which of the following would experience a decreased blood flow during exercise?
Which hormone of the indirect renal mechanism promotes sodium reabsorption by the kidneys to increase mean arterial pressure?
Which of the following is NOT one of the four ways in which angiotensin II works to increase arterial blood pressure and extracellular fluid volume?
Angiotensin II promotes vasodilation that decreases peripheral resistance.
Which of the following would be interrupted in the indirect renal mechanism if angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is blocked from performing its job?
conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II
Which of the following is a metabolic factor that influences blood flow?
low oxygen levels
Which of the following promotes vasodilation?
Which of the following intrinsic mechanisms (autoregulation) for controlling arteriolar smooth muscle diameter promotes vasoconstriction?
Which of the following is NOT a capillary transport mechanism?
Which of the following would be a result of anaphylaxis (a systemic allergic reaction)?
When albumin levels in the blood are below normal, fluid absorption from the tissues into the bloodstream increases.
What pressure is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling fluids into the venous end of capillaries?
osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)
What is the value for the net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriolar end of the capillary?
10 mm Hg
Assume a person is experiencing a hemorrhage and the HPc has dropped to 23 mm Hg at the arteriole end of the capillary. Calculate net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriole end of the capillary.
-2 mm Hg
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood?
Which vessel leaves the right ventricle of the heart to take oxygen-poor, dark red blood into pulmonary circulation?
Which vessel(s) return(s) oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart to complete the pulmonary circuit?
Which vessel(s) of the pulmonary circuit transport(s) oxygen-rich blood?
Which of the following would NOT move by diffusion across a capillary endothelium to or from the surrounding interstitial fluid and tissues?
Which organ's blood flow pattern results in low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high oxygen levels causing vasodilation?
Which vein carries nutrient rich blood from the digestive system to the liver?
hepatic portal vein
Blood from the lower limbs is returned to the heart via the __________.
inferior vena cava
The inferior vena cava carries blood __________ the __________ of the heart.
to; right atrium
Substances absorbed in the intestines would be routed to the liver via the __________.
hepatic portal vein
From what artery does the right common carotid artery arise?
Which artery branches off the subclavian arteries? Select from letters A-D.
Which vessel sends branches to the thyroid, larynx, tongue, skin, and muscles of the anterior face and posterior scalp? Select from letters A-D.
Which artery branches into the common hepatic artery, splenic artery, and left gastric artery? Select from letters A-D.
Which artery serves the distal part of the large intestine via its left colic, sigmoidal, and superior rectal branches? Select from letters A-D.
Which artery serves nearly all of the small intestine via the intestinal arteries and most of the large intestine via the ileocolic, middle colic, and right colic arteries? Select from letters A-D.
Which vein is the longest in the body and empties into the femoral vein? Select from letters A-D.
What vein is formed from the union of the anterior tibial vein and posterior tibial vein? Select from letters A-D.
Which vein becomes the external iliac vein as it enters the pelvis? Select from letters A-D.
Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a ________.
relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2 ms) when the heart is repolarizing
Blood in the heart chambers provides some nutrients to the heart muscle cells.
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.
pump blood with greater pressure
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.
The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.
The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.
Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?
Which chamber of the heart sends oxygenated blood to the aorta to the systemic circuit?
Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary circuit?
Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will______.
prevent the heart from filling properly with blood
The greater the mass of tissue in an organ, the greater is its need for an adequate blood supply. Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the site of a myocardial infarction?
The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs
The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.
Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.
The left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right.
Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.
The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.
Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?
Ventricles are in diastole
The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.
The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.
pumps blood against a greater resistance
If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.
decreased delivery of oxygen
When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.
noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.
The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.
A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?
A drug that inhibits the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand, relieving the chest pain.
Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.
Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?
What causes normal heart sounds?
heart valve closure
The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are: __________.
epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
The heart has __________ chambers and __________ valves.
Which of the following does NOT deliver blood to the right atrium?
The role of the coronary arteries is to __________.
supply blood to the heart tissue
Which of the following is NOT a difference between the left and right ventricles?
The left ventricle receives a smaller percentage of coronary blood supply than the right ventricle.
The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Which of the following is a branch of the right coronary artery?
posterior interventricular artery
Which artery serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart?
right marginal artery
From what vessel do the left and right coronary arteries arise?
What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?
Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?
Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?
Which of the following is NOT a vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart?
Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?
Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?
In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.
resting membrane potential
Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.
has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?
Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?
What is the source of ATP for cardiac muscle contraction?
Which of the following is NOT a difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle?
Cardiac muscle does not use the sliding filament mechanism for contraction; skeletal muscle does.
Which statement regarding cardiac muscle structure is accurate?
Myofibrils of cardiac muscle tissue vary in diameter and branch extensively.
Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
Which functional feature best describes the manner in which cardiac muscle contracts?
Automaticity (autorhythmicity) promotes the spontaneous contraction of the cardiac muscle cells.
When an ectopic pacemaker leads to an extrasystole, the ______.
ventricles contract before the atria contract
An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ______.
Heart murmurs caused by a stenotic mitral valve ______.
are detected while blood flow into the left ventricle is reduced
Hypercalcemia could cause ______.
prolonged T wave
Which of the following cannot trigger tachycardia?
increased vagal tone
Congestive heart failure means that the pumping efficiency of the heart is depressed so that there is inadequate delivery of blood to body tissues.
Chronic release of excess thyroxine can cause a sustained increase in heart rate and a weakened heart.
The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.
Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.
An ECG provides direct information about valve function.
As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.
Proxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little pause between them.
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
closure of the heart valves
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________.
a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.
To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.
second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells ________.
tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________.
causing threshold to be reached more quickly
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.
the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
Which of these vessels receives blood during ventricular systole?
both the aorta and pulmonary trunk
Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?
The tricuspid valve is closed ________.
when the ventricle is in systole
Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.
The heart reflects the presence of gap junctions and the activity of the hearts conduction system.
The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________.
threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
Select the correct statement about cardiac output.
A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.
During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.
some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
Isovolumetric contraction ________.
refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for further complications?
Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack.
An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the AV node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment?
Surgery to implant an artificial pacemaker
A patient was admitted to the hospital with chest pains. On admission, his pulse was 110 and blood pressure was 96/64. According to his history, his normal pulse rate is usually between 80 and 88 and his blood pressure runs from 120/70 to 130/80. Why did these changes in BP and HR occur?
To maintain the same cardiac output, the heart rate would need to increase to compensate for a decreased stroke volume.
A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion, and of needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms either reflect left-sided and/or right-sided heart failure?
Left side failure results in shortness of breath. Right side failure results in edema in the extremities.
Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity. Would defibrillation be effective in this situation?
Defibrillation would not be effective: it interrupts chaotic electrical activity in the heart, and if there is no electrical activity, then there is nothing to interrupt.
Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block.
A foramen ovale ________.
connects the two atria in the fetal heart
Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole?
During the period of ventricular filling ________.
blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open AV valves into the ventricles
Which of the following structures sets the pace of heart contraction?
What does the T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?
Which of the following is NOT a factor that regulates stroke volume?
What is afterload?
back pressure exerted by arterial blood
The heart's pacemaker is the __________.
The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is __________.
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
A premature ventricular contraction is classified as a(n) __________.
The QRS complex on an electrocardiogram represents __________.
The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________.
closure of the atrioventricular valves
Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description?
quiescent period: total heart relaxation between heartbeats
In a healthy individual which of the following would be low?
Which of the following would increase heart rate?
At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart?
75 beats of the heart per minute
Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?
sinoatrial (SA) node
Which of the following pacemaker cells generates impulses of approximately 75 depolarizations per minute in order to control the heart's contraction rate?
sinoatrial (SA) node
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization wave received from the sinoatrial (SA) node through the atria?
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?
During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atria contract?
Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves. Select from letters A-D.
Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm. Select from letters A-D.
Determine which ECG shows a mostly 2:1 ratio of P waves to QRS waves. Select from letters A-D.
What is the period during the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are completely closed chambers and blood volume in the chambers remains constant as the ventricles contract?
isovolumetric contraction phase
At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg)?
How long is the cardiac cycle, assuming the heart beats 75 times per minute?
Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?
increasing extracellular potassium levels
Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.
Which of the following increases stroke volume?
Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.
A patent ductus arteriosus permits ______.
blood to flow from the aorta into the pulmonary trunk
Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.
Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?
thinning of the valve flaps
The pulmonary circuit is not active in the developing fetus.
The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?
Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?
Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?
Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?
Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart?
What does the ECG wave tracing represent?
electrical activity in the heart
What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing?
Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing?
Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles?
Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?
increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
Which of the following would increase heart rate?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?
By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?
increased end diastolic volume
How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?
decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output
Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.
Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?
Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.
Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.
What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?
greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle
Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.
isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation
Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?
AV valves only
What is the main function of heart valves?
to prevent backward flow of blood
When the atria contract, which of the following is true?
The ventricles are in diastole.
Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric contraction?
The end diastolic volume (EDV)
Which of the following is true during ventricular systole?
The AV valves are closed.
During the ventricular ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is true?
The semilunar valves are open.
Most of the decrease in ventricular volume takes place during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric relaxation?
end systolic volume (ESV)
Most of the increase in left ventricular volume takes place during what phase of the cardiac cycle?
In what direction does blood flow through the heart?
from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure
Atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
At what point during the cardiac cycle does the AV valve close?
when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve open?
when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure
Ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve close?
when pressure in the ventricle becomes less than aortic pressure
Isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by which of the following?
The semilunar and AV valves are closed.
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the AV valve open?
when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure
Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?
One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?
When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?
Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?
voltage-gated potassium channels
In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?
the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells
Select the correct partial path below. This path is part of the complete blood flow pathway. You should be able to trace flow starting in any location.
Aorta to smaller systemic arteries to systemic capillaries to systemic veins to right atrium through the tricuspid valve
In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?
white blood cells and platelets
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
The __________ is the fluid portion of the blood.
The majority of whole blood is __________.
What does dark red blood indicate?
Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to osmotic pressure?
The main protein in blood plasma is __________.
Athletes who choose to use industry-produced EPO as a performance-enhancing drug to increase the effects of their naturally-produced EPO, will experience ______.
decreased production of EPO by their kidneys
In a cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy, the decision to utilize a CSF capable of specifically stimulating the production of only the granular leukocytes would require that the CSF acts exclusively on ______.
Which of the formed elements contains hemoglobin and transports respiratory gases?
Which of the following is NOT a functional characteristic of leukocytes?
Which leukocyte functions in phagocytizing bacteria?
Which of the following is NOT a formed element of the blood?
Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.
It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups.
In adults, red blood cell production occurs in __________.
red bone marrow
Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?
Bilirubin is cleared from the body by __________.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
pernicious anemia: results from a vitamin B12 deficiency
An abnormal excess of erythrocytes is called __________.
The most abundant leukocytes are __________.
On a blood smear slide prepared using Wright's stain, you observe a large cell with a U-shaped nucleus and pale blue cytoplasm. This cell is most likely a(n) __________.
Platelet formation is regulated by __________.
Erythrocytes lack a nucleus.
All leukocytes are also lymphocytes.
When a person has an acute bacterial infection, such as meningitis or appendicitis, which type of leukocyte increases in number?
Which type of leukocyte is responsible for antibody production?
When we take anti-histamines, we are countering the effects of which type of leukocyte?
What do the lymphoid stem cells give rise to?
Which cell of the myeloid stem cell pathway has accumulated granules?
From which cell do the granulocytes descend?
What part of the pathway to produce platelets is shared with other formed elements?
hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)
Which formed element can be described as cytoplasmic fragments?
Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?
Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave discs.
What is the name of the protein found in erythrocytes that allows for respiratory gas transport?
What triggers erythropoietin (EPO) production to make new red blood cells?
reduced availability of oxygen
Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds carbon dioxide for transport?
amino acids of globin
How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?
When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, what bright red molecule is formed?
Specifically, what is the production of red blood cells called?
What is a young, anucleate erythrocyte called?
What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?
What part of the hemoglobin molecule is recycled to form bile?
a portion of the heme group
What erythrocyte production disorder results from an autoimmune disease associated with vitamin B12 absorption?
What role do the kidneys play in erythropoiesis?
The kidneys detect low levels of oxygen in the blood.
Which of the following is NOT a part of hemostasis?
What protein involved in coagulation provides the scaffolding for tissue repair?
What is an embolus?
a blood clot that has broken loose and is floating freely in the bloodstream
Hemostasis leads to __________.
stoppage of bleeding
The first step in hemostasis is __________.
Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways?
One is faster than the other.
The enzyme __________ digests fibrin clots.
Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder?
excess calcium in the diet
Which of the following is best suited to the clotting process that occurs when blood vessels are ruptured?
Which event of hemostasis constricts the damaged artery to reduce blood loss? Select from letters A-D.
During which event of hemostasis do clotting factors (procoagulants) assist with the transformation of blood from a liquid to a gel? Select from letters A-D.
What "clot buster" enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred during fibrinolysis?
During erythroblastosis fetalis, a Rh- mother's anti-Rh antibodies that have crossed the placenta will cause agglutination of the fetus's Rh+ RBCs. However, the reverse problem never happens when a Rh+ mother is pregnant with a Rh- fetus, that is, antibodies produced by the fetus cannot cause agglutination of the mother's Rh+ RBCs. This is true because ______.
antibodies that can cause this agglutination are not produced by a fetus
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal donor?
A person who lacks agglutinogens A and B would have blood type __________.
Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
B- female pregnant with an AB+ baby
Choose the compatible transfusion.
Donate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
A person's blood type is genetically determined.
What is hematocrit a measure of?
Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.
Which of the following does NOT serve as a site for blood cell production in the developing fetus?
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
transport of salts to maintain blood volume
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
prevention of blood loss
Which of the following statements does not describe blood?
Blood carriers body cells to injured areas for repair
Which of the following is true about blood plasma?
It is about 90% water.
The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ________.
The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin.
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.
Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.
Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas.
Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.
All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.
Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is ________.
within the normal range
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________.
low blood viscosity
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________.
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
They are nucleated.
stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
Complications of aplastic anemia generally do not include ________.
increase of leukocytes as a result of erythrocyte loss
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.
The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes.
Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?
Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.
rate of erythrocyte formation
Select the incorrect statement regarding blood cell formation.
Platelets are formed from myeloblasts.
Which of the following is not a structural characteristic that contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions?
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________.
Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?
sleeping in a well-ventilated room
The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
The slowest step in the clotting process is ________.
formation of prothrombin activator
Thromboembolic disorders ________.
include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system
Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?
excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
Which sequence is correct for the following events?
1. fibrinogen → fibrin
2. clot retraction
3. formation of thromboplastin
4. prothrombin → thrombin
3, 4, 1, 2
All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________.
The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.
Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.
receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
Blood volume restorers include all of the following except ________.
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?
if the father is Rh-
Why would there be cause for concern if a young pregnant mother is Rh-, her husband is Rh+, and this is their second child?
If the second child is Rh+ and the mother did not take RhoGAM, there is a chance that the child will develop erythroblastosis fetalis and die before birth.
Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
Which of the statements below is an incorrect or false statement?
Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion.
When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells on a slide, the blood type is ________.
A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?
The differential count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types. The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs.
A patient complains of no energy, a chronic sore throat, a low-grade fever, and is tired and achy. His doctor notes an enlarged spleen upon examination. What diagnosis would you expect, and what definitive test would you request?
The diagnosis is infectious mononucleosis. The test would be a differential white blood cell count to look for elevated numbers of monocytes and atypical lymphocytes.
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________.
Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
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