How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

218 terms

AP Bio Exam Review

STUDY
PLAY
ATP
This is a high energy molecule that is not a polymer
Carbohydrates
This organic group is made up of C, H, and O only
Lipids
This organic group contains C, H, O, and P
Glucose
This molecule has the formula C6H12O6
Maltose
What is the disaccharide formed from this reaction; glucose + glucose
Fatty acid
This molecule consists of long chains of carbons and hydrogens
Carboxyl
This functional group has a carbon bonded to a hydroxide and the same carbon double bonded to an oxygen
Liquid
What state are unsaturated fats in at room temperature
Triacylglycerol; Triglyceride
This molecule is formed by 3 fatty acids combined with a glycerol backbone
Phospholipid
This molecule is highly amphipathic
Amino Acids
These make up proteins
Dehydration; Condensation
These are types of reactions for water
Peptide bond
This bond is made when the hydroxide of one amino acid binds with the ammonia of an adjacent amino acid
Covalent bond
A peptide bond is what type of bond
Photosynthesis
This process converts inorganic carbon to organic carbon
Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil
The three pyrimidine bases
contains one less oxygen atom
The difference between the sugars in DNA and RNA is that the sugar in DNA
Guanine
What base pair does cytosine pair with
Rate of disappearance of the substrate
What can be used to determine the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions
non-competitive inhibitor
This binds to the allosteric site of an enzyme
Lowering the activation energy
Catalysts speed up chemical reactions by what
Exergonic; spontaneous
The hydrolysis of ATP is what kind of reaction (relating to energy)
ATP hydrolysis
An endergonic reaction may occur when coupled with what reactions
High heat of vaporization
This is why sweating cools down the body significantly
Ice has a larger volume than water
What does the crystalline structure of water do (relating to volume)
Hydrogen bond
What bond holds together base pairs in DNA
Phosphodiester bond
What bond found in a DNA molecule is the hardest to break
Denature
Drastic changes in salt concentration causes an enzyme to what
Reaction is at equilibrium
When the free energy change of a reaction is zero, it means what
donate H+ to H+ depleted solution
Buffers may help resist shifts in pH by what
Cell Membrane
What structure do prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells both have that surrounds the entire cell
Nucleus
This organelle stores the genetic material and has a double membrane
Proteins
A large number of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing what
Golgi apparatus
This organelle packages and secretes substances
Lysosomes
This organelle's function is to package hydrolytic enzymes to prevent destruction
Vacuole
This compartment takes up most of the volume in the plant cell
Small and hydrophobic
This kind of molecule passes through the cell membrane easiest without the help of transport proteins
Become turgid
What will happen to a plant cell when placed in a hypotonic solution
Ribosome synthesis
What is the main function of the nucleolus
Bad Surface Area/Volume ratio causes nutrient transport efficiency to decrease
Why do most cells not exceed a certain size limit
Centrioles
These structures are only found in animal cells
A protein that is bound to and spans the membrane
What is a transmembrane protein
Aquaporins in water transport
This mechanism used to transport water does not involve energy expenditure (not osmosis)
Having more ions on one side and less on another
What is an electrochemical gradient across a semi-permeable membrane
Ribosomes
This organelle is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
This organelle is present in large amounts in liver cells
Chitin
The cell wall in fungi is made up of this
Plasmodesmata
This is a channel between plant cells
Hypotonic
If a potato wedge was placed in a solution and gained weight, then the solution was what to the potato
Peroxisomes
These organelles detoxify free radicals in plant and animal cells
Gap junctions
These allow passage of nutrients between adjacent animal cells
0; Zero
What is the water potential of pure water
From less negative to more negative
In what way does water potential travel
A carrier protein or protein channel
What is needed for transport of a peptide signaling molecule passing through the cell membrane
Cholesterol
This molecule causes the fluidity of the cell membrane to decrease at room temperature and increase at colder temperatures
Genetically similar
Daughter cells of mitosis are what to the mother cells of mitosis
Sperm; egg
Examples of gametes
G protein
This protein is activated by the receptor coupled to it
S phase of interphase
When is DNA usually replicated
Protein kinases
Proteins that transduce signals by phosphorylating other proteins
Opening and closing of ligand-gated ion channels
In cell signaling, how is the flow of specific ions regulated
Second messenger
cGMP is an example of one of these
Apoptosis
This is programmed cell death
Transmembrane protein
The Tyr kinase receptor is an example of what
Proteins in nature
Receptor proteins are always what
Phosphorylation cascade
A signaling pathway that involves a series of kinases that get activated one after another is what
Non-protein
What is one of the required characteristics of a second messenger
Endoplasmic reticulum
The organelle where high levels of calcium ions are usually found
Signal amplification
The ability of protein kinases in a signaling pathway to be reused allows for what
Centromere
The point on the chromosome where chromatids are attached
cAMP
The activation of adenylyl cyclase leads to the increase in level of what
Receptor to the hormone
Not all cells will respond to a certain hormone that is released into the circulatory system because they lack what
Anaphase
The stage of mitosis when centromeres uncouple, sister chromatids separate, and the two new chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell
Metaphase
The stage of mitosis when microtubules attach to chromosomes which are centered at the equator of the cell
Prometaphase
The stage of mitosis when the nuclear membrane fragments, microtubules extend to enter of the cell
Glycolysis
This process occurs in the cytosol
Mitochondrial matrix
Where in the cell does Kreb's cycle occur
carbon dioxide
What is one of the by-products of pyruvate being converted to acetyl-CoA
ATP synthase
What enzyme produces ATP from ADP and Pi during chemiosmosis
Dehydrogenases
Enzymes that produce NADH through redox reactions are known as what
Pyruvate
This is a 3-carbon product that is formed as a result of glycolysis
Oxygen
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain of respiration is what
Electron transport and chemiosmosis
Oxidative phosphorylation is made up of these two processes
Intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
In respiration the proton gradient is accumulated where as a result of electron transport
Lactate
In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate does not enter the mitochondrion but gets converted into what
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
In photosynthesis, NADPH is produced as a result of what process
Facilitated diffusion
The movement of H+ across the mitochondrial membrane, resulting in ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation is an example of what type of movement across the membrane
Thylakoid membrane
Chlorophyll molecules are located where in the chloroplasts
To break down carbohydrates to provide ATP for the cell
What is the purpose of cellular respiration in eukaryotic cells
Substrate-level phosphorylation
For each molecule of glucose, glycolysis yields 2 molecules of ATP by what
Longest; lowest
Red light in the VIS light has what length wavelength and what amount of energy (comparison)
Oxidative phosphorylation
Which stage of respiration DIRECTLY produces the greatest amount of ATP molecules
Regenerate NAD+, which is needed for glycolysis
What is the most important function of fermentation in eukaryotic cells
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
The product of Calvin cycle that is used to make sugars and other products is what
Calvin cycle
RUBISCO is an enzyme of what process
They are adapted to countering photorespiration
What is different about C4 plants compared to C3 plants in general
Water
The chlorophyll known as P680 has its electron "holes" filled by electrons from what
Final electron acceptor
In our experiment 4B on photosynthesis, DPIP was used as a what
Cytosol
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell
Intermediate step
What process in respiration does NOT yield ATP
Alcohol fermentation
What process produces carbon dioxide
Electron transport
What process requires oxygen in respiration
Intermediate step
What process produces NADH
Produce high energy molecules for the Calvin cycle
What is the main function of photophosphorylation
Obligate aerobes
Cells that can only respire aerobically are known as what
Calvin cycle
What process occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast
They transfer light energy to the reaction center
What is the function of accessory pigments in photosynthesis
NADPH
This high energy molecule is NOT produced by cyclic photophosphorylation
Cytochrome
What functions as a carrier in an electron transport chain
FADH2
This high-energy molecule is produced in the citric acid cycle
Intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
During electron transport of oxidative phosphorylation, a high concentration of protons is formed where in the cell
NADH
What is used in lactate fermentation
Zygotes
In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in what
Locus
What is used to describe the location of a gene along a chromosome
Haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids
After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is what
Homologous chromosomes are separated
What happens at the conclusion of meiosis I
Polygenic
The characteristic of sepal shape in a flowering plant is controlled by one gene on Chr I and another two genes on Chr 4. Based on this information alone, the sepal shape trait can be described as what
DNA replication occurs before cell division begins
What has to happen before a cell can undergo mitosis or meiosis
Prophase I of meiosis
When does the chiasmata form
Synapsis of chromosomes
What happens to the chromosomes in meiosis that does not happen in mitosis
Independent assortment of chromosomes
What concept derived by Mendel results in the increase in genetic variability
It reshuffles genes between homologous chromosomes
What is the correct description of crossing over
Homologous chromosomes
What lines up on the equator of the cell in metaphase I of meiosis
Metaphase I
Which stage has homologous chromosomes being lined up on the equator of the cell
They are heterozygous
Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests what about the parents
Homologous chromosomes moving to opposite poles
What observation in the process of meiosis is most aptly correlated with the Law of Segregation derived by Mendel
Four
How many genotypes of gametes can be derived from an AaBb parent
Four
How many possible phenotypes (in offspring) can be derived from an AaBb x AaBb cross
Nine
How many possible genotypes (in offspring) can be derived from an AaBb x AaBb cross
9:3:3:1
What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny of an AaBb x AaBb cross
1/32
In a cross AaBBCc x AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC
Incomplete dominance
A certain flower color may be red, white, or pink. When a true-breeding red flower is crossed wit a true-breeding white flower, only pink flowers are obtained. This is an example of what
Epistasis
This is when one gene controls the expression of another gene
100%
Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes
The somatic cells of a normal female
Where is a Barr body found
They are found on the same chromosome
In a dihybrid cross between a double heterozygote with another double heterozygote (eg. SsTt x SsTt) a 3:1 phenotypic ratio results. This implies what about S and T
Females are circles, males are squares
On a pedigree chart, what symbolizes a female and what symbolizes a male
IBiRr
A woman who has a blood type B positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. What is the most likely genotype of the mother
Silent mutation
What is a change in DNA that does not lead to any change in the amino acid it codes for
Cytosine and Uracil
What are the two pyrimidines found in RNA
Non-pathogenic strain of streptococcus taking up pathogenic strain DNA and being transformed into a pathogenic strain
What is the critical observation in the Griffith experiment that showed the DNA was likely to be the genetic material
Adenine pairs with Thymine and Guanine pairs with Cytosine
What are the Watson-Crick base-pairing rules in double-stranded DNA
Phosphodiester bond
What bond holds together adjacent DNA molecules
Hydrogen bond
What bond holds together complementary bases
5' GGGUUUACC 3'
What would be the RNA transcript that arises from the DNA template: 5' GGTAAACCC 3'
Promoter
What is a DNA sequence that RNA pol II recognizes during transcription initiation
Both hybrid (14N15N) DNA and light DNA (14N14N)
In the Meselson and Stahl experiment, using 15N medium and 14N medium, what were the findings after two rounds of replication
RNA polymerase
This enzyme works in transcription
False
True or false; the tRNA leaves the ribosome from the A site
Exon
A frameshift mutation in which part of the gene is most likely to be most damaging to a cell
12%
If cytosine makes up 38% of all bases in a sample of DNA, what is the percentage of thymine in the sample
RNA splicing
What allows the production of different proteins from the same transcript
Nonsense
What type of mutation causes a transcript to produce a stop codon
Almost all living cells
A codon table is applicable to what
tRNA
What type of molecule has an anticodon
One-gene-one polypeptide
What hypothesis was tested by Beadle and Tatum, in the experiment where various mutant yeast cells were generated to test for the expression of different enzymes
Transcription factors
What are proteins that aid in the recruitment of RNA polymerase during transcription initiation known as
Joining of two or more polypeptides together
What is an example of post-translational modification
DNA nucleotide
This is made up of a deoxyribose sugar bonded to a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
Transcription
Euchromatin is chromatin that is extended and available for what
They get shorter
What happens to telomeres in cells that have undergone cell division
Chromatin
What is made from histones wrapped around by double stranded DNA
mRNA
What type of molecule is involved in both transcription and translation
5' to 3'
The existence of a lagging strand during replication is because DNA polymerization occurs in what direction
Non-disjunction
What is likely to cause monosomy
tRNA
What does the large ribosomal subunit accept during translation
Peptide bond
What is formed between an amino acid at the A site and amino acid at the P site during translation
Non-coding sequences
What is different between individuals of the same species involving DNA fingerprinting
negative, positive
What charge does DNA have and moves toward an electrode with what charge during gel electrophoresis
A palindrome
A restriction site that is recognized by a restriction enzyme is always what
recombinant DNA
A pig insulin gene ligating to a bacterial plasmid is an example of what
rATP
This is required for ligase to function
To promote the transformation of E.coli cells by a plasmid
Why is heat shock treatment to E.coli cells commonly used
The expression of an enzyme that breaks down X-gal
What does the lacZ gene on a plasmid cause
LB/Amp plates
What type of plate will an E.coli strain that has been successfully transformed by a plasmid carrying the AmpR gene grow on
pUC18
A plasmid, pUC18, which confers ampicillin resistance and has a lacZ reporter, is used to transform an E.coli strain. Blue colonies on LB/Amp/X-gal plates are probably E.coli that contain what
Ampicillin resistant
White colonies on a LB/Amp plate are probably E.coli that are what in relation to ampicillin
White colonies on LB/Amp/X-gal plates
If a gene of interest were cloned into pUC18 at the lacZ multiple cloning site before transformation, what would be selected to have the best chance of obtaining a clone that contains the insert of interest
GMOs always contain recombinant DNA
How do GMOs differ from wild organisms
Cloning vector
A bacterial plasmid is an example of what
Two
How many EcoRI recognition sites must there be on a plasmid to cut DNA into two fragments
1200bp
What is the size of a plasmid with EcoRI having one 800bp fragment and one 400bp fragment
Restriction map
A drawing that would show the relative positions of EcoRI and SalI on a plasmid would be a what
One EcoRI and one SalI cut
If EcoRI cut a plasmid to form a 800bp fragment and a 400 bp fragment, and SalI cut the same plasmid to form a 700bp fragment and 500 bp fragment, then what formed a 600 bp fragment
RNA primer
What is not found in a typical PCR reaction
Genetically modified organisms
What does GMO stand for
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNP)
What is a difference in a nucleotide in a non-coding region between individuals of the same species
Short tandem repeats
STR analysis is commonly used in DNA fingerprinting. What does STR stand for
PCR followed by gel electrophoresis
What is the sequence of procedures used in STR analysis of genomic DNA samples from subjects
CaCl2
What should be added in order for heat shock treatment to work effectively
A lawn of bacteria
A scientist forgot to add ampicillin to the plate to select for colonies containing pUC18 (contains AmpR and lacZ). What would the scientist observe on the plate assuming the transformation was done correctly
Metabolize lactose
The lac operon produces proteins that do what
An operon
This is a gene unit found only in prokaryotes
Repressible operon
An operon that is normally turned on and gets shut down when product is ample is known as a what
Inducible operon
The lac operon is an example of this
Synthesize tryptophan
The Trp operon makes products that do what
Pre-transcriptional
DNA methylation is an example of what type of control in eukaryotic genes
Ubiquitin binding
This is an example of post-translational gene regulation that involves a protein being deactivated
Cancer
A mutation in tumor supressor genes, proto-oncogenes, DNA repair genes, or apoptotic genes could lead to what
P53
What gene is the most common mutated gene found in cancer cells
Structural genes
The genes lacZ, lacY, and lacA are arranged 3' to a promoter and are known as what
Actively transcribe
When lactose is introduced into the medium of an E.coli culture after a period of complete absence of lactose, the lac operon will do what
Shut down
When tryptophan is introduced into the medium of an E.coli culture after a period of absence of tryptophan, the Trp operon is expected to do what
Different activator proteins deposited differently within the egg cell
What causes specific parts of the embryo to differentiate into specific structures even though all the cells of the embryo contain the same genomic DNA
Histone
This is a protein that binds DNA to form chromatin
Increase it
Acetylation of histones usually does what to the rate of transcription
Small interfering RNA (siRNA)
This regulates genes at the post-transcription level by degrading RNA transcripts
Post-translation
What level of gene regulation is illustrated by the phosphorylation of a protein product
Viral DNA integrates with the host cell genome
What is one of the distinguishing parts of the lysogenic cycle
RNA
What is the genetic material of a retro virus
Capsid
This is the protein shell that surrounds the genetic material
Prophage
This is the DNA that has integrated into the host genome
HIV
What is an example of a retrovirus
Prion
This is an infectious protein molecule
Lytic cycle
The distinguishing characteristic of this virus cycle is that the host cell dies
Ribosomes
These are not found in a virus
Bacteriophage
A virus that infects bacteria is a what
Reverse transcriptase
This is an enzyme used by viruses to transcribe viral RNA to DNA