Gelatinous vascular CT richly endowed with hematopoietic cells
Describe the morphology of bone marrow.
Destroy extruded nuclei of RBC precursors, malformed cells, and excess cytoplasm.
What is the role of macrophages in the bone marrow?
WBCs and platelets
RBC
At 5 months, the fetal bone marrow begins to produce ____, but ____ production doesn't begin until about 7 months.
bone marrow of vertebrae, ribs, skull, pelvis, and proximal femurs
WHere does hemopoiesis occur in adulthood?
Extramedullary hemopoiesis
____ is the development of hemopoietic activity in the liver and spleen in response to diseased bone marrow
Newborn bone marrow is actively engaged in RBC production, hence, it is called red marrow. At about 20 years old, there is an accumulation of fat and absence of hemopoiesis in the shafts of long bones, hence it is called yellow marrow
Describe the changes that occur in the bone marrow with age.
bone marrow and sites of blood cell formation, very few can be found in peripheral blood
Where are pluripotential stem cells found?
Committed progenitor cells
____ are unipotential, which means they are capable of forming only one cell line and they have limited self-renewal capacity.
Committed precursor cells
____ have specific morphological characteristics that permit them to be identified as first cell of particular cell line. They are incapable of self-renewal.
Colony forming unit-GEMM (CFU-GEMM)
Colony forming unit-lymphocyte (CFU-Ly)
List the two principal multipotential stem cells that are derived from the pluripotential stem cell.
colony forming units (CFUs)
Under proper conditions, ____ can occasionally give rise to groups of cells composed of granulocytes, RBCs, monocytes, lymphocytes, and platelets.
PHSC > CFU-GEMM >BFU-E > CFU-E > proerythroblast > basophilic E > polychromatophilic E > orthochromatophilic E > reticulocyte > erythrocyte
Stage of development of an erythrocyte.
PHSC > CFU-GEMM> CFU-Eosinophil > myeloblast > promyelocyte > Eo. myelocyte > Eo. metamyelocyte > Eo. stab > eosinophil
Stage of development of eosinophil.
PHSC > CFU-GEMM > CFU-Basophil > myeloblast > promyelocyte > Ba. myelocyte >Ba. metamyelocyte > Ba. stab > basophil
Stage of development of basophil.
PHSC > CFU-GEMM > CFU-GM > CFU-G > myeloblast > promyelocyte > N myelocyte > N metamyelocyte > N stab > neutrophil
Stage of development of neutrophil.
PHSC > CFU-GEMM > CFU-GM > CFU-M (monoblast) > promonocyte > monocyte
Stage of development of monocyte.
PHSC > CFU-Ly > CFU-Ly T > T lymphocyte > T lymphoblast > T lymphocyte
Stage of development of T lymphocyte.
PHSC > CFU-Ly > CFU-Ly B > B lymphocyte > B lymphoblast > B lymphocyte
Stage of development of B lymphocyte.
Induce rapid mitosis (proliferation), differentiation, or both. Some also promote function of mature blood cells.
What are the general effects of growth factors?
colony stimulating factors (CSFs)
____ cause proliferation and maturation/activation of precursors/progenitor cells of the granulocytic and monocytic series.
Stimulate growth and proliferation following excessive loss due to chemotherapy.
Stimulate increased blood cell population in light of chronic anemia
How might growth factors be used in the clinic setting, especially in cases of chemotherapy and chronic anemia?
Bone marrow sinusoids, reticular support cells, extracellular matrix containing collagen, laminin, and fibronectin facilitate adhesion of hematopoietic cells to marrow stroma. In addition, proteoglycans such as chondroitin sulfate, hyaluronic acid, and heparan sulfate may bind to growth factors to control hemopoiesis.
How does bone marrow create an environment for hemopoiesis?
Steel factor
____ is produced by stromal cells of the bone marrow and inserted into their cell membranes.
Controls mitotic activation of pluri-, multi-, and uni-potential stem cells. Each of these must come into contact with Steel factor before they can become mitotically active.
What role does Steel factor play?
proerythroblast
Precursor of erythrocyte: ____ 25 μm, divides to form 8-16 cells; large acidophilic nucleus, rim of basophilic cytoplasm.
basophilic erythroblast
Precursor of erythrocyte: ____ smaller cell, basophilic cytoplasm, perinuclear halo
polychromatic erythroblast
Precursor of erythrocyte: ____ smoothed cytoplasm, enlarging amount of cytoplasm.
orthochromatic erythroblast
Precursor of erythrocyte: ____ pinkish hue to cytoplasm, visible nucleolus
decreasing cell size
hemoglobin production
decrease & eventual loss of all organelles
change of stain from intense basophilia (from polyribosomes) to eosinophilia
condensation and eventual extrusion of nucleus
What are 5 cellular changes that occur during erythropoiesis?
Orthochromatic erythroblast
At which stage does the developing erythroblast lose the ability to divide?
They basically determine how actively RBCs are produced. More importantly, they point to causes of anemia, whether it is from decreased RBC production or increased RBC destruction.
Describe how reticulocyte counts are used in clinical practice.
body is actively trying to combat anemia by producing more RBCs
What is the significance of an elevated reticulocyte count?
myeloblast
Precursor of granulocyte: ____ has a large cell with huge nucleus, obvious nucleoli, scanty cytoplasm with few granules
promyelocyte
Precursor of granulocyte: ____ more abundant cytoplasm, more primary granules, nucleoli are still present
myelocyte
Precursor of granulocyte: ____ flattening/invagination of one face of nucleus, cytoplasm contains mixture of granules; nucleoli disappear.
Basophils
____ are readily distinguishable at the early myelocyte stage by their huge abundance of granules.
Nucleoli disappear, nuclei shrink and become lobulated/cleft, cytoplasm grows and fills up with granules
What are the changes that occur during differentiation and maturation of granulocytes?
Early myelocyte stage
What is the stage at which developing granulocytes can be distinguished from one another?
bacterial infection
What is the clinical significance of finding neutrophilic band cells in a peripheral blood smear?