324 terms

Surg Tech

Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?
TEETH, villi, hard palate, soft palate
The portion of the stomach surrounding the lower esophageal sphincter is called the:
CARDIA, fundus, pylorus, antrum
The islets of Langerhans secrete:
pancreatic juice, INSULIN, intrinsic factor, inhibiting hormones
The area in the duodunum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called the:
AMPULLA OF VATER, duct of santorini, wirsung's duct, islets of langerhans
The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
STORE BILE, produce bile, digest fats, store fats
The plicae circulares, microvilli, and villi are:
all found in lg intest, STRUCTURES THAT INCREASE SURFACE ABSORPTION AREA IN THE SM INTEST, glands that secrete digestive enzymes, struct that give the intes it puckered appearance
The first part of the small intestine is the:
DUODENUM, jejunum, ileum, cecum
The appendix is attached to the:
ascending colon, descending colon, CECUM, transverse colon
The double-layered, apron-like structure that hangs from the lower border of the stomach is the:
GREATER OMENTUM, mesentery, ligamentum, peritoneum
The main function of the large intestine is to:
digest food, absorb food nutrients, REABSORB WATER & ELECTROLYTES, digest carbs
A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food molecules is called:
anabolism, CATABOLISM, metabolism, glycogenesis
Which of the following substances is the body's preferred source of energy?
CARBOHYDRATES, fats, proteins, water
The process by which glucose is stored in the liver & skeletal muscle cells as glycogen is:
gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, GLYCOGENESIS, glycolysis
The structure that binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the:
MESENTERY, greater omentum, falciform ligament, lesser omentum
The salivary glands located in the front of the ear that become inflamed and enloarged during mumps are the:
sublingual, subungual, PAROTID, submandibular
The catabolism of fats produces which of the following substances?
amino acids, glycogen, KETONE BODIES, insulin
Vitamins A, D, E, and K are absorbed in the:
INTESTINE, pancreas, stomach, liver
The organ the lies posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach and is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:
PANCREAS, gallbladder, small intestine, liver
When body cells require energy, what molecule is broken down?
ATP MOLECULE, dna molecule, 6-carbon molecule, adp molecule
The outer layer of the intestine is the:
mucosa, SEROSA, muscularis, submucosa
The Cricoid cartilage is a:
leaf-shaped cartilage lying on top of larynx, RING OF CARTILAGE FORMING THE INFERIOR WALLS OF THE LARYNX, pair of cone-shaped cartilage located at the apex of each arytenoid cart, tubular passageway for air
The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system and for air into the respiratory system is the:
trachea, larynx, PHARYNX, bronchus
The larynx is located between the:
PHARYNX & TRACHEA, nasal cavity & pharynx, trachea & bronchi, nasal & oral cavities
The vocal cords are located in the:
pharynx, LARYNX, trachea, bronchi
Which structure has three divisions consisting of naso, oro, and laryngeal?
trachea, larynx, PHARYNX, broncus
The function of the trachea is to:
CONDUCT AIR TO/FROM THE LUNGS, conduct air into the larynx, serve as a resonating chamber for speech, move the vocal cords
The space between the vocal cords is called the:
epiglottis, GLOTTIS, vocal fold, cricoid cartilage
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the:
ethmoid, SEPTUM, vomer, turbinates
The structure that drains excess tears to the nasal cavity, causing the nose to run is the:
nasopharynx, sinus cavities, NASOLACRIMAL DUCT, ciliary glands
The cartilaginous nasal septum lies upon which bone?
hyoid, VOMER, mandible, palatine
The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the:
external auditory canal, EUSTACHIAN TUBE, semicircular canal, labyrinth
Another name for the tympanic membrane is the:
external ear canal, EARDRUM, semicircular canal, eustachian tube
The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:
semicircular canal, vestibule, COCHLEA, ampulla
The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the:
frontal sinus, sphenoid, ETHMOID, maxillary sinus
Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
malleus, incus, STAPES, utricle
The large, leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a trap door over the larynx is the:
thyroid, cricoid, EPIGLOTTIS, oropharynx
Which part of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?
SEMICIRCULAR CANALS, middle ear, cochlea, meatus
A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:
pinna, aurum, CERUMEN, saccule
Which of the following structures is not an ossicle of the middle ear?
incus, VESTIBULE, stapes, malleus
The fluid within the membranous labyrinth is called?
perilymph, ENDOLYMPH, intralabyrinthine lymph, otolymph
In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the _____ and pass on to hit the ____:
auricle, ossicles; ossicles, oval window; EXTERNAL AUDITORY CANAL, TYMPANIC MEMBRANE; ossicles, auricles
Striated-voluntary muscle tissue is found in the _____ muscle tissue.
visceral, heart, SKELETAL, cardiac
The white, tough layer of the eye that gives it its shape is the:
cornea, iris, SCLERA, choroid
The layer of the eye that is clear, covers the iris, and contains no blood vessels is the:
CORNEA, iris, sclera, choroid
The layer of the eye that absorbs light rays & nourishes the retina thru its numerous blood vessels is the:
sclera, ciliary body, CHOROID, iris
Which muscle alters the shape of the lens of the eye to accommodate near or far vision?
rectus muscle, oblique muscle, circular muscle, CILIARY MUSCLE
What structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye & assists in obtaining a clear image?
pupil, IRIS, cornea, retina
Intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on:
vitreous humor, AQUEOUS HUMOR, macula lutea, nerve impulses
At the junction of the sclera & cornea is a venous sinus know as the:
macula, uvea, CANAL OF SCHLEMM, glands of zeis
The smooth intrinsic muscle that alters the shape of the eye lens is the:
iris, CILIARY BODY, medial rectus, lateral rectus
The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye:
fibrous, VASCULAR, nervous, lens
A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:
loop of henle, renal papillae, GLOMERULUS, segmental arteries
The triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is known as the:
TRIGONE, detrusor, apex, rugae
Gerota's fascia is located:
around the bladder, within the kidney medulla, AROUND THE KIDNEY, within the bladder
The kidneys are positioned:
intraperitoneally, RETROPERITONEALLY, in front of the parietal peritoneum, in back of the visceral peritoneum
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste & regulating fluid is the:
cortex, medulla, NEPHRON, renal pelvis
The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:
SODIUM, calcium, magnesium, phosphate
The prostate gland secretes:
AKALINE FLUID, semen, testosteron, inhibin
The first step of urine production in which fluids & dissolved substances are forced thru a membrane by pressure is called:
tubular secretion, tubular reabsorption, GLOMERULAR FILTRATION, urea recycling
Sperm are produced by the:
SEMINIFEROUS TUBULES, tubular reabsorption, glomerular filtration, irea recycling
The cup-like extensions of the kidney pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:
CALYCES, papillae, columns, parenchyma
The notch on the kidney thru which the ureters exit is the:
HILUM, capsule, calyx, cortex
Which of the following is the principal male hormone produced in the testes & responsible for sexual characteristics?
inhibin, progesterone, TESTOSTERONE, prolactin
The comma-shaped organ that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:
EPIDIDYMIS, vas deferns, ejaculatory duct, tunica vaginalis
The only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood is the:
superior vena cava, coronary artery, PULMONARY ARTERY, thoracic aorta
The pacemaker of the heart is the:
SA NODE, av node, purkinje fibers, bundle of his
Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
renal, jugular, ILIAC, femoral
The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:
erythropoiesis, HEMOPOIESIS, diapedesis, leukocytosis
Which of the following arises from the left ventricle?
pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, AORTA, superior vena cava
The pancreas lies behind the stomach and duodenum in the right & left upper quadrants & is divided into _____ portions.
two, THREE, four, five
Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors:
LIVER, spleen, thymus, pancreas
The atrioventricular (AV) valve between the left atrium & the left ventricle is the:
BUCUSPID, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, aortic semilunar
The inner layer of an artery is known as the:
adventitia, media, INTIMA, lamina
Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle?
PULMONARY ARTERY, pulmonary vein, aorta, hepatic artery
Which of the following vessels do not empty into the right atrium?
inferior vena cava, PULMONARY VEINS, coronary sinus, fossa ovalis
The large artery found behind the knee is the:
femoral, POPLITEAL, celiac, posterior tibial
The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch & descends into the arm is the:
SUBCLAVIAN, carotid, brachiocephalic, vertebral
The medial malleolus is part of which bone?
fibula, TIBIA, talus, calcaneus
The sutures of the skull are examples of:
SYNARTHROSIS, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis, synchondrosis
Which characteristic does not belong to a synovial joint?
articular cartilage, joint capsule & cavity, SYNCHONDROSIS CONTAINING HYALINE CARTILAGE, freely movable joint
Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint?
radius & carpals, THUMB & TRAPEZIUM, femur & hip, ulna & radius
Smooth, sustained contractions produced by several very rapid stimuli are called:
twitches, TETANUS, treppe, active tension
The dense white fibrous covering around the bone is the:
endosteum, medullary canal, PERIOSTEUM, intramembranous
An example of a short bone is the:
leg, WRIST, rib, kneecap
A large, bony process found on the femur is a:
TROCHANTER, tubercle, condyle, olecranon
The foramen magnum is found in which bone?
parietal, OCCIPITAL, temporal, sphenoid
An example of a flat bone is the:
wrist, vertebrae, CRANIAL BONES, facial bones
The acromion is part of which bone?
clavicle, SCAPULA, humerus, ulna
The olecranon is part of which bone?
humerus, radius, ULNA, scapula
Which of the following is not a carpal?
lunate, scaphoid, capitate, STYLOID
The only bone in the body that does not articulate with another is the:
mastoid, vomer, HYOID, spenoid
The shaft of a bone is known as the:
condyle, DIAPHYSIS, metaphysis, endosteum
The extremity or end of a bone is know as the:
EPIPHYSIS, diaphysis, periosteum, endosteum
Another name for spongy bone is:
CANCELLOUS, cortical, compact, callus
The vertebrae are examples of what type of bone?
IRREGULAR, short, flat, long
The area of a bone where growth occurs until early adulthood is the:
endosteum, medullary canal, EPIPHYSEAL PLATE, appositional growth
What bones form the greater portion of the sides & roof of the cranial cavity?
PARIETAL, frontal, occipital, temporal
The structure that serves as the socket for the head of the femur is the:
illium, ACETABULUM, pubis, ischium
Where are cruciate ligaments found in the knee?
LATERAL & MEDIAL IN THE KNEE, withing the condylar notch, anterior & posterior in the knee, between the tibial & femoral condyles
A triangular muscle that abducts the arm & covers the shoulder is the:
latissimus, DELTOID, trapezius, rhomboideus
The rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis & the vastus intermedius are muscles that extend the legs & are known as the:
QUADRICEPS, peroneus longus, hamstrings, adductor longus
The muscle that flexes & supinates the forearm & covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the:
teres major, BICEPS BRACHII, flexor radialis, deltoid
The muscle that forms the bulk of the upper calf is the:
quadriceps, hamstrings, GASTROCNEMIUS, biceps femoris
The mandible articulates with the:
maxillae, TEMPORAL BONE, molars, zygomatic
The thoracic spine contains how many vertebrae?
5, 7, 9, ~12~
The inner lining of the uterus is the:
exometrium, myometrium, ENDOMETRIUM, perimetrium
The walls of the vagina are lined with:
MUCOUS MEMBRANE, peritoneum, fascia, serous membrane
All of the following ligaments maintain the position of the uterus except the:
broad ligament, OVARIAN LIGAMENT, round ligament, cardinal ligament
The perineum is the:
region anterior to the clitoris, AREA BETWEEN THE VAGINA & THE ANUS, covering of the abdominal cavity, region anterior to the vagina & urethral openings
Fertilization of the ovum generally occurs in the:
FALLOPIAN TUBES, uterus, ovaries, vagina
The hormone responsible for the development & maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristics is:
ESTROGEN, progesterone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin
The structure that provides an exchange of nutrients & wastes between the fetus & mother & secretes the hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy is:
amniotic fluid, PLACENTA, umbilical cord, endometrium
In the ovary, a granular yellow body that develops after the extrusion of the ovum is the:
graafian follicle, CORPUS LUTEUM, stroma, tunica albuginea
The finger-like projections on the end of the fallopian tubes are:
mesovarium, infundibulum, FIMBRIAE, isthmi
The funnel-shaped open distal end of each fallopian tube is called a/an:
fimbriae, INFUNDIBULUM, ampulla, isthmus
The portion of the uterus above the level of the uterine tubes is called the:
body, isthmus, FUNDUS, cervix
The elevated adipose tissue over the symphysis is called the:
MONS PUBIS, labia majors, perineum, vestibule
The ovary is attached to the uterus by the:
mesovarium, OVARIAN LIGAMENT, suspensory ligament, broad ligament
The middle layer of the uterus composed of muscle is the:
exometruim, MYOMETRIUM, endometrium, perimetrium
The outermost covering of the brain & spinal cord is the:
arachnois, DURA MATER, pia mater, pons
The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:
VENTRICLES, auricles, fissures, sulci
The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:
cerebellum, pons, MEDULLA OBLONGATA, cerebrum
All thought takes place in the:
midbrain, CEREBRAL CORTEX, cerebellum, pons
The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
NEURON, axon, dendrite, ion
The cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is:
V, ~ VIII ~, XI, XII
The peripheral nervous system contains:
brain & spinal cord, CRANIAL & SPINAL NERVES, spinal cord & spinal nerves, cranial nerves & spinal cord
Muscle tone, coordination of voluntary muscles, & balance are controlled in the:
CEREBELLUM, cerebrum, pons, medulla
The largest part of the brain is the:
cerebellum, CEREBRUM, pons, hyothalamus
Which cranial nerve emerges from the medula, passes thru the skull & descends thru the neck region into the thorax & abdominal region?
IX, ~ X ~ , XI, XII
The cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tongue & sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the:
glossopharyngeal, HYPOGLOSSAL, facial, olfactory
Which cranial nerve can be tested for sensation of pain, touch & temperature with the use of a safety pin & hot & cold objects?
IV, ~ V ~ , VII, VIII
Which cranial nerve carries impulses for sense of smell?
~ I ~, II, III, IV
Neurons that conduct impulses to the cardiac muscles are part of the:
central nervous system, AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, afferent system, somatic system
The contractions of involuntary muscles are controlled by the:
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, sympathetic nervous system, central nervous system, somatic nervous system
The neuroglia are cells that:
SUPPORT & PROTECT, conduct impulses, are only found outside the central nervous system, convey visceral information
The cytoplasmic process of a neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body is a/an:
ganglion, dendrite, nissl body, AXON
The part of the brain that is a continuation of the spinal cord & forms the inferior portion of the brain stem is the:
pons, MEDULLA, midbrain, hypothalmus
Which area of the brain produces subconscious skeletal muscle movements required for coordination & balance?
cerebrum, CEREBELLUM, midbrain, medulla
The fifth cranial nerve is also called the :
vagus nerve, vestibulocochlear nerve, TRIGERMINAL NERVE, trochlear
Which of the following neuroglia are star shaped & attach neurons to their blood vessels?
ependyma, oligodendroglia, microglia, ASTROCYTES
Where is cerebrospinal fluid formed?
cerebellum, superior sagittal sinus, VENTRICLES, auricles
The diencephalon in composed of the:
pons & midbrain, medulla & insula, THALAMUS & HYPOTHALAMUS, midbran & thalamus
The wisp-like roots of the nerves at the end of the spinal cord are called the:
conus medullaris, filum terminale, CAUDA EQUINA, median fissure
Neuron axons that are surrounded by a multilayer, white, phospholipid, segmented covering are called:
gray matter, MYELINATED NEURONS, neurofibrils, nissl bodies
Chemicals released by neurons to increase or inhibit impulses are called:
polarizers, NEUROTRANSMITTERS, regenerators, synapse
The bridge con necting the spinal cord with the brain is the:
brain stem, PONS, midbrain, diecephalon
The inner lining of the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of:
muscle, areolar tissue, EPITHELIUM, sertoli's cells
Ninety-six percent of the body's mass is made up of:
OXYGEN, CARBON, HYDROGEN & NITROGEN, oxygen, potassium, hydrogen & sulfur; oxygen, carbon, phosphorus & magnesium; oxygen, carbon, magnesium & sodium
The essential component of hemoglobin is:
oxygen, IRON, nitrogen, hydrogen
A pH level refers to:
phosphorus vs hydrogen levels, ACIDITY VS ALKALINITY LEVELS, a & b, none of the above
The basic living, structural & functional unit of the body is known as the:
organ, tissue, organism, CELL
What is the function of phagocytic white blood cells:
capture food particles, promote ribosome function, ENGULF & DESTROY BACTERIA, encourage cell rejuvenation
The result of fertilization of gametes is a/an:
fetus, ZYGOTE, ovum, sperm
The roof of the mouth is formed by the:
palatoglossal arch, circumvallate papillae, HARD & SOFT PALATES, filiform papillae
The teeth are composed primarily of:
DENTIN, cementum, enamel, pulp
The set of teeth that erupt at about six months of age & are lost are the:
secondary dentition, DECIDUOUS TEETH, third molars, bicuspids
The main duct of the pancreas is the:
duct of santorini, DUCT OF WIRSUNG, common bile duct, islets of langerhans
Which of the following glands are located in the stomach?
PARIETAL CELLS, crypts of lieberkuhm, brunner's glands, paneth cells
The portion of the stomach above the level of the lower esophageal sphincter is the:
pylorus, body, FUNDUS, antrum
Which of the following substances are absorbed in the stomach?
proteins, ALCOHOL, fats, starches
The function of the small intestine is:
synthesis of bacteria, DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION OF NUTRIENTS, excretion of bile, synthesis of vitamins
The small intestine is drained by the:
aorta, hepatic artery, HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN, gastric vein
The pouches of the large intestine are called:
epiploic appendages, plicae circulares, rugae, HAUSTRA
The secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of the:
X NERVE, xii nerve, i nerve, v nerve
Testosterone is secreted by the:
CELLS OF LEYDIG, sertoli's cells, somatic cells, parietal cells
Inhibin is produced by the:
cells of leydig, SERTOLI'S CELLS, somatic cells, parietal cells
The most abundant ion in the body is:
CALCIUM, sodium, potassium, magnesium
The conduction fibers that run from the AV node down the interventricular septum are referred to as the:
purkinje fibers, BUNDLE OF HIS, sa node, left bundle branch
The left coronary artery divides into the:
posterior interventricular & marginal, middle & great cardiac, ANTERIOR DESCENDING & CIRCUMFLEX, middle & marginal
Which of the following structures are found in the ventricles of the heart?
pectinate muscles, PAPILLARY MUSCLES, ligamentum anteriorum, fossa ovalis
The function of hemoglobin is to:
CARRY OXYGEN, fight infection, initiate clotting, regulate temperature
Albumin, globulin & fibrinogen are all:
PLASMA ROTEINS, coagulation factors, formed elements of blood, hematopoietic growth factors
The large vein that drains the head is the:
saphenous, JUGULAR, brachial, carotid
Which of the following arteries does not arise directly from the aorta:
celiac, mesenteric, common carotid, VERTEBRAL
The vessel that delivers blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver is the:
hepatic artery, basilic vein, HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN, cystic vein
Which of the following in not part of the immune system?
lymph nodes, tonsil, spleen, THYROID
The thymus gland function in immunity by producing:
T CELLS, antigens, interferon, lymphocytes
The structure that is located anterior to the esophagus & extends from the larynx to the fifth thoracic vertebrae is the:
TRACHEA, epiglottis, pharynx, larynx
The portion of the small intestine that joins the large intestine is the:
duodenum, jejunum, ILLEUM, cecum
Another name for the folds of the stomach is:
microvilli, cristae, RUGAE, plicae circulares
The longest, heaviest & strongest bone in the body is the:
pelvis, FEMUR, tibia, spine
The anterior chamber of the eye lies:
between the iris & the lens, anterior to the lens, BEHIND THE CORNEA & IN FRONT OF THE IRIS, behind the iris & in front of the lens
Aqueous humor is found within the:
ANTERIOR CAVITY, posterior cavity, vitreous chamber, cornea
The ureters enter the bladder:
MEDIALLY at the superior aspect, from the anterior aspect, FROM THE POSTERIOR ASPECT, at the distal aspect
Which membrane lines the thoracic cavity?
PLEURA, pericardium, peritoneum, periosteum
The region between the lungs is the:
diaphragm, MEDIASTINUM, pleural cavity, retroperitoneal space
Which duct carries bile from the liver & gallbladder to the duodenum?
cyctis, COMMON BILE, wirsung, common hepatic
Which of the following is not part of the stomach?
HILUM, fundus, antrum, body
Which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?
poupart, round, retzius, TREITZ
What valve is located between the left upper & lower chambers of the heart?
MITRAL, aortic, pulmonary, tricuspid
Which of the the following structures would not be found in a blood vessel?
tunica adventitia, tunica intima, TUNICA VAGINALIS, tunica media
Spiral-shaped bacteria are identified as:
bacilli, SPIRILLA, cocci, diplococci
Rickettsiae are transmitted by:
physical contact, airborne organisms, INSECT BITES, molds & yeast
A valuable laboratory test for determining bacterial identification is a/an:
GRAM STAIN, iodine stain, lactophenol stain, electron microscope
Microbes that prefer to live without oxygen are called?
ANAEROBES, aerobes, microaerophiles, capnophiles
The relationship in which organisms occupy the same habitat but do not affect each other is known as:
commensalism, NEUTRALISM, parasitism, mutualism
A relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of the other is
commensalism, neutralism, PARASITISM, mutualism
A disease that occures quickly and has rapid recovery is known as a/an:
ACUTE DISEASE, chronic disease, asymptomatic disease, primary disease
Vaccination is an example of:
artificial passive immunity, ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY, natural active immunity, natural passive immunity
Which of the organelles of the cell is responsible for the production of energy as ATP?
golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, MITOCHONDRIA, lysosomes
Which process is an active transport mechanism?
diffusion osmosis, PHAGOCYTOSIS, pinocytosis
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGENS, neisseria, escherichia coli, staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus normally found on the skin is an example of:
RESIDENT FLORA, transient flora, parasitism, mutualism
Which of the following microorganisms is rod-shaped?
virus, BACILLUS, coccus, spirillum
The simplest form of cell organization is the:
protozoa, fungi mold, BACTERIUM, protoplasm
Fine, thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion are:
mesosomes, FLAGELLA, mitochondria, fimbriae
A bacillus found in the intestine is:
ESCHERICHIA COLI, staphylococcus, neisseria, treponema pallidum
The part of the body that has the most abundant & various microbes is the:
hair, intestinal tract, MOUTH & THROAT, skin
Which term defines microorganisms that are capable of producing disease under favorable condition?
parasites, PATHOGENS, germinates, spores
Positive assurance of sterility can be accomplished only with the use of:
process monitors, BIOLOGIC MONITORS, bowie-dick test, chemical indicators
Which of the following bacteria is gram positive?
proteus, STREPTOCOCCUS, pseudomonas, rickettsia
Syphilis is caused by:
TREPONEMA PALLIDUM, candida albicans, haemophilus, clostridium tetani
Malaria & amoebic dysentery are caused by:
bacteria, fungus, PROTOZOA, mold
A bacteria frequently found in soil, water, sewage, debris & air is
escherichia coli, salmonella, mycobacterium tuberculosis, CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
A vegetative resting state of some bacilli is known as a:
pleuropneumonia-like organisms (pplo), SPORE, mycoplasma, fungus
A passive process in which there is a net or greater movement of molecules or ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called:
DIFFUSION, osmosis, filtration, active process
DNA is contained within the:
lysosome, golgi comples, NUCLEUS, mitochondria
Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the body's:
1st line of defense, 2ND LINE OF DEFENSE, 3rd line of defense, 4th line of defense
Cell "drinking" is called:
phagocytosis, PINOCYTOSIS, osmosis, diffusion
An organelle that is responsible for the packaging of proteins is the:
GOLGI COMPLEX, mitochondria, cilia, nucleus
An organelle that contains an enzyme that destroys foreign substances within the cell is the:
nucleus, LYSOSOME, ribosome, golgi complex
The division of a reporduction cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called:
mitosis, MEIOSIS, spontaneous generation, cytokinesis
A disease that is commonly found in a community is considered:
ENDEMIC, an epidemic, latent, nosocomial
Which bacteria caused rheumatic fever?
escherichia coli, pseudomonas, STREPTOCOCCUS, staphylococcus
What term describes someone know as a "host" who has an infection but displays no symptoms?
CARRIER, transmitter, reservoir, pandemic
An example of autoimmune disease is:
LUPUS, asthma, allergies, AIDS
Chemical substances that react with the body and cause the formation of antibodies are know as:
t cells, ANTIGENS, gamma globulin, antibodies
An acid-fast test is used to identify:
TUBERCULOSIS, gas gangrene, gonorrhea, diphtheria
A type of relationship in which two organisms live together but only one benefits is:
parasitism, mutualism, COMMENSALISM, antagonism
The smallest living microorganism that must live within another cell is a:
protozoa, VIRUS, bacteria, amoeba
Cell "eating" is called:
PHAGOCYTOSIS, pinocytosis, osmosis, histolytica
A solution in wich the concentration of water molecules is the same as in blood is said to be:
hypotonic, hypertonic, ISOTINIS, isometric
Which structure is known as the control center of the cell?
ribosome, organelle, chromosome, NUCLEUS
Division of the parent cell's cytoplasm & organelles is known as:
parenting, division, mutation, CYTOKINESIS
Inorganic compounds usually lack?
oxygen, hydrogen, CARBON, nitrogen
The symbol for sodium chloride is:
NaOCI, H2O, FE, " NaCI"
In what environment is Escherichia coli (E. coli) usually found?
INTESTINAL TRACT, respiratory tract, skin, blood
Which type of microorganism requires an amount of oxygen that is less than the amound contained in the atmosphere?
MICROAEROPHILIC, aerobic, anaerobic, nosocomial
Symbiosis means:
organisms that are mutually destructive, A CONSTANT RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN UNLIKE SPECIES OF ORGANISMS, aerobic organisms, anaerobic organisms
What microorganism is responsible for causing gastric ulcer disease?
HELICOBACTER PYLORI, staphylococcus aureus, vibriocholerae, salmonella typhi
What microorganism is responsible for causing Creutzfeld-Jakob disease?
arbovirus, toxoplasma gondii, lassa fever virus, PRION
Microorganisms that habitually live in the epidermis deep in the crevices & folds of the skin are:
RESIDENT MICROORGANISMS, transient microorganisms, parasitic microorganisms, carrier microorganisms
Toxins (poisons) that are soluble & diffuse out of intact bacterial cells into the surrounding tissue are:
endotoxins, EXOTOXINS, commensals, enzymes
The most common brain disorder is:
eliepsy, CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENTS, dyslexia, alzheimer's
Trigeminal neuralgia arises from the irritation of which cranial nerve?
I, "V", VI, VII
The progressive destruction of the myelin sheaths of the neurons in the CNS accompanied by proliferation of astrocytes is a condition referred to as:
MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, parkinson's disease, cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy
The study of tumors is called:
physiology, histology, ONCOLOGY, pathology
A cancerous growth is said to be:
MALIGNANT, benign, neoplastic, nodular
An abnormal increase in the number of cells is called:
hypoplasia, HYPERPLASIA, hypertrophy, hypotrophy
The spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body is referred to as
benign, METASTASIS, metabolic, localization
Thrombosed veins within the rectum and anus are referred to as:
polyps, fissures, HEMORRHOIDS, sinus tract
Graves' disease is characterized by:
decreased metabolc rate, weight gain, restlessness, HYPERTHYROIDISM
An inherited CNS disease that involves degeneration of the CNS is:
tic douloureux, TAY-SACHS, reye's syndrome, parkinson's disease
Memory impairments result from lesions in the:
LIMBIC SYSTEM, hypothalamus, pons, cortex
The abnormal growth of endometrium on the outside of the uterus is termed:
leiomyoma, polyps, cysts, ENDOMETRIOSIS
The benign tumor that damages the mastoid air cells & ossicles of the ear is:
otosclerosis, acoustic neuroma, CHOLESTEATOMA, hydrops
What condition affects the medulla of the adrenal gland & causes the overproduction of adrenaline?
cushing's syndrome, addison's disease, PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA, diabetic nephropathy
A type of uterine fibroid that can cause menorrhagia & increased fertility is:
LEIOMYOMA, inclusion cysts, gartner's duct cysts, bartholin duct abscess
The root word arterio means:
joint, ARTERY, bronchus, gland
Enuresis is:
NOCTURNAL BED-WETTING, scanty urine, toxic levels of urea, painful urination
Hypertension means:
normal blood pressure, low blood pressure, HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE, no blood pressure
Anaerobic means:
WITHOUT OXYGEN, with oxygen, additional oxygen, small amount of oxygen
Dys- means:
DIFFICULT, skin, near, away from
QID refers to:
1 time a day, 2 times a day, 3 times a day, 4 TIMES A DAY
Chole refers to:
vagina, yellow, BILE, cartilage
Mastectomy means:
EXCISION OF A BREAST, breast biopsy, incision into the chest, removal of a tumor
Os means:
Ear, OPENING, bone, valve
Aseptic means:
WITHOUT SEPSIS, with sepsis, clean, decontaminated
Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy means removal of:
one tube & ovary, both ovaries, BOTH TUBES & OVARIES, both tubes
NPO means:
no food after midnight, NOTHING BY MOUTH, only liquids, no liquids
Mentoplasty means reconstruction of the:
face, CHIN, eyelids, breast
Pneumonectomy means:
removal of air from a cavity, incision into the bronchi, REMOVAL OF A LUNG, incision into the trachea
-scopy means:
VIEWING, excision, recording, incision
Hepat refers to:
LIVER, blood, iron, bile
Tachycardia is a/an:
slow heart rate, FAST HEART RATE, normal heart rate, irregular heart rate
-tomy means:
INCISION, fusion, excision, inflammation
Ectomy means:
incision, opening, EXCISION, anastomoses
Appendicitis means:
occlusion of the appendix, excision of the appendix, INFLAMMATION OF THE APPENDIX, incision into the appendix
Inter- means:
BETWEEN, within, below, above
Oophor refers to:
tubes, OVARY, vagina, uterus
Cephalgia refers to:
abnormally large head, HEADACHE, inflammation of the brain, chronic pain
Which of the following abbreviation denotes the AIDS virus?
The abbreviation used for the left eye is:
LE, "OS", OP, OU
A steriod used topically to diminish inflammation after eye surgery is:
METHYLPREDNISOLONE ACETATE (DEPO-MEDROL), acetylcholine chloride (miochol-e intraocular), healon, hyaluronidase (wydase)
Dilating drops are called:
MYDRIATICS, miotics, myopics, topical drops
An enzyme used before cataract surgery to soften to zonules of the lens is:
pilocarpine hydrochloride, atropine sulfate, acetylcholine chloride, ALPA-CHYMOTRYPSIN
A medicine cup holds 2 ounces. How many milliliters does it hold?
30 ml, 45 ml, "60 ml", 80 ml
What drug may be used to treat an allergy?
ANTIHISTAMINE, antibiotic, anticoagulant, antiarrhythmics
Soda lime is used in mask inhalation anesthesia to:
adjust anesthetic levels, ABSORB CARBON DIOXIDE, absorb toxic elements, sufficiently ventilate patient
Balanced anesthesia is sometimes referred to as:
monitored anesthesia care, spinal block anesthesia, NEUROLEPTANESTHESIA, general anesthesia
Most anesthetic agents are:
POTENTIALLY LETHAL, harmless, poisonous, ineffective
During general anesthesia, the patient is
asleep by conscious, awake, able to respond to verbal commands, UNCONSCIOUS
Cricoid pressure:
caused the patient to become paralyzed, OCCLUDES THE ESOPHAGUS, is performed for every patient, is needed throughout all procedures
An antagonist drug:
NEUTRALIZES ACTION OF ANOTHER DRUG, produces complete anesthesia, is used only when necessary, is given orally
Muscular fasciculation refers to:
voluntary muscle contractions, muscle degeneration, INVOLUNTARY MUSCLE CONTRACTIONS, muscle hypoxia
A nonproprietary name for a drug, usually selected by the original develper of the drug, is _____.
GENERIC, trademark, chemical, brand
The acronym MAC stands for:
mixed anesthesia, manipulated anesthesia comfort, MONITORED ANESTHESIA CARE, monitored anesthesia capnography
Which of the following is not an inhalation anesthetic agent?
enflurane, FENTANYL CITRATE, nitrous oxide, halothane
The intravenous barbiturate general anesthestic used for induction most frequently is:
THIOPENTAL SODIUM, isoflurane, diazepam, ketamine
Cephalothin sodium (Keflin) is a/an:
ANTIBIOTIC, steroid, diuretic, mydriatic
Indirect arterial blood pressure is obtained with a:
radial artery catheter, SPHYGMOMANOMETER, swan-ganz catheter, cvp line
Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?
SODIUM BICARBONATE, atropine, lidocaine, meperidine
Hypovolemia is low:
blood pressure, body temperature, BLOOD VOLUME, oxygen volume
Intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?
INDUCTION, maintenance, emergence, recovery
An emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractility is:
CALCIUM CHLORIDE, droperidol (inapsine), isoproterenol hydrochloride (isuprel), furosemide (lasix)
A drug used to reverse hypotension is:
dantrolene, propranolol hydrochloride (inderal), procainamide hydrochloride (pronestyl), LEVARTERENOL (LEVOPHED)
Meperidine hydrochloride (demerol) is a/an:
ANALGESIC, bronchial dilator, vasoconstrictor, sedative
A radiopaque contrast medium used in surgery is:
methylene blue, RENOGRAFIN, indigo carmine, gentian violet
The trade name for epinephrine is:
protamine sulfate, atropine, ADRENALIN, procaine
Cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular origin can be treated with:
digitoxin, prostigmin, LIDOCAINE, furosemide
Dextran is used parenterally to:
EXPAND BLOOD PLASMA VOLUME, nourish vital tissue, carry oxygen in circulation, increase blood viscosity
A barbiturate that may be used for sleed the night before surgery is:
diazepam, meperidine, SECOBARBITAL, scopolamine
Steroids are used for reduction of:
fluid in the body, body's need for oxygen, TISSUE INFLAMMATION & SWELLING, uterine contraction
The most widely used local anesthetic is:
cocaine, LIDOCAINE (XYLOCAINE), procaine hydrochloride, bupivacaine hydrochloride (marcaine)
A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is short cases is:
SUCCINYLCHOLINE CHLORIDE (ANECTINE), atracurium besylate, pancuronium bromide (pavulon), vecuronium bromide
What amount is approximately equal to 500 ml?
4 ounces, 8 ounces, "1 PINT", 1 quart
Dark blood in the operative field is a sign of possible:
rigid chest, HYPOXIA, hypertension, hypothermia
Which procedure would not be done for a patient with suspected malignant hyperthermia?
hyperventilation with oxygen, administer dantrolene, INJECT SUCCINYLCHOLINE, administer papaverine
An emergency drug useful in stbilizing ventricular fibrillation is:
metaraminol bitartrate (aramine), PROPRANOLOL HYDROCHLORIDE (INDERAL), vasopressin, nitroglycerine
A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space affecting a portion of the spinal cord is called:
bier's block, field block, nerve block, SPINAL BLOCK
What is a major side effect of thrombolytics?
HEMORRHAGE, clotting, infection, nausea
The operative stage of anesthetic is the:
1st stage, 2nd stage, "3rd stage", 4th stage
Which quantity weighs the most?
1 minin, 1 milligram, 1 gram, "1 kilogram"
Parenteral administration of a drug refers to:
sublingual administration, ADMINISTRATION WITH A NEEDLE, rectal administration, axillary administration