IAC final (new material)
Terms in this set (168)
What is the normal calving interval for a herd (assuming the bull is not left with the cows all year)?
When is the ideal month for calving?
To have calving around March, when must the bull be turned out with the cows?
You have a producer who has had issues with dystocia in the past due to herd overconditioning. He has called to determine when to start evaluating animals to avoid this problem next season. What do you tell him?
What is the interval for vaccinating heifers for Bangs?
During what months are cows eating expensive feed to maintain conditioning?
When does the "critical nutrition period" begin in a herd that was bred in May-June? What does this mean?
March; if their nutrition isn't adequate at this point, they will be really skinny during lactation
How long is gestation in a cow?
Why do we shoot for calving in March?
temperatures are improving and there is less environmental cause for nutritional demand
Why is it best to breed heifers earlier than cow?
you want them to calve first, they tend to have more issues with calving and understanding what to do with a calf, and to allow for use of a smaller-framed bull (if you're going to be renting the bull you don't want 2 unfamiliar animals at once if you can avoid it)
What occurs during stage 1 of calving?
cervical relaxation, visualization of the amniotic sac
What is a producer referring to if he says he can see the "water bag"?
the amniotic sac
What occurs during stage 2 of calving?
the front feet and the nose protrude first, and within 30 minutes noticeable progression should have occurred, followed by completion of parturition
What occurs during stage 3 of calving?
the placenta passes
What is the difference in the length of time a placenta can be retained in a cow verses a horse?
cow 3-5 days, horse <12 hours
What should you consider if you have a producer with a high number of animals experiencing retained placentas?
How do you name the presentation of a calf during dystocia?
anterior or posterior followed by the position of the calf relative to the cow's pelvis, then feet position
Describe a true breech calf.
legs folded up, trying to come out rear-end first
Why is a calf in breech position an issue?
the umbilical cord is no longer functional when it engages the pelvis, and with a rear-facing animal this happens quickly while there's still a lot of time until the animal completes parturition
What is the correct way to apply chains to a calf?
half-hitch beyond the pastern, then another loop distal to the dewclaws with the straight part of the chain ON TOP of the joint
What are issues if chains are applied to calves incorrectly?
breaking bones, dislocating joints
In the calf timetable, when should the animal have lifted its head?
In the calf timetable, when should the animal have achieved sternal recumbency?
In the calf timetable, when should the animal have attempted to stand?
In the calf timetable, when should the animal have stood on its own?
In the calf timetable, when should the animal have actively nursed?
What about cows should be evaluated in April?
BCS, udders, teeth/feet, and eyes; basic nutrition and evaluation of calf condition
When does diarrhea season begin for calves?
When a calf has diarrhea, what are the common acid-base changes? Why?
become acidotic; losing bicarbonate in diarrhea
If a diarrhea calf is standing with a strong suckle, what is the appropriate treatment method?
If a diarrhea calf is standing but has a weak suckle, what is the appropriate treatment method?
If a diarrhea calf is in sternal or lateral, what is the appropriate treatment method?
What calf vaccines may be given before colostrum is administered in calves?
e. coli, rotavirus, and coronavirus
Explain the sandhills calving protocol and its purpose.
All animals begin in one pasture. 2 weeks after the first calves are dropped, move pregnant animals to another pasture. Repeat. Meant to increase biosecurity and decrease exposure to pathogens in calves of different ages
What about heifers should be evaluated in April?
distance PE, udder, BSE, vaccines, culling evaluations and strategic wound control
When should a BSE be performed in bulls? Why is this important?
April; they have time for retesting in a month if they don't pass
What is evaluated in a BSE?
scrotal circumference, semen quality, any penile abnormalities
What must the motility and abnormality percentage be in a bull to pass a BSE?
>60% motility, <25-30% abnormalities
What about bulls should be evaluated in April?
full PE and BSE
What are reasons for culling a bull?
poor foot conformation, +/- behavior
If calving in March, when should calves ideally be receiving their vaccines to protect them from waning maternal antibodies?
When are branding, castration, vaccination, and strategic deworming often done in calves?
When are cows in peak lactation?
When should you begin cow synchronization protocols to breed in July?
What organisms are of concern for causing early abortions in cattle?
trich and campylobacter
When do lameness and foot rot become more prevalent?
What month are bulls often put out with cows?
What month are bulls often pulled off cows?
When should calves be weaned?
What is a good time to vaccinate calves, since they will be being worked when weaned?
What are identifiers that an animal has been Bangs vaccinated?
orange tag and tattoos applied to the right ear
What should be done to calves when they are pulled to be weaned?
vaccines, checking for respiratory disease, taking weaning weights
What month are cows evaluated for culling?
What is "backgrounding"
feeding out and selling
What should be done in preconditioning of calves?
wean and introduce calves to bunks, vaccinate and wait for vaccine to take effect
When is preg checking done on cows?
any time in the fall (september-november)
Explain the changes in the distribution, number, and production of dairy cattle.
overall milk production has increased, animal numbers have stayed static but production per animal has increased, and herds are decreasing in total number but increasing in individual size
Where does Texas rank in dairy in the country?
What rank does dairy achieve in Texas farm commodities?
What is the average herd size in Texas?
What is the difference between Texas, asn the #5 dairy state, and Wisconsin, as the #2 dairy state in terms of average herd size?
Texas ~1200, Wisconsin <200
What are the production models used for dairy?
conventional, grazing, organic
What production type is used in most large dairy herds?
conventional (confined housing, stored feed)
What is a major part of providing veterinary care for a dairy herd?
What is the end goal with vet care in dairy management?
provide a safe, wholesome product both dairy and beef (most of our beef products come from culled dairy animals!)
When does breeding occur in dairy operations?
What is the benefit of using ultrasound in pregnancy identification in dairy?
you can sex the calves
What is the point of a voluntary waiting period?
optimize uterine health prior to breeding
What is the gestation length of a typical dairy cow?
Compared to beef, what reproductive issues are more common in dairy animals?
uterine torsions, dystocias, and malpositioned calves, stillborn calves
How long should you wait to intervene in a 1st calf heifer? a cow?
4 hrs, 2 hrs
What % of dairy calves are stillborn?
What are important employee training topics that should be addressed in dairy management?
when to intervene, how to correct malpositioned calves, how much force is acceptable to apply
When is a cow in the transition period?
30 days before and after she gives birth
What is the transition period in dairy animals?
going from dry to lactating
What is a common sequelae of ketosis in dairy cows?
L displaced abomasum
Why should you always feel the ears of a dairy cow during a PE?
hypocalcemic cows often have cold ears
What re the most common problems in fresh dairy cows?
hypocalcemia, metritis, retained placenta, ketosis, LDA
What are risk factors for hypocalcemia in dairy cattle? Common signs?Treatment?
recent calving, down/weak or acting strange, IV/oral calcium
What are common signs of a retained placenta in a dairy cow?
failure to pass placenta, fever, malodorous vaginal discharge
What are common treatments for a retained placenta in a dairy cow?
(penicillin, ampicillin, ceftiofur, oxytetracycline, sulfadimethoxine)
What systemic antibiotics are labaled for use in lactating dairy cattle?
penicillin, ampicillin, ceftiofur, oxytetracycline, sulfadimethoxine
What level indicates ketosis in dairy cattle?
What are common treatments for ketosis in a dairy cow?
IV dextrose, PO propylene glycol, feeding high-density feed
What can a ping on the left side of the abdomen mean in a dairy cow?
Due to high pregnancy loss rates in dairy, animals are checked at multiple intervals. What is being monitored at the 28-45 day window?
early pregnancy check
Due to high pregnancy loss rates in dairy, animals are checked at multiple intervals. What is being monitored at the 60-90 day window?
mid-gestation check; fetal sexing if u/s
Due to high pregnancy loss rates in dairy, animals are checked at multiple intervals. What is being monitored at the 180-250 day check?
late gestation check; dry off exam
What are things that would be monitored in a "fresh pen" at a dairy?
feed intake, temperature, ketosis
What are the critical components of a protocol developed by a vet for a dairy?
defined criteria for diagnosing an illness, set rules for allowable treatment and instructions on correct administration, clear information on meat/milk withdrawal times and ways to identify treated animals
What are important areas to investigate at a dairy having issues with nutrition in the transition period?
do transition cows have enough bunk space, is the pen overcrowded, are unnecessary pen moves occurring, is there adequate dietary fiber
What is a DCAD diet?
used in transition animals to shift the body into an acidotic state in the last 3 weeks of gestation
Why would you want to feed a DCAD diet?
makes mobilization of calcium stores in bones easier prior to calving, helping prevent hypocalcemia
How can the success of a DCAD diet be monitored?
checking urine pH
How often are dairy cows milked?
2-3 times a day
In what type of operation are dairy cattle milked in stalls?
In what type of operation are dairy cattle milked in a milking parlor?
What type of pathogens are we targeting with a pre-dip?
environmental pathogens like E. coli, Klebsiella, and Strep.
What type of pathogens are we targeting with a post-dip?
contagious pathogens like Staph. aureus, strep. agalactiae, and mycoplasma sp.
What does a CMT identify?
somatic cell counts (neutrophils)
When are mastitis vaccines given and what organisms are targeted?
around the transition period; Gram negatives like E. coli and Klebsiella
What is monitored in the bulk tank to ensure milk quality?
somatic cell count levels, standard plate counts, presence of contagious pathogens
How much colostrum is needed by a Holstein calf in the first 4 hours?
How much colostrum is needed by a Jersey calf in the first 4 hours?
When may blood evaluations of total protein or solids be taken in dairy calves to monitor FPT?
animals <1 week of age >6 hrs post administration of colostrum
What is the goal level for total protein or solids in dairy calves when monitoring for FPT?
<20% under 5.5 gm/dL
What are factors that should be investigated on a dairy farm experiencing increased cases of FPT?
inadequate colostrum pasteurization/freezing/storage/quality, ingestion, and absorption
What % of dairy calves are left to nurse colostrum and not monitored for adequate intake?
What % of dairy calves are given an adequate volume of colostrum in the appropriate time period if not allowed to nurse?
By what point is transition to solid feed from milk or milk replacer desired in dairy calves?
What are the most common issues in dairy calves seen for vet care?
umbilical infections, diarrhea, bronchopneumonia, septic joints
the process by which the immune system becomes fortified against an infectious agent
Describe the difference between immunization and vaccination.
but just because we vaccinated an animal doesn't mean we immunized- an animal may not have responded adequately to the vaccine and may not be protected
Without what form of immunity will you die?
Why can a healthy animal be introduced into a new herd and suddenly become ill?
stress and exposure to pathogens that are farm/environment specific and have not been encountered before
If a calf has a low-level response to vaccination while still protected by maternal antibody, why is it still recommended?
they get the greater anamnestic response when faced with a second vaccine anyway
For most diseases, what % of a herd must have some immunity to prevent mass outbreak?
How does herd immunity function?
decreasing the amount of pathogen that is in an area and decreasing the number of individuals shedding the disease
What are goals of vaccination?
decrease duration and amount of shedding, increase infectious dose of pathogen needed to cause disease
What type of vaccine requires a booster?
killed/inactivated, toxoid, some recombinant
What type of vaccine usually requires mixing?
Why don't modified live vaccines require a booster?
a weakened microbe is the source of the immune response, so it is stronger
Which vaccine type is most common for bacterial pathogens?
Which vaccine type is most common for viral pathogens?
What is the downside to modified live viruses?
they must be handled/stored appropriately, given within 30 mins of mixing, and have a risk of reversion to virulence
Why don't all recombinant vaccines require a booster?
use an antigenic portion of the organism and produce a strong immune response
What is the downside of recombinant vaccines?
Because it is only a piece of the organism, you must be sure it is the correct piece to provide protective immunity
What type of vaccine has nothing to do with controlling/eliminating an organism?
What vaccine type is common for anti-endotoxin vaccines?
What vaccine type is common for clostridial vaccines?
What are some reasons a vaccine may not always work?
handling/storage, animal response, choice of antigen
What are some ways that incorrect administration can prevent efficacy of a vaccine?
death of live vaccine, incorrect route, animal is passively protected
What are some ways that a vaccine may not be effective even when correctly administered and with appropriate animal response?
animal already infected, non-protective antigens, wrong strain/organism
What are some ways that a vaccine may not be effective even when correctly administered and but there is inappropriate animal response?
immunosuppression, inadequate vaccine, biologic variation
What are signs of a local injection site reaction to a vaccine?
pain, heat, swelling, loss of function
What are signs of a systemically appropriate reaction to a vaccine?
malaise, lethargy, mild disease
What are signs of a systemically inappropriate reaction to a vaccine?
What are the most important questions to use to help you determine if a vaccine should be used in a herd?
do we need it, will it work, is it safe
When is a good time to give the first calf vaccine if trying to ensure efficacy?
30-40 days prior to weaning
What are maintenance fluid requirements to replace insensible losses in horses?
What are the core equine vaccines?
EEE, WEE, tetanus, rabies
What is the difference between a toxoid and antitoxin?
the toxoid is giving the body a chance to produce its own antibodies, but antitoxins provide pre-formed antibodies
What is tyler's disease?
acute hepatic necrosis ~30 days post injection with an antitoxin
Why should you avoid IM injections in the neck of the foal?
they must move their neck to suckle, and may avoid doing so if it hurts
What are acceptable sites for IM injection in the horse?
neck (base of nuchal ligament, lateral aspect of the vertebral bodies, and rostral to the shoulder), between the semimembranosus and semitendinosus, in the pectoral muscle
What are non-core respiratory vaccines in horses?
influenza, herpes, strangles
What are non-core GI vaccines in horses?
potomac horse fever, rotoviral diarrhea
For what vaccine is it best to just tell owners what to look for rather than trying to vaccinate against it?
potomac horse fever there are many strains and the existing vaccines don't cover all of them
What are non-core reproductive vaccines in horses?
herpes, equine viral arteritis
What are non-core neurologic vaccines in horses?
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
Which groups of parasites in horses are developing resistance to existing dewormers?
cyathostomes (small strongyles), Parascaris equorum (roundworms)
What groups of parasites in horses can be fatal?
large strongyles, tapeworms
What is the most common area affected by thromboembolic colic with S. vulgaris?
What parasite of horses can be diagnosed by palpation? explain.
S. vulgaris; causes fremitus
How is S. vulgaris controlled?
yearly deworming with ivermectin (or moxidectin) in all horses
What is the most common area affected by A. perfoliata?
What equine parasite can be deadly and is rarely seen in fecals?
What equine parasites more commonly affect younter horses?
Parascaris equorum (roundworms), A. perfoliara (tapeworms)
How is A. perfoliata controlled?
deworm with praziquantel in the winter
Why is it best to deworm for A. perfoliata in the winter?
the mites that complete its life cycle are not around to reinfect at that time
Explain larval cyathostomiasis
ingested, migrate to the cecal/colonic mucosa and encyst to enter a hypobiotic state. With ideal weather conditions, the excyst and can cause diarrhea, inflammation, and extreme illness in adult horses
What is the PPP for cyathostomes?
5-6 weeks if they don't encyst in the tissues
What equine parasite may be visualized on a glove post-palpatioN?
What is a good deworming schedule for low-shedding horses?
deworm in early spring (ivermectin) and in winter (ivermectin w/prqziquantel or moxidectin with praziquantel)
What is a moderate shedder?
What are the only things approved for treatment of encysted cyathostomes in the encysted stage?
moxidectin and double-dose fenbendazole
What is the % reduction desired in FECRT?
What is the PPP for Parascaris equorum?