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Psychopharm Unit 3 MC Questions

Terms in this set (137)

The central nervous system includes
the brain and spinal cord
______ cells are specialized glia that are found in the _______ and are responsible for making cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Ependymal; choroid plexus
The ______ nervous system is responsible for energy ______.
parasympathetic; storage
With regard to glial cells, _____ form the myelin sheath in the CNS, while ______ help maintain the ionic and chemical environment.
oligodendroglia; astrocytes
Which of the following is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system?
spinal cord
What is the main thing that differentiates glia from neurons?
glia undergo mitosis, neurons do not
What would be the effect of the cardiac glycosides digoxin and oubain on a neuron?
Following an action potential, the cell would remain significantly hyperpolarized.
Local anesthetics, such as novocaine, have their effects by
blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels
Synaptic vesicles are filled with neurotransmitters:
through the actions of a protein-proton pump
Drugs that block the action of plasma membrane transporter proteins would be expected to _______; drugs that facilitate the action these transporters would be expected to ______.
Increase the level of neurotransmitter in the synapse; decrease the level of NT in the synapse
Which of the following has the most subtypes of vesicular transporters?
glutamate
The efficacy of a drug is proportional to:
the percentage of receptors occupied by the drug
Drugs that block the function of proton (H+) pumps would be expected to
both b and c
-decrease the vesicular storage of NT
-reduce the amount of NT available for release
Which of the following most accurately describes the process involved in protein synthesis?
transcription factors activate promoter region--> transcription of mRNA--> translation by ribosomes
The binding of a drug molecule to a receptor
is a dynamic process of association and disassociation
The functional difference between the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is:
the SNS prepares the body for a sudden expenditure of energy and the PSNS handles routine functions
Which of the following cell types is responsible for creating cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) in the central nervous system?
ependymal cells
One of the first steps in the synthesis of a new protein is:
transcription factor binding
Which of the following serve as calcium sensors in vehicles?
synaptotagmins
At receptor XYZ, drug A has a Kd = 150 nM and drug B has a Kd = 15 nM. What can you say about the affinity of these drugs at the XYZ receptor?
Drug B has a higher affinity than drug A
The resting potential is caused by
the uneven distribution of ions inside and outside the cell.
If a neurotransmitter has the effect of depolarizing the membrane at a synapse, this may be referred to as:
(both A and B)
excitation and EPSP
An inverse agonist
reduces the activity of a constitutively active receptor
The type of ligands that have NO DIRECT EFFECT on receptor after binding (ie: do not induce a conformational change) are called
antagonists
Both agonists and antagonists have _____, but only agonists have apparent _______.
affinity; efficacy
At the neuromuscular junction, the storage pool with the greatest amount of NT is the
reserve pool
Which of the following has/have the most subtypes of vesicular transporters?
glutamate
In a myelinated axon, action potentials are regenerated:
at gaps in the myelin known as nodes of Ranvier
A drug that exerts an effect similar to, and occupies the same receptor site as, the naturally occurring compound is termed:
an agonist
If you administer a drug that is known to be an agonist that selectively targets autoreceptors, which of the following is the most likely effect that you would observe?
There is a decrease in NT release.
For most drugs, especially those that are used therapeutically, main effects are the result of:
drug action at target sites
Vesicular transporters
have 12 transmembrane domains
When a neuron is at its resting potential, the ion channels that are open are:
passive K+ channels
The event that leads to the generation of the action potential is
opening a large number of Na+ channels
Ligand-gated ion channels are composed of multiple subunits, each with
four to five transmembrane domains
Neurotransmitter can be released from:
all of the above:
axon terminals, glial cells, and dendrites
Which of the following is one of the important roles of Na+/K+ ATPases?
maintain cell volume by preventing the cell from swelling and bursting due to osmosis
Ligands that bind to a receptor and fail to produce a conformational change in the receptor are called
antagonists
Vesicles originate from
endosomes
Ligand-gated ion channels are ______; G protein coupled receptors are ______.
fast/ionotropic ; slow/metabotropic
__________ receptors mediate the effects of neurotrophic factors.
tyrosine kinase
When a ligand binds to a trk receptor
receptor subunits dimerize
When a GPCR is in its basal state
the alpha subunit is bound to GDP and is associated with the beta and gamma subunits
In a ligand-gated ion channel, there are ______ transmembrane domains in each of the _______ subunits of the receptor.
four; five
Which of the following proteins families is most directly involved in vesicle docking?
SNARES
Which of the following is NOT one of the important roles of Na+/K+ ATPases?
maintain the action potential
The Na+-K+ pump exists because:
Na+ leaks into the cell
The three critical events in vesicle fusion are (in chronological order)
tethering, docking, fusion
Autoreceptors regulate neurotransmitter release by:
decreasing the probability of Ca2+ channels being opened and thereby reducing release
Inverse agonists:
alter the constitutive activity (i.e. normally constant activity) of a receptor
It is estimated that:
about 10-20% of action potentials lead to neurotransmitter release.
The vesicular transporter
co-transports protons in the opposite direction when it moves neurotransmitters across the membrane
The protein kinase that is typically associated with cyclic AMP is
protein kinase A (PKA)
The efficacy of a drug:
is proportional to the percentage of receptors occupied by the drug.
Intrinsic activity is:
a measure of the ability of a drug to produce a biological effect
An important step in the termination of signaling at G-protein coupled receptors is
the alpha subunit hydrolyzes GTP to GDP
This family of proteins is critically involved in vesicle docking
Rab
Radioligand binding assays:
allow you to quantify receptor binding sites
Neuroendocrine communication differs from classical, synaptic communication because:
hormones can act both locally and at distant target sites
When an agonist binds to a receptor, it typically...
produces a conformational change in the receptor
Which of these receptors have a subunit with 7 transmembrane domains?
G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)
Receptors for steroid hormones are found:
d. none of the above
The law of mass action suggests that if the concentration of the drug is decreased, while the number of receptors are held constant, the reaction (i.e., formation of drug-receptor complexes) will be driven towards:
the left
Neurotransmitters can be inactivated by
all of the above
-re-uptake at glial cells
-re-uptake at neurons via transporters
-enzymatic degradation
When an antagonist binds to a ligand-gated ion channel, what happens?
nothing
The protein kinase that is associated with the phosphoinositide second messenger system is
Protein Kinase C
The two main subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are:
sympathetic and parasympathetic
Based on the concept of homeostatic control, you might expect drugs that block the action of transporter proteins to:
decrease the number of postsynaptic receptors for the endogenous neurotransmitter
Local anesthetics, such as lidocaine, have their effects by
blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels
Ligands that have no effect on a receptor after binding are called
antagonists
Which of the following is a ligand at trk receptors?
brain derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for _____ functions and uses _____ as its neurotransmitter(s).
fight or flight ; acetylcholine and norepinephrine
When an agonist binds to an ionotropic receptor
the receptor undergoes a conformational change, the associated channel opens, and ions can move in or out of the cell
Docking of vesicles occurs
at the active zone
Which of the following best describes the sequence of steps following the activation of a metabotropic receptor?
activation of G protein--> change in activity of effector enzyme--> change in second messenger levels--> activation of protein kinase
The alpha subunit of a G-protein
forms a dissociable complex with beta and gamma subunits
CRB and c-fos are
transcription factors
In the functional cycle fo G protein activity, termination of the signal results when
the alpha subunit hydrolyzes GTP to GDP
The vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT) is composed of ______ transmembrane domains.
12
Heteroreceptors are:
presynaptic receptors activated by chemicals released from the postsynaptic cell of nearby cells
An EPSP could be caused by which of the following?
calcium moving inside the cell
Axoplasmic transport is the process whereby:
proteins are moved to the parts of the cell where they become functional.
At the neuromuscular junction:
acetylcholine esterase is released along with acetylcholine.
You performed a radioligand assay and learned your new drug, Groovystuff, has a Kd at 5-HT2 receptors of 15 nM. An old drug, Funnystuff, has a Kd = 20 nM. Which of the following is true?
Groovystuff has a higher affinity at 5-HT2 receptors than Funnystuff does.
The immediate effect of an agonist-induced conformational change at a metabotropic receptor is:
the alpha subunit dissociates from the beta-gamma subunit
Ligand-gated receptors are composed of ________ subunit (s).
both A and B
(4 and 5 subunits)
A metabotropic receptor returns to its basal state:
when the GDP-bound alpha subunit re-associates with the beta-gamma complex
Agonist binding to a GPCR that contains an alpha subunit of the Gs class can result in
increased adenylyl cyclase activity
___ is an enzyme found only in presynaptic nerve terminals, whereas _______ is an enzyme found only in vesicles.
c. MAO;DBH
The nerve gas sarin acts as an irreversible inhibitor of:
acetylcholine esterase
Which of the following is a norepinephrine receptor subtype that is found presynaptically?
alpha 2
The primary effector for dopamine receptors is
adenylyl cyclase (AC)
Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
acteylcholinesterase
Acetylcholine projection neurons originate in the:
basal forebrain cholinergic system
Dephosphorylation of tyrosine hydroxylase leads to:
reductions in dopamine synthesis.
Novocaine and tetrodotoxin (TTX) are both
inhibitors of sodium channels
The term "volume transmission" refers to
diffusion of NT outside the synapse
Dopamine neurons in the nigrostriatal pathway originate in the __________, whereas those in the mesolimbic pathway originates in the _______.
substantial nigra; ventral tegmental area
GABAa and GABAc receptors are permeable to _________ and their activation leads to an _____ in the cell on which they are located.
Cl- ; IPSP
The metabolism of dopamine leads to the accumulation of
DOPAC
Which of the following is a monoamine or biogenic amine neurotransmitter
5-HT
Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesizde from _____ through the actions of _____.
arginine ; nitric oxide synthase (NOS)
The rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of serotonin is:
tryptophan hydroxylase
Which of the following is a means by which a drug can alter the functioning of a synapse?
all of the above

a. decreasing the activity of the enzyme that destroys a NT
b. blocking the receptor site for a NT
c. altering the reuptake of an NT
Nitric oxide is unique because it is
released from the postsynaptic neuron.
Which of the following is a gas at room temperature and appears to act as a neurotransmitter in the brain?
carbon monoxide
Black widow spider venom is
an acetylcholine releaser in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
In acetylcholine synthesis,
choline comes from the diet and the liver.
Dopamine and norepinephrine re-uptake transporters have
12 transmembrane domains
Nitric oxide (NO):
is synthesized on demand in response to rising Ca2+ concentrations
In order for an NMDA receptor to become activated and allow ions to flow, what has to occur?
Glutamate and its co-agonist glycine have to bind and the membrane must be depolarized.
The precursor of glutamate, which is found in both neurons and astrocytes, is
glutamine
You have just discovered a new drug and you hypothesize that its primary pharmacological effect is to act as an agonist at D3 receptors. Which of the following would be consistent with that hypothesis?
adenylyl cyclase activity is decreased following administration of your drug
Injection of hemicholinium-3 (HC-3) would lead to a relative depletion of acetylcholine that is available for release because:
it blocks the choline transporter.
At the NET, the transport of norepinephrine is associated with the transport of
2 Na+ and 1 Cl-
The B7 and B8 cell groups, which are the primary source of 5-HT neurons in the brain, originate in:
the raphe nuclei.
Which of the following is consistent with the concept of "volume transmission" in dopamine-releasing neurons?
the DAT is primarily localized outside the synapse.
Most of the cells that produce norepinephrine in the CNS are found in the:
locus coeruleus (LC)
A drug that inhibits acetylcholine esterase will:
increase synaptic levels of acetylcholine
Sildenafil, which is better known by its trade name Viagra, has its characteristic effect of increasing blood flow and thereby treating erectile dysfunction because:
it inhibits cGMP phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the effects of cGMP.
Most of the 5-HT projection neurons in the CNS originate in the
raphe nuclei
The mesocortical dopamine pathway is part of the
A10 cell group
Activation of terminal autoreceptors inhibits DA release by
decreasing Ca2+ entry into the terminal.
Tyrosine can be synthesized in the liver by
phenylalanine hydroxylase
The dopamine (DA) pathway most important for regulating movement is the ________ pathway.
nigrostriatal
Which of the following is an AChE inhibitor?
neistigmine
One potential effect of DA acting on D4 receptors is an
decrease in adenylyl cyclase activity
End-product inhibition of tyrosine hydroxylase is maximal when
catecholamine neurons are not active
The rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of dopamine is
tyrosine hydroxylase
What does the drug vesamicol do?
Blocks the vesicular ACh transporter
Which of the following brain areas is not part of the basal forebrain cholinergic system (BCFS)?
globus pallidus
The dopamine transporter has __ transmembrane domains
12
6-hydroxydopamine (6-OHDA) is a(n) ______ used to_____.
neurotoxin; damage catecholamine neurons
Which of the following is likely a consequence of the drug reserpine?
monoamines are depleted
Which of the following makes nitric oxide unique as a neurotransmitter?
It is synthesized from arginine following postsynaptic increases in Ca2+.
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) is:
All of the above
The two most important enzymes in the metabolism of monoamines are
COMT and MAO.
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