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1. Which type of port transmits both digital audio and digital video with a single connector?


2. Which of the following is an audio port that connects to an external home theater audio system, providing digital audio output?


3. Which of the following is NOT true of a motherboard?

c. has a heat sink on the PCIe slots

4. Which of the following is most likely to be installed in a PC, is considered primary storage, and has Windows 7 installed on it?

c. hard disk drive

5. Which component probably has a dual-voltage selector switch, and has cables that connect to the motherboard and drives?

b. PSU

6. Which is the most common form factor used today for computer cases, power supplies, and motherboards?

b. ATX

7. Which power supply connector is the main motherboard power connector on most motherboards today?

c. 24-pin

8. If you have a PCI Express Version 2 video card, how many pins will the power connector have if the card requires extra power?

d. 8

9. Which standard provides the best performance for hard drives?


10. Which disk drive standard uses an 80-conductor cable?


11. Which unit of electricity measures electrical force and 115 is a common value?

c. Volt

12. Which unit of electricity measures is used to measure the power consumption of a device?

d. Watt

13. Which type of electrical current is used to transmit electricity to our homes and workplaces?

a. alternating

14. Which of the following is true about AC electricity?

b. it travels from a hot line and returns on a neutral line

15. What type of component holds its charge even after the power is turned off and the device is unplugged?

b. capacitor

16. Which of the following is true about an FRU?

d. a support technician should know how to replace one

17. Which type of fire extinguisher should you have available in the event of an electrical fire?

c. Class C

18. What is a result of two objects with dissimilar electrical charges touching?

b. ESD

19. What tool can help discover and report computer errors and conflicts that occur when you first turn on a computer and before the operating system is launched?

a. POST card

20. Which general-purpose tool can measure characteristics of electricity in a variety of devices?

c. multimeter

21. Which of the following is NOT a good practice when working inside a computer case?

a. be sure to hold expansion cards by the edge connectors

22. Which of the following is the second step in opening the case of a working computer?

c. power down the system and unplug it

23. To what should you normally clip the ground bracelet before you work inside the computer case?

c. the side of the computer case

24. What do you call a connector on a motherboard that consists of pins that stick up from the board?

d. header

25. Which of the following can be described as round plastic or metal pegs that separate the motherboard from the bottom of the case?

b. standoff

26. Which of the following represents the correct order in which you should install components into the case after disassembling a computer?

a. power supply, drives, motherboard, cards

27. Which of the following is true about installing the motherboard and connecting power?

d. a 4-pin power cord supplies supplemental power to the processor

28. Which of the following is NOT a typical connector found on the front panel header?

c. SATA controller

29. Which of the following is the Intel maximum degree limit for processors?

a. 185 F

30. Which material is a cooler that sits atop the CPU most likely made of?

b. copper

31. What is placed between the bottom of the cooler heat sink and the top of the processor that makes an airtight connection between the fan and processor?

d. thermal compound

32. Along with the processor, what other device is the highest heat producer in the system?

b. video card

33. Under what circumstance is a liquid cooling system most likely used?

a. overclocking

34. If your computer is in a dirty, dusty environment, what tool should you use periodically to prevent overheating?

c. compressed air

35. What determines the physical size of a power supply and the placement of screw holes?

c. form factor

36. Which of the following is true about fans in the computer system?

b. larger fans tend to run quieter

37. Which technology may require that you purchase a power supply that specifically supports that technology?

a. SLI (Scalable Link Interface)

38. Which of the following is a consideration when purchasing a power supply with the correct wattage?

d. the power supply should be rated 30% higher than your needs

39. What is the result of using a 3-pin fan connector on a 4-pin header on the motherboard?

c. the fan speed cannot be controlled

40. What does a small triangle embedded on a connector signify?

b. the wire nearest the triangle is pin 1

41. Which of the following is the smallest motherboard form factor?

b. FlexATX

42. Which Intel CPU socket is discontinued?

a. Socket 478

43. Which socket type is soldered to the motherboard, along with the CPU?

c. BGA (ball grid array)

44. What type of socket ensures that even force is applied to the processor when it is being installed in the socket?

a. ZIF (Zero Insertion Force)

45. Which motherboard slot has direct access to the North Bridge?

d. primary PCIe slot

46. What was the 64-bit Front Side Bus replaced with in the X58 (Nehalem) chipset?

c. QPI (QuickPath Interconnect)

47. Which of the following is a technology that allows for multiple video cards to work together in one system?

b. CrossFire

48. Which of the following is NOT true about Ivy Bridge chipsets compared to earlier products?

a. uses more power

49. What unit is used to measure the frequency of memory, FSB, and the processor?

c. Hz

50. What was the AGP bus designed specifically for?

d. video cards

51. What type of bus does PCI Express use?

a. serial

52. Where do today's computers store almost all motherboard configuration data?


53. If you need to reset the BIOS password on a motherboard and the instructions say to make sure jumper J1 is open, what should you do?

b. open the case and remove the cover from a set of pins marked J1.

54. Which of the following represents a method for accessing the BIOS setup program?

c. press a key during the BIOS POST

55. Which of the following is a setting you can configure from the BIOS setup program?

d. change the boot sequence

56. What has occurred if you see the message "Chassis Intruded! System has halted." the next time you start your computer?

c. the case has been opened

57. What should you do if you want to be able locate your laptop in the event of loss or theft and give it a command through the Internet to lock it or delete data?

b. subscribe to LoJack for Laptops

58. What must your motherboard have to use BitLocker Encryption in Windows 7 which will ensure that your hard drive cannot be used in another computer?

a. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) chip

59. What is a possible remedy if your system hangs at odd time or during the boot?

c. flash the BIOS

60. At what point during the motherboard installation should you install the motherboard drivers?

a. after Windows successfully boots

61. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a processor?

c. amount of CMOS

62. What is the general name of the processor feature that AMD calls HyperTransport?

b. multithreading

63. Which type of processor memory is located on the processor chip (processor die)?

b. Level 1 cache

64. Which of the following is NOT a component of a processor?

a. device driver

65. Which Intel processor technology interconnects the processor, chipset, and wireless network adapter as a unit, improving laptop performance?

d. Centrino

66. Which of the following is true about installing a processor on a motherboard?

a. after placing the processor in the socket, you need to lock down the lever

67. What is the most likely result of a correctly installed processor, but an incorrectly installed cooler?

b. boot process begins, but system suddenly turns off after a short period

68. Which type of memory is the main memory installed as DIMMs on a motherboard?

c. DRAM (Dynamic RAM)

69. Which type of memory can support quad, triple, and dual channels?

a. DDR3

70. What unit of measurement is used for DIMM read and write times?

c. nanoseconds

71. Which of the following is true about DIMM technologies?

c. SDRAM runs synchronized with the system clock

72. Which of the following is true about DIMM slots?

a. color coding is used to identify the channel

73. Which of the following statements is NOT true when setting up dual channeling?

d. if you have two pairs installed in two channels, all four DIMMs must match

74. What is the transfer rate of a 64-bit module running at 1600 MHz?

d. 12800 MB/second

75. DIMMs used in servers can provide additional reliability if they use which of the following technologies?

c. ECC

76. A DIMM that holds data and amplifies a signal before the data is written to the module uses which technology?

b. registers

77. Which memory technology that is no longer used has a 32-bit data bus, 232 pins and requires a placeholder in empty slots?

c. RIMM (Rambus In-line Memory Module)

78. What technology in a DIMM informs the BIOS of the module's size, speed, voltage, and data path width?

a. SPD (Serial Presence Detect)

79. Which of the following memory configurations definitely will not work when populating a motherboard with DIMMs?

d. mixing unbuffered with registered

80. Which of the following is NOT a necessary precaution when installing memory modules?

b. test the motherboard for residual electrical charges

81. Which of the following is NOT true about hard disk drives?

c. sold state drives are less expensive than magnetic hard drives

82. Which process writes sector markings to a hard drive?

b. low-level formatting

83. Which hard drive technology is used to predict when a drive is likely to fail?

b. S.M.A.R.T.

84. Which of the following is true about disk drive interfaces?

a. PATA allows for two connectors on a motherboard

85. Which type of cable is required by ATA/66 and above?

d. 40 pins, 80 wires

86. Why would you use a round PATA ribbon cable instead of traditional flat cable?

b. round cables obstruct air flow less inside the case

87. Why is DMA a better transfer mode than PIO for PATA drives?

c. DMA data transfers don't involve the CPU

88. Which SATA standard provides a transfer rate of 3 Gb/sec?

b. SATA2

89. Which of the following is true about SCSI drives?

a. SCSI ID 7 has a higher priority than SCSI ID 10

90. Which of the following is true about selecting a hard drive?

d. magnetic drives have larger capacity for the money than solid state drives

91. What should you keep in mind when installing hard drives?

c. a PATA drive has master and slave settings

92. If you are adding a hard drive to a system that already has a drive with Windows installed on it, which of the following is true?

b. boot Windows and use Disk Management to prepare the new drive

93. Which is true about installing a PATA drive?

b. a motherboard can support up to four EIDE devices

94. Why might you want to use a RAID 0 disk configuration?

a. to improve overall disk performance

95. Which of the following best describes RAID 5?

c. it requires 3 or more drives and uses parity checking

96. Which of the following is true about hardware RAID?

d. RAID controllers have their own BIOS

97. Which interface is not typically used for an internal tape drive?

b. FireWire

98. How is data stored on magnetic tape?

c. sequentially

99. How much data does a 3.5" floppy disk drive hold?

b. 1.44 MB

100. What does a twist in a 34-pin data cable mean?

a. it indicates drive A:

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