55 terms

EMT Test 1

Continuing education in EMS serves to:
Maintain, update and expand your knowledge and skills.
The person who provides the ongoing working liaison among the medical community, hospitals, and the EMT is the:
Medical Director
An EMT who has advanced training in specific areas of advanced life support is called:
an EMT-I (intermediate)
Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process?
"I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate."
Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient?
"Things will get better in time."
Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress?
Isolation from the rest of the crew.
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
A living object
The transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact describes which mechanism of transmission?
Direct Contact
The simplest yet MOST effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
Wash your hand in between patient contacts.
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:
Careless handling of sharps.
High fever, headache, and a stiff neck are common signs of
You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
Seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.
The EMT-B's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
Medical Director
The manner in which the EMT-B must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
Standard of Care
In which of the following situations does the EMT-B NOT have a legal duty to act?
You come upon a motor-vehicle crash while off duty.
Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?
Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury.
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
Duty to act
Breach of duty
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
Paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT-B.
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
Implied consent.
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct?
A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered?
Informed consent
In which of the following circumstances can the EMT-B legally release confidential patient information?
The patient is competent and signs a release form.
When caring for a 65yom with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position, but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of:
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
Not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
Putrefaction is defined as:
Decomposition of the body's tissues.
The topographic term used to describe the location of the body parts that are closer toward the midline or center of the body is?
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is:
In relation to the chest the back is:
The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of _______________ anatomic structure.
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:
A 5yoa boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:
Distal forearm
Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
Foramen Magnum
The areas of the spinal column, in the descending order are the:
The cervical spine is composed of _______ vertebrae.
The coccyx is composed of ______ vertebrae.
4 vertebrae all fused together to form the tail bone.
The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the
The _______________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the chest from the abdomen.
The Diaphragm
The ______________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen.
Which of the following organs does NOT lie within the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen?
In what quadrant is the Spleen located?
The left upper quadrant (LUQ)
The carpel bones form the:
The heart muscle is called the
Which of the following arteries does NOT carry highly-oxygenated blood?
Which of the following skin layers contains sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve ending?
Poisonous substances produced during digestion are brought to what organ and converted to harmless substances?
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A 61-yof who is unconscious with facial cyanosis.
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the term, "chief Complaint"?
The major signs or symptoms that the patient reports when asked.
Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history?
How much Tylenol do you take each day?
Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history?
"I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."
Baseline vital signs are referred to as such because they
Are the initial vital signs that will allow you to tend the patients condition by comparing them to future vital signs.
Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include:
1. Listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope
2. Observing the chest for adequate rise and fall.
3. feeling for air movement at the nose and mouth.
The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from?
12-20 breaths/min.