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Flight Engineer Written Prep FEX

Flight Engineer Written Turbojet (FEJ) Only Current as of Spring 2011. Questions, answers, and detailed explanations. For test prep you can skip the question card when it uses the word 'explained'. Also many words are written especially numbers. This is so that the speech engine on quizlet pronounces the cards correctly. An example might be 29.92 would be written as two niner decimal niner two. Instead of / I use 'forward slash'. I find the speech engine to be valuable in providing a different c…
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Authorized max takeoff weight of a transport airplane when less than the max certificated weight is a factor which
varies with runway length elevation and ambient temperature
PIC emergency authority to exclude from flight deck
Any person in the interest of safety
AC at FL390 when must flight crewmember put on and use O2 mask?
When one pilots leaves the flight deck the other pilot must use a mask but other crewmembers need not
Training for particular variation of airplane
Differences training
Respiration hypoxia decompression training on AC operated above
operated above twenty five thousand feet
CFR part 1 defintes flightcrewmember
engineer navigator or pilot assigned to duty in an airplane during flight time
Which flight crewmembers may leave their station during CRUISE to perform normal duties?
Either pilot or the flight engineer but only one at a time
Common Carriage Not Involved?
Part one twenty five
CVR and flight data recorders may not be used
determining any certificate action or civil penalty arising out of an accident or occurrence
AC requiring FEX can be operated Part 91 only during
Test flight
PAX seated in cabin of all-cargo AC
PIC may authorize the pax to be admitted to the crew compartment
which flight engineer applicants may complete the entire initial flight check in an approved simulator
applicants who posess a commercial pilot certificate with instrument category and class ratings
each air carrier flight deck crewmember must be provided with quick-donning type O2 mask when operating at flight altitudes above
flight level two five zero
CVR operated continuously from the start of
the use of the checklist to completion of the final checklist at the termination of the flight
Flight Recorder records 5 things
Heading
Airspeed
Time
Vertical Acceleration
Altitude
Flight Time Limit Flat Ops require two pilots and at least one addictional flight crewmember
one thousand hours during any twelve calendar month period
AC operated under CFR 91 when carrying pax or cargo only WHEN:
operator has an L.D.A. (Letter of Deviation Authority) issued under C F R Part 125
How many hours delay is recommended before going to flight altitudes of up to 8000 feet after scuba diving without controlled ascent (nondecompression stop)?
twelve hours
greater than flight level two five zero the flight engineer quick donning oxygen equipment must be located ______
must be located within immediate reach of duty station
Information recorded by CVR may be erased no less than what time period?
30 minutes after recording
the flight engineer may perform maintenance function under C F R Part one twenty five?
Replenish hydraulic fluid in accordance with FAR's and certificate holder's manuals
flight engineer Part one twenty one Flag no greater than ___ hours in ____ consecutive days
no greater than three hundred hours in any ninety consecutive days
Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier require that a flight crewmember
not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during a required rest period
temp certificate effective for
120 days
ground for revocation of an FEX certificate
transportation of depressant or stimulant drugs
FEX incapacitated who may perform duties during an IFR flight conducted under CFR part 121?
either pilot but only if qualified to perform flight engineer functions
FEX revoked - you may not apply for the same type of certificate for
1 year after date of revocation
Flight engineer operating under Part 121 must receive recurrent training on
emergency operation of all airplane flight systems within the preceding 12 calendar months
Min operating experience for turbojet AC with common carriage?
12 Hours Supervised Initial Operating Experience
Flight Engineer notices in-flight mechanical irregularity - who is responsible for maintenance log entry?
Pilot In Command
Unless suspended or revoked a flight engineer certificate
is issued without a specific expiration date
A flight crewmember nonessential activity that is authorized
Pointing out sights of interest to passengers while descending through 12000
Flight Engineer operating experience required by Part 121 may be reduced to ____ % of the hours required by the substitution of ____ additional takeoff and ____ additional landing for each ____ of flight
reduced to 50% of the hours required by the substitution of one additional takeoff and landing for each hour of flight
How does deadhead transportation affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
not considered as part of any required rest period
Crewmember Certificate may be issued by the FAA to flight crewmembers on US registered aircraft engaged in
international air commerce
FEX gets medical august 25 2010
good until august 31 2011
FEX wants to fly right seat (SIC)
needs "Upgrade training"
Nonessential conversation below 10000 feet allowed/not allowed?
Nonessential conversation is not allowed below 10,000 feet
person with physical deficiency under the standards of CFR part 67 for their medical certificate
may not perform flight engineer duties
Part 121 Flag Flight Limit for FEX where only one FEX is required
120 hours during any 30 consecutive days
Refuse drug or alcohol test results when requested by FAA inspector grounds for
revocation of flight engineer and pilot certificates
Never served on turbojet you need
Never served on a turbojet the type of training you require is Initial training
Use a fax copy of lost or destroyed medical for __ days
fax copies valid for sixty days
certificate issued to crewmembers of U.S. air carriers engaged in international air commerce?
a crewmember certificate issued by FAA
Pilot-in-command or Second-in-command used to satisfy experience requirements for Flight Engineer must have been obtained on what type of aircraft?
a transport category aircraft or equivalent military aircraft
Limitation regarding Flight Engineer deadheading back to his Base is that it ____ be considered part of ____ _____
cannot be considered part of required rest
if you violate federal or state drug statutes
if you violate statues it could result in suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating held
Air Carrier flight requires FEX one flight crewmember must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the FE function - crew member is REQUIRED/NOT REQUIRED to have flight engineer certificate?
the crew member is NOT required to have a flight engineer certificate
Limitation of Part 121 domestic Flight Engineer flight time limit in any calendar month is ____ hours in any ____ ____
flight time limit in any calendar month is 100 hours in any calendar month
The posession of which combination of certificates permits an airman to perform as a flight engineer?
posession of a temporary flight engineer certificate and a second-class medical certificate
Flight engineers may perform maintenance on Part 121 aircraft when?
flight engineers may perform maintenance on Part 121 Aircraft when they hold an appropriate mechanic certificate have completed an approved training program and are authorized by the certificate holder
Lose your FEX certificate you can use a ____ for ____ days
you can use a facsimile copy from Oklahoma City for sixty days
Issuance of Flight Engineer certificate requires
a valid 1st or 2nd class medical certificate
Grounds for revoking any airman certificate or rating held by a flight engineer
any Alteration of their flight engineer certificate
During the last ____ calendar months crewmembers must have completed training programs on HAZMAT and magnetized materials
training must have been completed during the last 12 calendar months
Which of the following is true regarding flight engineer emergency evacuation duties?
The Duties will be described in air carrier's FOM
Flight Engineer recency of experience requirements
Pass the certificate holder or F.A.A. check for that type airplane or have at least 50 hours of flight time on that type airplane within the preceding 6 calendar months
Flight time limitations for Part 121 domestic operations require that a flight engineer be ____ of all duty for at least _____ consecutive hours in any ____ consecutive days
relieved of all duty for at least 24 consecutive hours in any 7 consecutive days
Minimum Equipment List indicates required items which
may be inoperative for a flight beyond a terminal point
Megaphone's required with passengers equal to or greater than one hundred are _ up front and _ in the back that a Flight Attendant can quickly access
one up front and one in the back that a flight attendant can quickly access
Interior Emergency Exit Lights must be checked for Operation. C.F.R.'s require that these lights must be ___ manually from the ____ ____ and the _____ ____
be operable manually from the flightcrew station and the passenger compartment
Gear warning associated with flap position _____ be cancelled
cannot be cancelled
What determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers located in the passenger compartments?
passenger seating capacit, number of galleys, and their location
supplemental oxygen requirements when a flight is operated at or below Flight Level 2 5 0 is dependent upon the Aircraft's capability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of ____ feet within ___ minutes
descent to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet within four minutes
cargo in the pax compartment may be carried in approved cargo bins if located
anywhere in the passenger compartment
which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight conducted under C.F.R. Part one twenty one
dispatch release
load manifest
flight plans
when only one megaphone is required where must it be located?
must be located at the most rearward location in the passenger compartment
above what cabin altitude must Oxygen be provided for all persons during the entire flight
All crewmembers must be provided above twelve thousand feet and all passengers must be provided oxygen above fifteen thousand feet
required information on dispatch release for a DOMESTIC air carrier
the minimum fuel supply
fireproof means that the material withstands the heat of fire as well as ______
Steel
aircraft requires a third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator - what failsafe must exist
a power source must provide reliable operation for 30 minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system
who can replace a seatblet under Part ninety one by a Letter of Deviation Authority from Part one twenty five?
any person designated in writing by the maintenance organization and arranged by the certificate holder to perform maintenance
aircraft has a fuel leak. which publication should be consulted?
the Manufacturer's Manual
Flight Recorder required on which aircraft?
all Part one twenty one and part one twenty five
What event will cause the Emergency Exit Lights to become Illuminated?
the Interruption of aircraft normal electrical power
Indication of corrosion below aluminum is described as?
small dark grey lumps
Arm Interior Emergency Exit Lights during ___, ______, and ______
during taxiing, takeoff, and landing
You get _____ seconds to don and use your oxygen mask
you get 5 seconds
After ignition source removed what class of material will not propagate a flame beyond safe limits?
class of materials described as Flame Resistant
aircraft required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning system and Glide Slope Deviation Alerting System are ____ - powered airplanes only
are Turbine-powered airplanes only
Part one twenty one. A third artificial horizon system must be _____ without ____ after failure of the electrical generating system
MUST be operational without selection after failure of the electrical generating system
You can put cargo aft of the rearmost seated passenger only if the cargo is ____ in an approved ___ ____
only if the cargo is carried in an approved cargo bin
If you put emergency equipment in an air carrier airplane it must be ____ ___ to indicate its method of operations
it must be clearly marked to indicate its method of operation
the second megaphone is required. Where will it be located?
At the forward end of the passenger compartment.
vortex generators prevent ____ _____ _____
prevent shock induced seperation
name a sweptback wings phenomenon
dutch roll
sweepback helps
increase critical Mach number
outboard ailerons help during
low speed operations
during flight with zero angle of attack the pressure along upper surface of the wing will be _____ atmospheric pressure
pressure will be less than atmospheric pressure
Angle of attack is increased, what will happen to the Center of pressure? It will move ____
The center of pressure will move forward
disadvantage of sweptback design vs straight wing design is the extremely powerful tendency for the wing to stall ___ ___ which compromises ____ control
for the wing to stall tip first which compromises aileron control
cause of airplane to slip when entering a turn
too much bank without enough rudder
use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables an airplane to land at a slower
enables an airplane to land at a slower airspeed
Name the most adverse affect on the aircraft caused by rain?
The water film roughened by impact of raindrops
centrifugal force counterbalanced by a ______ of the lift on the ______
by a portion of the lift on the wing
skid occurs when too ___ ______ is used
too much rudder
angle between chord line and longitudinal axis is
the angle between chord line and longitudinal axis is angle of incidence
when you trim nose-right and wing-up trim, the right aileron trim tab will move ____ , and the rudder tab wil move to the ____
the right aileron trim tabe will will move up, and the rudder tab will move to the left
constant mach cruise control procedure means thrust is _____ as aircraft weight decreases
thrust is reduced as aircraft weight decreases
What is the primary source of directional stability for an airplane?
Vertical Tail
Mean Aerodynamic Chord definition
chord of an imaginary airfoil which has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual airfoil
V one V R, and V two are ________ airspeeds. Answers are either calibrated, or indicated, or true airspeeds
V one, V R, and V two are indicated airspeeds
dihedral agnle increases _______ stability
dihedral increases lateral stability
When will power applications cause the greatest change in airplane trim and stability?
When on a power approach at low airspeeds
Disadvantage of wing mounted vortex generator
Increased drag (slightly) at low airspeed
True airspeed is determined by correcting equivalent airspeed for the _________ variation from the______ value at sea level.
True airspeed is determined by correcting equivalent airspeed for the air-density variation from the standard value at sea level.
Speed of sound varies with the ______ _______
Speed of sound varies with the Air Temperature
Climbing AC: TAS will _______ as the temperature decreases
TAS will decrease as the temperature decreases
Mach Number defined as the ratio of _____ to the ____ of _____
the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound
Stabilizer and Elevator are located at the top of the vertical fin, what is the disadvantage?
disadvantage is that it requires more mass due to a heavier structure
Absolute Ceiling Definition
Zero Rate of Climb
Straight wing versus Sweptback. The Sweptback wing has the advantage of _____ critical _____ ______
the advantage of higher critical MACH number
Transonic Range is Mach _ . _ _ to ___ . ___ __
Transonic Range is Mach zero point seven five to one point two zero
Shock-induced seperation of airflow occuring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept back wing may result in a ____ _____ _____, due to the center of pressure moving aft on the wing and a decrease of downwash on the horizontal tail
a severe diving moment, due to the center of pressure moving aft
What must happen to true airspeed (increase or decrease) to maintain the same Angle of attack in level flight, when the air density changes?
True airspeed must increase when the air density decreases
When does pressure altitude equal density altitude? at _____ temperature
at standard temperature
what is the most prevalent conditions for engine icing?
Low-engine speed during ground operations
OAT increases during a flight at constant power and indicated altitude, the TAS will ____ and the true altitude will _____
the true airspeed will increase and the true altitude will increase
Tropopause higher in the ____ than in the _____
higher in the summer than in the winter
What atmospheric cndx will decrease air density?
Decreasing ppp
What atmospheric cndx wchange will cause an increase in air density
increased ppp will cause an increase in air density
eye kay oh standard temperature for five thousand feet equals____ degrees Celsius or ____ Fahrenheit
Standard temperature at sea level is fifteen degrees Celsius or 59 degrees Fahrenheit. The temperature decreases two degrees centigrade per one thousand feet so five thousand feet calculation is sea level temperature minus ten degrees celsius or fifteen minus ten equals five degrees centigrade
What is the relationship between altitudes when the altimeter setting is higher than standard while flying at fifteen thousand feet indicated altitude?
Indicated altitude is higher than pressure altitude
In flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is?
visible water such as supercooled rain or cloud droplets
in-flight condition necessary for structural Icing to form is
visible moisure
Under-inflation of tires causes tread to wear
tread will be worn away more on the shoulders than in the center
Inboard Ailerons used during ___-____ and ___-_____ flight
Low-speed and high-speed flight
altimeter set to 29.92 at FL/MSL/AGL?
eighteen thousand feet feet MSL
Altimeter set to 28.92 instead of 28.82 - actual altitude will be ______ than indicated by ____ feet
one hundred feet lower than indicated
Altimeter set to 29.82 instead of 28.82 AC will be ____ feet ____ than indicated
aircraft will be thousand feet lower than indicated
Supplemental oxygen requirements pressurized air carrier transport airplanes for each crew-member how much is required?
A minimum of two hours supply
When should altimeters be set to the current reported setting of a station along the route?
Below eighteen thousand feet MSL and the barometric ppp is less than thirty one inches
FEX required to remain at FE panel with seatbelt fastened during ___, ___, ____ and __
during takeoff, climbs, descents, and landing
approximate altimeter indication after failing to reset local barometric ppp of 30.57 after descending from FL250 to a field elevation of 650'?
The altimeter indication changes 10 feet for each 0.01" Hg selected. The indication will decrease as you select lower settings and increase with higher settings. A change from 29.92 to 30.57 is a change of 0.65" Hg. (65 * 10 = 650') Therefore, the altimeter will indicate 650 feet low in this case. Since the field elevation is 650 feet, the altimeter will indicate (+650 - 650) sea level.
ATIS broadcasts updated upon ____ of any _____ ____, regardless of content change or reported values
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
Chines deflect ___ or ____ ____ from the engine intakes
Chines deflect water or slush away from the engine intakes
Flashing Red Light Gun Signal from the tower indicates that
Vehicles or personnel should clear the taxiway
Compressor Stall Recovery
Reduce thrust lever then slowly advance thrust lever again to decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades
cockpit voice recorder data kept in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in termination of the flight for what period of time?
60 days
Highest Ambient Temperature that ice is likely to form in the engine inlet?
Visibly Moist Air and plus forty five degrees Fahrenheit
Start Sequence I T T about to exceed temp limit, what should you do?
Shut off the fuel
Declare an emergency on Frequency ____ ____ ___ ___
The one in use
Minimum amount of fuel should remain after jettisoning with the main fuel control? 45 minutes at
º 23.1001 - For turbine engine powered airplanes, the jettisoning system must be designed so that it is not possible to jettison fuel in the tanks used for takeoff and landing below the level allowing climb from sea level to 10,000 feet and thereafter allowing 45 minutes cruise at a speed for maximum range.
EPR indication increase falsely if the Pt probe at the engine nose dome opening ices up?
If anti-ice is ON, but insufficient power has been used to provide adequate heat to the Pt2 probes for proper deicing, initial thrust settings may appear to decrease once the takeoff roll has begun, as increasing bleed air temperatures melt snow, or ice blockage of the Pt2 sensor inlet. As the probes become unblocked, artificially high EPR reading may decrease to actual values.
During start sequence ITT about to exceed limit you must...
Shut off the fuel immediately during the start sequence if the ITT attempts to exceed the temperature limit.
Leave the starter turning to provide cooling airflow through the engine.
smoke in the cockpit - oxygen diluter setting should be set to _____ __
should be set to 100%
Weight Multiplied by arm divided by the Reduction Factor is the formula used to determine
formula used to determine index units
For an airplane with a given gross weight and constant cruise speed, what is the relationship between fuel flow, temperature, and altitude? Fuel flow is higher when:
temperature is increased and altitude is decreased
Which factor is most significant when determining the optimum cruise altitude available?
Gross weight of the airplane at the beginning of the cruse.
Flying in a steady wind of 25 knots, the airplane is turned from a direct headwind to a direct tailwind. The indicated airspeed will
increase 50 knots, and the groundspeed will increase 25 knots
Which components in a turbine engine aid in stabilization of the compressor during low power operations?
Bleed Air Valves
Which location has the highest gas volume in a turbine engine?
Turbine Outlet
If a turbine engine catches fire internally during the start cycle, what initial action should be taken?
Shut off the fuel and continue motoring the starter.
What does P sub t sub 7 mean?
total absolute pressure at station number 7
which is the main advantage of an APU's centrifugal flow compressor
shorter than an axial compressor
which location has the highest gas pressure in a turbine engine?
compressor outlet
why should turbine engines normally be operated at idle for a period of time before shutdown?
turbine case cools faster and may shrink down and seize the turbine blades
what condition will cause a false, high E P R indication, in flight or on the ground?
Lose turbine discharge pressure lines
What conditions will cause a high E G T, W sub 'F', and R P M with a normal E P R indication, at all power settings?
Bleed valve stuck in the open position
What is the indicated speed of the engine high pressure compressor?
ninety four point one percent
which engine instrument is most likely to show an elevated reading if the turbine wheel has damage?
TIT
why should shutting an engine down by turning the boost pumps off and closing the airplane's fuel valve be used during emergencies only?
the fuel system's service life will be decreased because fuel wetted components will not be lubricated
the purpose of the hopper tank is to
permit a fast warm up of the engine oil
on most engines ram recovery occurs above ____ knots
on most engines ram recovery occurs above one hundred fourty knots
ram recovery definition
A rise in pressure above existing outside atmospheric pressure at the engine inlet, as a result of the forward velocity of an aircraft, is referred to as ram. Since any ram effect will cause an increase in compressor entrance pressure over atmospheric, the resulting pressure rise will cause an increase in the mass airflow and jet velocity, both of which tend to increase thrust.

Although ram effect increases the engine thrust, the thrust being produced by the engine decreases for a given throttle setting as an aircraft gains airspeed. Therefore, two opposing trends occur when an aircraft's speed is increased. What actually takes place is the net result of these two different effects.

An engine's thrust output temporarily decreases as aircraft speed increases from static, but soon ceases to decrease; towards the high speeds, thrust output begins to increase again.
_______, _______, then _______ is the proper start sequence for a turbine engine.
Starter, ignition, then fuel is the proper start sequence for a turbine engine.
The speed (RPM or percent) of the high pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine is referred to as...
N2
The speed (RPM or percent) of the low pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine is referred to as N1.
The low pressure compressor (of a triple-spool engine) will speed up as altitude is increased.
Many oils contain additives that provide for a high VI, disersancy, oxidation stability, and antiwear and antifoam properties. A high ash content can cause preignition, spark plug fouling, and other engine problems.
The ashless in ashless dispersant refers to oil that does not form ash deposits.
The turbine section of a turbojet engine is located aft, or downstream of the combustion chamber section. Specifically, it is directly behind the combustion chamber outlet.
The turbine assembly consists of two basic elements, the stator and the rotor, as does the compressor unit.
A pneumatic starter has a prescribed duty cycle to prevent overheating.
prevent overheating
The exhaust turbine bearing is the most critical lubricating point in a gas turbine engine because of
the high temperature normally present.
why operate a turbine at idle for period of time prior to shutdown?
Since, the turbine case cools faster and may shrink down and seize the turbine blades, turbine engines should normally be operated at idle for a period of time before shutdown.
why write down the max E G T during start?
helps maintenance determine inspection vs remove and overhaul
why fly at thirty six thousand feet?
Above 36,000 the temperature remains essentially constant. This leads to a rapid decrease in thrust as the climb continues. The aerodynamic drag decreases slowly with the higher altitude, but the thrust decreases faster. Above the tropopause the temperature is constant and altitudes slightly above the tropopause cause no further decrease in specific fuel consumption. Actually, altitudes much above the tropopause bring about a general deterioration of overall engine efficiency and the specific fuel consumption begins an increase with altitude. The extreme altitudes above the tropopause produce low combustion chamber pressures, low compressor Reynolds Numbers, low fuel flow, etc. which are not conducive to high engine efficiency. Because of the variation of ct with altitude, the majority of turbojet engines achieve maximum efficiency at or above 35,000 feet. For this reason, the turbojet airplane will find optimum range and endurance conditions at or above 35,000 feet provided the aircraft is not thrust or compressibility limited at these altitudes.
which section has highest gas volume?
Turbine Outlet
The speed (RPM or percent) of the lowe pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine is referred to as
N1
During engine start, closing of the start air valve may be verified by
air manifold pressure increasing slightly
dirty compressor blades may result in a ____ _____
high EGT
what condition can cause a false high EPR setting either on the ground or airborne?
ice in the inlet pressure lines
you start a turbine with an air starter, you get a hung start, describe the procedure
shut down the engine
explain why an engine will produce more power in cold temps than warm?
more oxygen is available
if the oil cooler relief valve should stick in the open position, what would be the probable result?
increased oil temperature
a function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is to
direct the flow of gasses to strike the turbine buckets at a desired angle
what is the event sequence for the continuous combustion cycle of a turbine engine
intake, compression, combustion, exhaust
primary purpose of an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger is to ____ the ____
is to cool the oil
in a dual axial-flow compressor system the first stage turbine drives the ___ ____ _____
drives the N two compressor
the function of the nozzle diaphram located on the upstream side of the turbine wheel is to ____ the velocity of the heated gasses flowing past the nozzle diaphragm
is to increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past the nozzle diaphragm
purpose of the engine diffuser is to
the engine diffuser decreases the velocity and increases the statis pressure of the air
what is the most critical parameter for a turbine engine during starting?
Exhaust Gast Temperature or E G T
what is a sprag clutch assembly?
The sprag clutch assembly engages automatically as soon as the rotor starts to turn, but disengages as soon as the drive coupling turns more rapidly than the rotor side. When the starter reaches this overrun speed, the action of the sprag clutch allows the gear train to coast to a halt. The output shaft assembly and drive coupling continue to turn as long as the engine is running.
during starting, what should prevent the engine from driving a pneumatic starater to burst speed?
Sprag clutch assembly
purpose of the hopper tank is to
permit a fast warm up of the engine oil
what is a hopper tank
A hopper tank is a smaller tank within the larger sump. Oil to the engine is drawn from the bottom of the hopper, and return oil feeds into the top of the hopper. This permits a small portion of the oil to be circulated through the engine.
Turbine wheel is damaged, what is a possible engine instrument indication?
elevated TIT
one thousand eight hundred and fourty gallons equals how many litres?
one gallon = 3.79 litres so 1840 times 3.79 = 6973.6
most critical engine parameter during start?
T I T
engine catches fire during start
shut off fuel and continue to motor the engine
The engine diffuser decreases the velocity and increases the static pressure of the _____
air
how does compressor R P M affect the power of a turbofan engine?
Compressor aerodynamics cause a nonlinear increase in power relative to compressor speed in a turbofan engine. There is a greater increase in power compared to a higher RPM at faster speeds.
The diffuser section in a turbine engine increases _____ and reduces _____
diffuser increases pressure and reduces velocity
____ then _____ then ____ is the proper start sequence
starter then ignition then fuel
in a dual axial-flow compressor system the first stage turbine drives the ____ compressor
N 2
____ and ____ fuels are wide cut fuels
J P four and Jet Bee fuels are wide cut fuels
on most engines ram recovery occurs above how many knots?
one hundred fourty knots
engine pressure ration measures the difference between
Compressor inlet total pressure corrected for inlet duct loss and turbine discharge total pressure. Definition of E P R is that it is an indication of the thrust being developed by the engine. It is instrumented by total pressure pickups in the engine inlet and in the turbine exhaust.
monitor Exhaust Gas Temperature when starting engines to prevent ____ ____ burnout or ____ _____
to prevent hot section burnout or metal distortion
why are pneumatic starters used on most large turbine engines?
pneumatic starters weigh less
what does P sub T sub seven mean?
P sub T sub seven means the total absolute pressure at station number seven. Explanation from F A A. If it is needed for calculating thrust during an engine trim check, use turbine discharge pressure otherwise known as P sub T sub seven
two basic elements of the turbine section of a turbine engine are the ___ and ___
are the rotor and stator
name an advantage of using one hundred fifteen volts four hundred hertz alternating current?
high voltage and low current reduces wire size and therefore weight
an electrical relay's purpose is that it controls _____
it controls remote, high current equipment items with a small switch
a nickel cadmium batter is overcharging, what gas is produced?
oxygen and explosive hydrogen
what condition characterizes a thermal runaway
continuous rising electrical current and increasing battery temperature
what disconnects a generator from the system bus when generator voltage is lower than battery voltage?
the reverse current relay disconnects the generator from the system bus
describe residual voltage
Residual voltage is the voltage of a generator with no field current flowing, and is produced by the residual magnetism of the generator. If the voltmeter indicates residual voltage, the generator is turning. If there is no voltage, the generator has been disconnected, or it has lost its residual magnetism
why is it important that all electrical loads and power sources be turned off before connecting or disconnecting the battery?
to prevent a spark from igniting explosive gas
what is the approximate nominal voltage rating of a fully charged nickel-cadmium battery containing twenty cells?
twenty five volts
a fuse-type current limiter has what purpose?
a fuse-type current limiter permits short periods of overload before the fuse link melts and breaks the circuit
what is the voltage of two lead-acid twelve volt batteries connected in series?
twenty four volts
what unit of power is used in direct current electrical circuits...answers could be amperes, or volts, or watts
watts
what causes cell imbalance in a nickel-cadmium battery?
cell imbalance is caused by constant-potential voltage charging - as a side note...low electrolyte levels also contribute to loss of capacity
what is the difference between a relay and a solenoid?
solenoids have movable cores.
Definition from the F A A: A relay is an electrically controlled device that opens and closes electrical contacts to effect the operation of other devices in the same or in another electrical circuit. The relay converts electrical energy into mechanical energy through various means, and through mechanical linkages, actuates electrical conductors (contacts) that control electrical circuits. Solid-state relays may also be used in electrical switching applications.
what will neutralize the electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
Bicarbonate of soda
an advantage of using 115 volt 400 cycle alternating current is _____
high voltage alternating current motors are smaller and lighter than equivalent direct current powered motors
A ___ - _______ voltage regulator uses a variable resistance element for controlling direct current generator field current
a carbon-pile voltage regulator
Explanation for a carbon-pile regulator. This is not a question on the test
The carbon pile voltage regulator depends on the resistance of a number of carbon disks arranged in a pile or stack. The resistance of the carbon stack varies inversely with the pressure applied. When the stack is compressed under appreciable pressure, the resistance in the stack is less. When the pressure is reduced, the resistance of the carbon stack increases, because there is more air space between the disks, and air has high resistance. Pressure on the carbon pile depends upon two opposing forces: a spring and an electromagnet. The spring compresses the carbon pile, and the electromagnet exerts a pull which decreases the pressure. The coil of the electromagnet, as represented in the diagram in figure 9-24, is connected across the generator terminal B and through a rheostat (adjustable knob) and resistor (carbon disks) to ground.
what type of relay will disconnect the generator from the main bus when generator voltage drops below battery voltage?
a reverse-current relay
periodically it is necessary to completely discharge and recharge a nickel-cadmium battery which will ____ cell imbalance and ___ of ____
to eliminage cell imbalance and loss of capacity
which is a feature of a trip free circuit breaker
it is impossible to manually hold it in the closed position
how are airplane alternating current generators rated, either Kilowatts or volts or kilovolt amperes which are K V A's
Kilovolt-amps
K V A
what is the purpose of a rotary inverter
a rotary inverter converts direct current to one hundred fifteen volts four hundred cycle power
Rotary Inverter explanation
this is not a question
permanent magnet inverter is composed of a dc motor and a permanent magnet ac generator assembly. Each has a separate stator mounted within a common housing. The motor armature is mounted on a rotor and connected to the dc supply through a commutator and brush assembly. The motor field windings are mounted on the housing and connected directly to the dc supply. A permanent magnet rotor is mounted at the opposite end of the same shaft as the motor armature, and the stator windings are mounted on the housing, allowing ac to be taken from the inverter without the use of brushes.
Generating systems are paralleled to ____ equal ____ loads
Generating systems are paralleled to obtain equal generator loads
Equalizing Circuit explained
The purpose of the equalizing circuit is to help the voltage regulators automatically by lowering the voltage of the high generator and raising the voltage of the low generator, so that the total will be shared equally by the generators.
visible discharge of static electricity from the airplane into the air?
saint elmo's fire
static wicks
dissipate static charges from control surfaces into the air to prevent interference on the radio
static dischargers explained
Static dischargers are installed on aircraft to reduce radio receiver interference. This interference is caused by corona discharge emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static. Corona occurs in short pulses which produce noise at the radio frequency spectrum. Static dischargers, normally mounted on the trailing edges of the control surfaces, wing tips, and vertical stabilizer, discharge the precipitation static at points a critical length away from the wing and tail extremities where there is little or no coupling of the static into the radio antenna.
a feature of an electromagnetic-type circuit breaker is that it may be ___ ____
it may be reset immediately
purpose of a Watt meter or upper case K upper case W meter is to
measure the work being formed
Watt Meter explanation
The Wattmeter explanation.
Electric power is measured by means of a wattmeter. Because electric power is the product of current and voltage, a wattmeter must have two elements, one for current and the other for voltage. For this reason, wattmeters are usually of the electrodynamometer type. The movable coil with a series resistance forms the voltage element, and the stationary coils constitute the current element. The strength of the field around the potential coil depends on the amount of current that flows through it. The current, in turn, depends on the load voltage applied across the coil and the high resistance in series with it. The strength of the field around the current coils depends on the amount of current flowing through the load. Thus, the meter deflection is proportional to the product of the voltage across the potential coil and the current through the current coils. The effect is almost the same (if the scale is properly calibrated) as if the voltage applied across the load and the current through the load were multiplied together.
If the current in the line is reversed, the direction of current in both coils and the potential coil is reversed, the net result is that the pointer continues to read up scale. Therefore, this type of wattmeter can be used to measure either ac or direct current power .
what is a function of the cellophane portion of the separator in a nickel-cadmium battery?
inhibits oxygen formed, when overcharging, from recombining with cadmium and creating heat that may lead to a thermal runaway
what speed does a frequency meter give a direct indication of? ____ R P M
generator R P M
purpose of a K.V.A.R. meter is to
indicate how hard the generator is working to produce the power being used
what is a feature of a non trip-free circuit breaker?
emergency circuits may be powered by holding it in a closed position
what will neutralize the electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery
a solution of boric acid, vinegar, lemon juice,or some other mildly acid solutions
the purpose of constant speed drive for an alternating current generator is to
maintain a uniform frequency
what increases or decreases the voltage of a generator so it carries its share of the load
paralleling circuit
which are control functions of an alternating current generator control unit
Generator field control and indication
G C U explained
An ac generator control unit provides generator field control and indication. It also provides protection against open phase, underexcitation, and over-voltage conditions
if the airplane is equipped with a battery rated to deliver fourty five amperes for two point five hours, what is the ampere hour rating?
one hundred twelve point five ampere-hour
Ampere Hour explained
Theoretically, a 100 ampere-hour battery will furnish 100 amperes for 1 hour, 50 amperes for 2 hours, or 20 amperes for 5 hours. Actually, the ampere-hour output of a particular battery depends on the rate at which it is discharged. Heavy discharge current heats the battery and decreases its efficiency and total ampere-hour output. For airplane batteries, a period of 5 hours has been established as the discharge time in rating battery capacity. However, this time of 5 hours is only a basis for rating and does not necessarily mean the length of time during which the battery is expected to furnish current. Under actual service conditions, the battery can be completely discharged within a few minutes, or it may never be discharged if the generator provides sufficient charge.
The ampere-hour capacity of a battery depends upon its total effective plate area. Connecting batteries in parallel increases ampere-hour capacity. Connecting batteries in series increases the total voltage but not the ampere-hour capacity.
how can you determine the state of charge of a lead-acid battery?
by using a hydrometer
what are characteristics of the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery?
the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery is much like household lye and will cause severe burns
what is a feature of a parallel bus electrical system?
the electrical load is automatically redistributed when one generator fails
how many spare electrical fuses are required for use in flight?
fifty percent for each rating required but not less than one for a particular rating
what is a purpose of enclosing wires or electrical units in metal
enclosing wires or electrical units in metal helps to eliminate interference with radio reception. It accomplishes this by eliminating stray electromagnetic energy
what causes a surge of current when incandescent lamps or electric heaters are first turned on?
the resistance of filaments or elements increases when heated
aircraft fuse capacities are rated in volts watts or amperes?
aircraft fuse capacities are rated in amperes
purpose of a transformer rectifier
converts one hundred fifteen volts four hundred cycle alternating current to direct current
automatic reset type circuit breakers are used or not used in aircraft electrical systems?
automatic reset circuit breakers are not used in aircraft electrical systems
purpose of electrical bonding jumpers?
Electrical bonding jumpers decrease the probability of lightning damage to such elements as control hinges, reduce radio interference, and reduce the buildup of static charges between the parts of the structure.
purpose of electrical bonding jumpers?
prevent static electricity discharges between different parts of the aircraft structure
what type of voltage will be produced if an alternating current generator is being driven but there is no field excitation?
residual voltage
name the chemical used for the electrolyte in nickel-cadmium dry cells?
potassium hydroxide
electrolyte of nickel-cadmium dry cell batteries explained
The electrolyte used in the nickel-cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water. The specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.240 and 1.300 at room temperature.

No appreciable changes occur in the electrolyte during charge or discharge. As a result, the battery charge cannot be determined by a specific gravity check of the electrolyte. The electrolyte level should be maintained just above the tops of the plates.
what is an electrical relay?
a magnetically operated switch
what type of terminal is considered unsatisfactory for general electrical systems?
soldered
what type of terminal is satisfactory for general electrical systems
Approved terminals of the swaged or crimped type are available from several manufacturers
what is the function of the circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system
protects the wiring from too much current
circuit protective devices explained
Circuit protective devices, as the name implies, all have a common purpose - to protect the units and the wires in the circuit. Some are designed primarily to protect the wiring and to open the circuit in such a way as to stop the current flow when the current becomes greater than the wires can safely carry. Other devices are designed to protect a unit in the circuit by stopping the current flow to it when the unit becomes excessively warm.

A circuit breaker is designed to break the circuit and stop the current flow when the current exceeds a predetermined value. It is commonly used in place of a fuse and may sometimes eliminate the need for a switch. A circuit breaker differs from a fuse in that it "trips" to break the circuit and it may be reset, while a fuse melts and must be replaced.

There are several types of circuit breakers in general use in aircraft systems. One is a magnetic type. When excessive current flows in the circuit, it makes an electromagnet strong enough to move a small armature which trips the breaker. Another type is the thermal overload switch or breaker. This consists of a bimetallic strip which, when it becomes overheated from excessive current, bends away from a catch on the switch lever and permits the switch to trip open.

Most circuit breakers must be reset by hand. When the circuit breaker is reset, if the overload condition still exists, the circuit breaker will trip again to prevent damage to the circuit.
____ volts is the nominal rating of a fully charged lead-acid battery containing six cells
twelve
Lead Acid Battery Ratings Explained
Lead-Acid Battery Ratings
The voltage of a battery is determined by the number of cells connected in series to form the battery. Although the voltage of one lead-acid cell just removed from a charger is approximately 2.2 volts, a lead-acid cell is normally rated at only 2 volts, because it soon drops to that value. A battery rated at 12 volts consists of 6 lead-acid cells connected in series, and a battery rated at 24 volts is composed of 12 cells.
How are electrical generators rated?
Amperes at rated voltage
Generator Rating explained
A generator is rated in power output. Since a generator is designed to operate at a specified voltage, the rating usually is given as the number of amperes the generator can safely supply at its rated voltage.

Generator rating and performance data are stamped on the name plate attached to the generator. When replacing a generator, it is important to choose one of the proper rating.
name three protective functions of an alternating current generator control unit
open phase
under-excitation
and over-voltage
Null field Dischargers purpose is to _____
dissipate static charges from control surfaces into the air to prevent radio interference
Static dischargers explained
Static dischargers are installed on aircraft to reduce radio receiver interference. This interference is caused by corona discharge emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static. Corona occurs in short pulses which produce noise at the radio frequency spectrum. Static dischargers, normally mounted on the trailing edges of the control surfaces, wing tips, and vertical stabilizer, discharge the precipitation static at points a critical length away from the wing and tail extremities where there is little or no coupling of the static into the radio antenna.

Three major types of static dischargers are in use:

Flexible vinyl covered, silver or carbon impregnated braid.
Semiflexible metallic braid.
Null field.
Flexible and semiflexible dischargers are attached to the aircraft by metal screws and should be periodically checked for tightness. At least 1 inch of the inner braid of vinyl covered dischargers should extend beyond the vinyl covering. Null field dischargers are riveted and epoxy bonded to the aircraft structure. A resistance measurement from the mount to the airframe should not exceed 0.1 ohm.
Name two negative characteristics of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery?
it will eat holes in clothes and burn the skin
spillage of lead acid batteries explained
Spillage or leakage of electrolyte may result in serious corrosion of the nearby structure or control elements as both sulfuric acid and potassium hydroxide are actively corrosive. Electrolyte may be spilled during ground servicing, leaked when cell case rupture occurs, or sprayed from cell vents due to excessive charging rates. If the battery is not case enclosed, properly treat structural parts near the battery that may be affected by acid fumes. Treat all case and drain surfaces, that have been affected by electrolyte, with a solution of sodium bicarbonate (for acid electrolyte) or boric acid, vinegar, or a 3 percent solution of acetic acid (for potassium hydroxide electrolyte).

CAUTION: Serious burns will result if the electrolyte comes in contact with any part of the body. Use rubber gloves, rubber apron, and protective goggles when handling electrolyte. If sulfuric acid is splashed on the body, neutralize with a solution of baking soda and water, and shower or flush the affected area with water. For the eyes, use an eye fountain and flush with an abundance of water. If potassium hydroxide contacts the skin, neutralize with 9 percent acetic acid, vinegar, or lemon juice and wash with water. For the eyes, wash with a weak solution of boric acid or a weak solution of vinegar and flush with water.
What type of electrolyte is contained in a lead-acid battery
sulfuric acid
Lead Acid Batteries described
Lead-acid batteries used in aircraft are similar to automobile batteries. The cells of a battery are connected in series. Each cell contains positive plates of lead peroxide, negative plates of spongy lead, and electrolyte (sulfuric acid and water). In discharging, the chemical energy stored in the battery is changed to electrical energy; in charging, the electrical energy supplied to the battery is changed to chemical energy and stored. It is possible to charge a storage battery many times before it deteriorates permanently.
Which fire extinguishing agent is safest to use in turbojet airplanes?

Methyl Bromide
Carbon Dioxide
Clorobromomethane

Consider that this is from the standpoint of toxicity and corrosion
Carbon Dioxide
Carbon Dioxide fire extinguishing agent explained
Carbon dioxide is not corrosive and will have no damaging effect other than cold shock effect on ceramic electronic components. Water itself is not corrosive, but may be rendered corrosive by the addition of antifreeze solutions. Various dry chemical agents are corrosive to most sensitive electronic components and instruments.
Preferred method of extinguishing a brake fire on the ground
apply a dry powder extinguisher
Metal Fire Extinguishing explained
AC 65-9 states: Dry powder for metal fires. Fires in metal require special handling. If water is used on a magnesium fire the burning is accelerated. Special dry powders are available for use wherever metal fires are possibilities. These are normally applied by scoop or shovel. Multipurpose (ABC) dry chemicals have a limited use on metal fires such as fires in wheel brakes or in magnesium fires.
A red disc is missing from Port three
A yellow disc is missing from port one
Bottle one has been normally discharged and bottle two has been thermally discharged
red discs and yellow discs indicating discharges explained
Two fire extinguishing system discharge indicating disks are mounted on the left side of the fuselage, aft of the wing. The yellow disk in the aft discharge indicator is connected by a 1/4 inch line to the fire extinguisher discharge line between the double check "T" valve and the direction valve. When either container is discharged, a limited flow will be directed to the yellow disk, blowing it out. A check of the container pressure gauges will show whether one or both containers have been discharged.

The red disk in the forward discharge indicator is connected by a 1/4 inch line to both containers. When the containers have been overheated excessively, the internal pressure will cause the fusible safety outlet plug to discharge. The agent flow will be directed to the red disk, blowing it out. A check of the container pressure gauges will show whether one or both containers were discharged.
______ is a gas used as a propellant for installed fire extinguishing systems
Hydrogen Peroxide
see oh two
Nitrogen
nitrogen
High Rate of Discharge Fire Extinguishing Systems Explained
FIRE EXTINGUISHING SYSTEMS
High Rate of Discharge Systems. This term, abbreviated HRD, is applied to the highly effective systems most currently in use. Such HRD systems provide high discharge rates through high pressurization, short feed lines, large discharge valves and outlets. The extinguishing agent is usually one of the halogenated hydrocarbons (halons) sometimes boosted by high pressure dry nitrogen (N2). Because the agent and pressurizing gas of an HRD system are released into the zone in one second or less, the zone is temporarily pressurized, and interrupts the ventilating air flow. The few, large sized outlets are carefully located to produce high velocity swirl effects for best distribution.
indication of intentional discharge of fire extinguishing system into turbojet engine is a missing ___ disc on the ____ of the ______
Missing yellow disc on the side of the fuselage
how does a photoelectric smoke detector operate
measures the amount of light available under a specific set of conditions
Photo electric smoke detector operation explained
This type of detector consists of a photoelectric cell, a beacon lamp, a test lamp, and a light trap, all mounted on a labyrinth. An accumulation of 10 percent smoke in the air causes the photoelectric cell to conduct electric current. The figure below shows the details of the smoke detector, and indicates how the smoke particles refract the light to the photoelectric cell. When activated by smoke, the detector supplies a signal to the smoke detector amplifier. The amplifier signal activates a warning light and bell.
You use a fire extinguisher marked with a triangle and the letter A. Unfortunately you use this on a class D fire
The fire will intensify
Use an "A" extinguisher on a D fire
When an ordinary class A extinguishing material, generally water, is sprayed on a (class D) combustible metal (such as the magnesium of a brake fire), the fire will intensify.
Evidence of an intentional discharge would be a ____ ___ on the _____
yellow disc missing on the side of the fuselage
a Star with the letter D identifies a fire extinguisher used for what type of fires?
brake fires
optical smoke detectors on the flight engineer panel correspond to ____ _____ responses to cargo hold ____ ____
optical smoke detectors on the flight engineer panel correspond to light beam responses to cargo hold air samples
Optical smoke detectors explained
On a few aircraft visual smoke detectors provide the only means of smoke detection. Indication is provided by drawing smoke through a line into the indicator, using either a suitable suction device or cabin pressurization.

When smoke is present a lamp within the indicator is illuminated automatically by the smoke detector. The light is scattered so that the smoke is rendered visible in the appropriate window of the indicator. If no smoke is present the lamp will not be illuminated. A switch is provided to illuminate the lamp for test purposes. A device is also provided in the indicator to show that the necessary airflow is passing through the indicator.

The efficiency of any detection system depends on the positioning and serviceability of all the components of the system. The foregoing information is intended to provide familiarization with the various systems. For details of a particular installation, refer to the relevant manuals for the aircraft concerned.
Quickly locate a fire extinguisher used for flammable liquids it will have a ____ with the letter ____
flammable liquids extinguishers have a Square shape with the letter B inside the Square
which type of fire detector circuit can continue to function with either one open or one short in the detector loops
two-wire thermal switch
find an extinguisher for a paper fire? it will have the shape of a ____ with the letter ___ inside it
triangle with the letter A
indication of thermal discharge of built-in fire extinguisher system
red plastic disc in the thermal discharge line is missing
thermocouple fire warning system activated by a ___ of _____ rise
by a rate of temperature rise
Thermocouple fire warning system explained
The thermocouple is constructed of two dissimilar metals such as chromel and constantan. The point where these metals are joined and will be exposed to the heat of a fire is called a hot junction. There is also a reference junction enclosed in a dead air space between two insulation blocks. A metal cage surrounds the thermocouple to give mechanical protection without hindering the free movement of air to the hot junction.

If the temperature rises rapidly, the thermocouple produces a voltage because of the temperature difference between the reference junction and the hot junction. If both junctions are heated at the same rate, no voltage will result. In the engine compartment, there is a normal, gradual rise in temperature from engine operation; because it is gradual, both junctions heat at the same rate and no warning signal is given.
How does the thermocouple in a fire detection system cause the warning system to operate?
heat generates a small electrical current
after discharging the second of two containers of extinguishing agent into engine number three, where will the fire switches be positioned and what indications will be noted on the discharged fire bottles?
right system transfer switch TRANS and a yellow disc missing from the bottle discharge indicator port
most common cause of false fire warnings in a continuous-loop fire detection system?
Improper routing or clamping of loops
Moisture in the system
Dents,kinds, or crushed sensors
Answer is dents, kinks, or crushed sensors
Quick choose the best agent to put out an electrical fire
Methyl Bromide
Carbon Tetracholride
Carbon Dioxide
Carbon Dioxide
Carbon tetrachloride is also known as
Halon zero four
Purpose of an anti-servo tab is to
prevent a control surface from moving to a full deflection position due to aerodynamic forces
servo tabs
reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control
vortex generators on the horizontal stabilizer prevent
prevent flow separation over the elevator at very slow speeds
control tabs
move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion
aileron balance panels
assist in moving the ailerons
elevator trim tabs
modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight control pressures
which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move
same direction
upper rudder
ruddervator
leading-edge flaps
which is an auxiliary flight control?
leading-edge flaps
Primary and Auxiliary Groups Explained
The flight control surfaces are hinged or movable airfoils designed to change the attitude of the aircraft during flight. These surfaces may be divided into three groups, usually referred to as the primary group, secondary group, and auxiliary group.

Primary Group
The primary group includes the ailerons, elevators, and rudder. These surfaces are used for moving the aircraft about its three axes.

The ailerons and elevators are generally operated from the cockpit by a control stick on single engine aircraft and by a wheel and yoke assembly on multiengine aircraft. The rudder is operated by foot pedals on all types of aircraft.

Secondary Group
Included in the secondary group are the trim tabs and spring tabs. Trim tabs are small airfoils recessed into the trailing edges of the primary control surfaces. The purpose of trim tabs is to enable the pilot to trim out any unbalanced condition which may exist during flight, without exerting any pressure on the primary controls. Each trim tab is hinged to its parent primary control surface, but is operated by an independent control.
Spring tabs are similar in appearance to trim tabs, but serve an entirely different purpose. Spring tabs are used to aid the pilot in moving the primary control surfaces.

Auxiliary Group
Included in the auxiliary group of flight control surfaces are the wing flaps, spoilers, speed brakes, slats, leading edge flaps and slots.
The auxiliary groups may be divided into two subgroups. Those whose primary purpose is lift augmenting and those whose primary purpose is lift decreasing. In the first group are the flaps, both trailing edge and leading edge (slats), and slots. The lift decreasing devices are speed brakes and spoilers.
The trailing edge airfoils (flaps) increase the wing area thereby increasing lift on takeoff and decrease the speed during landing. These airfoils are retractable and fair into the wing contour. Others are simply a portion of the lower skin which extends into the airstream thereby slowing the aircraft.
Leading edge flaps are airfoils extended from and retracted into the leading edge of the wing. Some installations create a slot (an opening between the extended airfoil and the leading edge). The flap (termed slat by some manufacturers) and slot create additional lift at the slower speeds of takeoff and landing. Other installations have permanent slots built in the leading edge of the wing. At cruising speeds, the trailing edge and leading edge flaps (slats) are retracted into the wing proper.
Lift decreasing devices are the speed brakes (spoilers). In some installations, there are two types of spoilers. The ground spoiler is extended only after the aircraft is on the ground thereby assisting in the braking action.
The flight spoiler assists in lateral control by being extended whenever the aileron on that wing is rotated up. When actuated as speed brakes, the spoiler panels on both wings raise up - the panel on the "up" aileron wing raising more than the panel on the down aileron side. This provides speed brake operation and later control simultaneously.
Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edges of the wings. When the slat is closed, it forms the leading edge of the wing. When in the open position (extended forward), a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge. At low airspeeds this increases lift and improves handling characteristics, allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeeds below the otherwise normal landing speed.
to eliminate dutch roll high speed transport airplanes with tapered sweptback wing designes have a ___ __ system
yaw damper
leading edge slats on high performance wings increase ___ at ___ ____ ____
leading edge slats on high performance wings increase lift at relative slow speeds
the trimming devices on a particular airplane include trailing edge tabs on the rudder and a movable horizontal stabilizer. If the airplane is trimmed to a more nosedown and nose left position, the stabilizer leading edge will move ___, and the ___ ___ will move to the ____
stabilizer leading edge will move up and the rudder tab will move to the right
vortex generators mounted on the vertical fin upstream of the rudders prevent
prevent flow separation over the rudder during extreme angles of yaw
leading edge flaps increase ___ of the ____
camber of the wing
Leading Edge Flaps explained
Leading edge flaps are also used, principally on large high speed aircraft. When they are in the "up" (or retracted) position, they fair in with the wings and serve as part of the wing trailing edge. When in the "down" (or extended) position, the flaps pivot on the hinge points and drop to about a 45° or 50° angle with the wing chord line. This increases the wing camber and changes the airflow, providing greater lift.
One purpose of vortex generators mounted on the upper surface of the wing is to maintain ___ effectiveness at ____ _____
maintain aileron effectiveness at high speed
which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
Tabs
Flaps
Outboard Ailerons
Outboard Ailerons are considered primary flight controls
Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow-flight speeds only?
Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds
What direction should the ailerons move when the control wheel is moved?
Left aileron up when the control wheel is moved left
what direction from primary control service does a servo tab move
same direction
remains fixed
opposite direction
opposite direction
which of the following is considered a secondary flight control?
servo tab
rudder
inboard aileron
servo tab
Primary vs secondary flight controls explained
The primary flight control systems consist of the elevator, aileron, and rudder, which are essential in controlling the aircraft.

The secondary control systems consist of the trim tabs and wing flaps. The trim tabs enable the pilot to trim out control pressures, and the flaps enable the pilot to change the lifting characteristics of the wing and also to decrease the speed at which the wing stalls.
When will the flap position warning system sound an alarm in the cockpit
when the power lever is advanced and the flaps are not positioned for takeoff
what directions should the ailerons move when the control wheel is moved
right aileron down when the control wheel is moved left
which of the following is considered a primary flight control
dorsal fin
elevator
slats
elevator
purpose of some flight spoilers is to reduce the ___ ___ upon _____
reduce the wings lift upon landing
Lift Decreasing Devices explained
Lift decreasing devices are the speed brakes (spoilers). In some installations, there are two types of spoilers. The ground spoiler is extended only after the aircraft is on the ground thereby assisting in the braking action.

The flight spoiler assists in lateral control by being extended whenever the aileron on that wing is rotated up. When actuated as speed brakes, the spoiler panels on both wings raise up - the panel on the "up" aileron wing raising more than the panel on the down aileron side. This provides speed brake operation and later control simultaneously.
A purpose of leading edge slats on high performance wings is to
direct air from the high-pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing
a purpose of flight spoilers is to
reduce lift without increasing airspeed
The advantage of a stabilizer and elevator located at the top of the vertical fin is that
the horizontal tail is above the wing turbulence
when are outboard ailerons normally used
low-speed flight
how does an aileron balance panel function?
pressure changes created by the aileron deflect a hinged panel in a compartment ahead of the aileron
Aileron Balance Panels explained
Air loads on the balance panels depend on aileron position. When the ailerons are moved during flight to either side of the streamline position, differential pressure is created across the balance panels. This differential pressure acts on the balance panels in a direction that assists aileron movement. Full balance panel force is not required for small angles of aileron displacement because the manual force necessary to rotate the control tab through small angles is slight. A controlled air bleed is progressively decreased as the aileron displacement angle is increased. This action increases the differential air pressure on the balance panels as the ailerons rotate from the streamline position. The increasing load on the balance panel counteracts the increasing load on the ailerons.
Oxygen Leak occurs, what is the associated danger?
combustible materials will ignite more rapidly and burn with greater intensity in oxygen rich conditions
you go flying too soon after scuba diving
evolved gas may result in decompression sickness
why should safety precautions similar to fueling an airplane be taken when the oxygen system is serviced?
Oxygen supports combustion, sometimes violently
passengers use a ___-_____ type oxygen system
constant-flow
to which position should the oxygen regulator be set when symptoms of hypoxia or hyperventilation are experienced
one hundred percent
describe the indication of a thermal discharge of a gaseous oxygen system?
ruptured blowout disc
a feature of a diluter-demand regulator is that above ____ feet mean sea level the user receives only _____
above approximately thirty four thousand feet mean sea level the user receives only oxygen
what is an advantage of a chemical over a gaseous oxygen system?
fire hazards are reduced by eliminating oxygen lines
what may be used to disinfect the face portion of an oxygen mask
mild antiseptic
preflight of the flight engineer oxygen equipment shall be completed by the ____ before ___ ___
shall be completed by the flight engineer before each flight
name an indicator of a high pressure oxygen system bottle?
the bottle will be green in color and will be marked with the placard "Aviator's Breathing Oxygen"
name a design feature of a demand system oxygen mask
the mask must form an airtight seal
Diluter Demand Oxygen Systems Explained
Diluter demand oxygen systems supply oxygen only when the user inhales through the mask. An automix lever allows the regulators to automatically mix cabin air and oxygen or supply 100 percent oxygen, depending on the altitude. The demand mask provides a tight seal over the face to prevent dilution with outside air and can be used safely up to 40,000 feet. A pilot who has a beard or mustache should be sure it is trimmed in a manner that will not interfere with the sealing of the oxygen mask. The fit of the mask around the beard or mustache should be checked on the ground for proper sealing.
which type of oxygen system is the flight deck equipped with normally?
diluter-demand
smoke in the cockpit, which position do you select on a pressure-demand oxygen regulator?
one hundred percent
when does a diluter-demand oxygen system deliver oxygen to the user?
each time the user takes a breath
an expanded chemical oxygen generator is identified by
the heat sensitive paint mark which will change from white to black
which is a disadvantage of a chemical over a gaseous oxygen system?
once activated, a chemical system releases oxygen until it is expended
what is the condition which results from a lack of oxygen and results in permanent physical damage?
anoxia
anoxia is another term for
hypoxia taken to an extreme
name a design feature of an oro-nasal oxygen mask
covers only the mouth and nose
what oxygen flow condition should exist if the oxygen regulator selector is placed in the emergency position and the supply lever is on?
continuous flow of one hundred percent oxygen under positive pressure
why must oxygen not be permitted to come in contact with oil, grease, or solvents?
oxygen contact with petroleum products can cause spontaneous fires or explosions
which is a feature of a constant-flow oxygen system?
the first part of the inhalation provides a rich oxygen mixture
advantage of skydrol
has a wide operating temperature range
skydrol explained
Nonpetroleum base hydraulic fluids were introduced in 1948 to provide a fire resistant hydraulic fluid for use in high performance piston engines and turboprop aircraft.

These fluids were fire resistance tested by being sprayed through a welding torch flame (6000°). There was no burning, but only occasional flashes of fire. These and other tests proved nonpetroleum base fluids (Skydrol) would not support combustion. Even though they might flash at exceedingly high temperatures, Skydrol fluids could not spread a fire because burning was localized at the source of heat. Once the heat source was removed or the fluid flowed away from the source, no further flashing or burning occurred.

Several types of phosphate ester base (Skydrol) hydraulic fluids have been discontinued. Currently used in aircraft are Skydrol 500B - a clear purple liquid having good low temperature operating characteristics and low corrosive side effects; and, Skydrol LD - a clear purple low weight fluid formulated for use in large and jumbo jet transport aircraft where weight is a prime factor.
type of gas normally used to service the gas-storage bottles of an emergency pneumatic system?
nitrogen
advantage of a piston-type accumulator is that it
takes up less area than a sphere-type accumulator
purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to
store hydraulic fluid under pressure
what will the hydraulic pressure gauge indicate when the accumulator charge is lost and the monitor is on the air side of a diaphragm-type accumulator
hydraulic pressure gauge will indicate zero
what color indicates M.I.L. dash H dash five six zero six
red
mineral based oil explained
Mineral base hydraulic fluid (MIL-H-5606) is processed from petroleum. It has an odor similar to penetrating oil and is dyed red. Synthetic rubber seals are used with petroleum base fluids. Do not mix with vegetable base or phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids. This type fluid is flammable.
what is the significance of the pop-out indicator on some hydraulic filters
evidence that contaminants may prevent components such as check valves from operating
why should synthetic hydraulic fluid be stored in an airtight container
atmospheric moisture contamination
what color identifies brak-oh spelled B R A C O eight eight two
red
accumulator function explained
The function of an accumulator is to:

Dampen pressure surges in the hydraulic system caused by actuation of a unit and the effort of the pump to maintain pressure at a preset level.
Aid or supplement the power pump when several units are operating at once by supplying extra power from its "accumulated" or stored power.
Store power for the limited operation of a hydraulic unit when the pump is not operating.
Supply fluid under pressure to compensate for small internal or external (not desired) leaks which would cause the system to cycle continuously by action of the pressure switches continually "kicking in."
one purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to
absorb sudden pressure surges
what is a limitation of M.I.L. dash H dash five six zero six?
it is flammable
mineral oils explained
MIL-H-5606, mineral oil-based hydraulic fluid is the oldest, dating back to the 1940's. It is used in many systems, especially where the fire hazard is comparatively low. MIL-H-6083 is simply a rust-inhibited version of MIL-H-5606. They are completely interchangeable. Suppliers generally ship hydraulic components with MIL-H-6083.

MIL-H-83282, is a fire-resistant hydrogenated polyalphaolefin-based fluid developed in the 1960's to overcome the flammability characteristics of MIL-H-5606. MIL-H-83282 is significantly more flame resistant than MIL-H-5606, but a disadvantage is the high viscosity at low temperature. It is generally limited to -40 °F. However, it can be used in the same system and with the same seals, gaskets, and hoses as MIL-H-5606. MIL-H-46170 is the rust-inhibited version of MIL-H-83282. Small aircraft predominantly use MIL-H-5606 but some have switched to MIL-H-83282, if they can accommodate the high viscosity at low temperature.
moisture in a pneumatic system may cause ____
corrosion
get skydrol off your skin using ___ and ____
soap and water
pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir is to
assure a positive feed of foam free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes
which principle operates a hydraulic fuse?
differential pressure
what is the difference between a hydraulic sequence valve and a priority valve?
priority valves are opened by hydraulic pressure
disadvantage of skydrol
it will break down the insulation on some electrical wiring
during preflight check flexible hydraulic hoses for
slack between fittings
the pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump may be regulated by a ___ ___ ___
system bypass valve
what action should be taken in case of eye contact with any hydraulic fluid?
flush with water and consult a doctor
what actions should be taken if a hydraulic stationary connection has a static leak
notify maintenance to repair it
how may pressure from an engine-driven hydraulic pump be regulated?
variable-displacement pump
Variable Displacement Pumps explained
The variable displacement pump system differs from the constant displacement pump system. Pump displacement is changed to meet varying flow requirements; that is, the amount of fluid discharged from the pump can be made to vary at any one speed. With a pump of variable flow, the applicable control unit can automatically and accurately regulate the pump pressure and delivery.

Where variable displacement pumps are installed, two similar pumps are provided, connected in parallel. Either pump can carry the load if the other fails during normal parallel operations.

The positive displacement, variable stroke type pump incorporates a rotor, a piston, a maximum speed governor, and a relief valve mechanism.
The purpose of a bypass valve in the hydraulic filter is to
bypass a clogged element
Filters explained
Reservoirs with filter elements incorporate a bypass valve normally held closed by a spring. The bypass valve ensures that the pump will not be starved of fluid if the filter element becomes clogged. A clogged filter causes a partial vacuum to develop and the spring loaded bypass valve opens. The filter element most commonly used in reservoirs is the micronic type. These filter elements are made of treated cellulose formed into accordion-like pleats. The pleats expose the fluid to the maximum amount of filter surface within a given amount of space. These micronic elements are capable of removing small particles of contamination.
why filter hydraulic fluid?
contaminants may damage the seals and cylinder walls causing internal leakage
which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, unbalanced linear actuator?
landing gear systems
service a hydraulic accumulator with which gas?
nitrogen
which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, balanced linear actuator
automatic pilot servo
eye contact with skydrol
flush with water consult a physician
fuel heaters should not be operated on the ____, or _____, or _______ because the engine may flame-out from fuel vaporization
not operated during taxiing takeoff or landing
which is a drawback of using aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel
the tetraethyl lead (TEL) in gasoline will form deposits on the turbine blades and vanes
why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline
jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline
what effect will mixing aviation gasoline with jet fuel
tetraehtyl lead in the gasoline will be deposited on the turbine blades
difference between Jet A and Jet B fuel
Jet B is a blend of gasoline and kerosene made for operating at extremely low temperatures
which indicator is used to determine if conditions are conducive to formation of ice in the fuel
Fuel Temperature
When comparing jet fuel to aviation gasoline with regard to susceptibility of contamination
jet fuel is of a higher viscosity and will hold contaminants better
why are turbine fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline
turbine fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline
fuel systems are designed to be free from vapor lock until fuel temperatures exceed
positive one hundred and ten degrees fahrenheit
which trait makes it easiest to distinguish a turbine fuel leak?
old fuel leaks are easier to see than new ones
with regard to the fuel/air mixture in the space above the fuel in the tanks, which should be a consideration in refueling
Mixing Jet A and J P four produces a fuel vapor mixture that is ignitable through a wide temperature range
entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes through the filters. Which is a common method of preventing this hazard?
Use of anti-icing fuel additives
one purpose of a fuel tank boost pump is to prevent vapor lock caused by ___ ___ ____
caused by low atmospheric pressure
mixing aviation gasoline with jet fuel will affect a turbine power plant by forming deposits on the ___ ___
by forming deposits on the turbine blades
when should manual fuel heaters normally be operated?
when the fuel temperature approaches positive thirty two degrees Fahrenheit
when comparing jet fuel to aviation gasoline:
Jet fuel is of a ___ ____, and holds ______ better
Jet fuel is of a higher viscosity, and holds contaminants better
The primary purpose for utilizing boost bumps in the fuel system is to
provide a positive fuel flow to the engine pump
a fuel temperature indicator
helps determine if fuel temperatures are conducive to ice crystal formation
how is emergency fuel jettisoning accomplished?
through a common manifold and outlet in each wing
turbine fuel has a ____ viscosity than aviation gasoline and ___ ____ ____
turbine fuel has a higher viscosity than aviation gasoline and holds contaminants better
the cabin pressure control setting has a direct effect upon the
outflow valve opening
how is cabin pressurization controlled?
the outflow valve dumps all air pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set
if the cabin rate of climb is too great, how should the pressurization controls be adjusted?
Close the outflow valve faster
In a pressurized system, what is the purpose of the dump valve?
Relieve all positive pressure from the cabin
what component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than the airplane altitude?
Negative pressure relief valve
Unpressurized and pressurized controls
Isobaric and differential
Ambient, differential, and maximum differential

Which of the above controls systems for operating cabin pressurization use reference changer air pressure within the controller to regulate the outflow valve?
Isobaric and differential
Cabin pressure control systems explained
The cabin pressure control system provides cabin pressure regulation, pressure relief, vacuum relief, and the means for selecting the desired cabin altitude in the isobaric and differential range. In addition, dumping of the cabin pressure is a function of the pressure control system. A cabin pressure regulator, an outflow valve, and a safety valve are used to accomplish these functions.

The cabin pressure regulator controls cabin pressure to a selected value in the isobaric range and limits cabin pressure to a preset differential value in the differential range. When the airplane reaches the altitude at which the difference between the pressure inside and outside the cabin is equal to the highest differential pressure for which the fuselage structure is designed, a further increase in airplane altitude will result in a corresponding increase in cabin altitude. Differential control is used to prevent the maximum differential pressure, for which the fuselage was designed, from being exceeded. This differential pressure is determined by the structural strength of the cabin and often by the relationship of the cabin size to the probable areas of rupture, such as window areas and doors.
To which elevation should the cabin altitude be set for the following landing conditions?
Altimeter 30.12
Field Elevation 6172
Airplane Cabin depressurized five hundred feet above ground level
cabin pressure controller calibrated to 29.92
From the previous question: Correcting for pressure altitude (30.12 to 29.92), we subtract 200' from the field elevation of 6172 to get a field pressure altitude of 5972 feet. Since we want to pressurize the cabin to 500 feet above this, we should set 6472 feet.
answer 6,472 feet
Which components of an airplane pressurization system prevents the cabin from becoming higher than the airplane altitude?
Negative pressure relief valve
Describe Cabin Differential Pressure
The difference between ambient and internal air pressure
Cabin Differential pressure explained
Cabin differential pressure is the ratio between inside and outside air pressures and is a measure of the internal stress on the fuselage skin. If the differential pressure becomes too great, structural damage to the fuselage may occur. In addition, pressurization is limited by the capacity of the superchargers to maintain a constant volume of airflow to the fuselage.
When the cabin pressure regulator is operating in the differential mode, reference pressure is vented to the atmosphere by the
differential metering valve
Differential Range explained
As the differential range is approached, the pressure differential between the constant reference pressure and the decreasing atmospheric pressure becomes sufficient to move the diaphragm and open the differential metering valve. As a result, reference chamber air flows to atmosphere through the differential metering valve, reducing the reference pressure. Responding to the decreased reference pressure, the isobaric bellows expands and closes the isobaric metering valve completely. Reference chamber pressure is now controlled, through the differential metering valve, by atmospheric pressure being reflected against the differential diaphragm. As atmospheric pressure decreases, the metering valve opens more and allows reference pressure to decrease proportionately. Responding to the pressure differential between cabin and reference pressures, the outflow valve opens or closes as required to meter air from the cabin and maintain a predetermined differential pressure value.
Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, P.S.I.
Pressure controller, P.S.I>
Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, feet-per-minute
Which component gives an indication of the rate of change in cabin altitude and what unit of measurement is used?
Cabin vertical-velocity indicator, feet-per-minute
Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to a ____ ____ no greater than ____ __ below the ambient or airplane surface temperature
Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to a freezing point no greater than 20 degrees Fahrenheit below the ambient or airplane surface temperature
Electrically heated windshield systems explained
An electrically heated windshield system includes:

Windshield autotransformers and heat control relays.
Heat control toggle switches.
Indicating lights.
Windshield control units.
Temperature sensing elements (thermistors) laminated in the panel.
A typical system is shown in figure 7-14. The system receives power from the 115 vac buses through the windshield heat control circuit breakers. When the windshield heat control switch is set to "high," 115 v, 400 Hz ac is supplied to the left and right amplifiers in the windshield control unit.

The windshield heat control relay is energized, thereby applying 200 v, 400 Hz ac to the windshield heat autotransformers. These transformers provide 218 vac power to the windshield heating current bus bars through the windshield control unit relays. The sensing element in each windshield has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance and forms one leg of a bridge circuit. When the windshield temperature is above calibrated value, the sensing element will have a higher resistance value than that needed to balance the bridge. This decreases the flow of current through the amplifiers and the relays of the control unit are deenergized. As the temperature of the windshield drops, the resistance value of the sensing elements also drops and the current through the amplifiers will again reach sufficient magnitude to operate the relays in the control unit, thus energizing the windshield heaters.

When the windshield heat control switch is set to "low," 115 v, 400 Hz ac is supplied to the left and right amplifiers in the windshield control unit and to the windshield heat autotransformers. In this condition, the transformers provide 121 vac power to the windshield heating current bus bars through the windshield control unit relays. The sensing elements in the windshield operate in the same manner as described for high heat operation to maintain proper windshield temperature control. The temperature control unit contains two hermetically sealed relays and two three stage electronic amplifiers. The unit is calibrated to maintain a windshield temperature of 40° - 49° C (105° - 120° F). The sensing element in each windshield panel has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance and forms one leg of a bridge which controls the flow of current in its associated amplifier.
Thermistors
Electronic Amplifiers
Thermal overheat switches
In an electrically heated windshield system, which one maintains normal windshield temperature?
Thermistors
Decrease the water content
Increase the viscosity of Type 1 Fluid
Apply heated Type 2 fluid
Which of the above will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?
Apply heated Type 2 fluid
What determines the viscosity of Type 1 de-icing forward slash anti-icing fluid?
Thickening agents
Dispensing equipment
Temperature
Answer: Temperature
Open the air-conditioning pack valves
Apply fluid to the lower door sills and the door bottoms prior to closing for flight
Operate the airplane engines above idle to prevent flameout
Which safeguard from the above three should be taken when using mobile ground de-ice forward slash anti-ice equipment?
Apply fluids to the lower door sills and the door bottoms prior to closing for flight
Prior to entering rain
After it starts raining
whenever the windshield is dry
When may rain repellent be applied to a windshield?
After it starts raining you may apply rain repellent to a windshield
Rain repellent explained
Rain repellent may be used any time rain intensity requires use of windshield wipers. It should be applied to 1 windshield at a time to allow the fluid to spread and visibility to improve before application to the other windshield.
Which procedure increases holding time when de-icing forward slash anti-icing an airplane using a two step process?
heated type one fluid followed by cold type two fluid
which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?
increased stall speed
what should the temperature be for deicing fluid dispensed by a ground unit
Cold
Heated
Ambient
the temperature should be heated
two step procedure explained
The two step procedure involves both deicing and anti-icing. Deicing is accomplished with hot water or a hot mixture of FPD and water. The ambient weather conditions and the type of accumulation to be removed from the aircraft must be considered when determining which deicing fluid to use. The second (anti-icing) step involves applying a mixture (usually cold) of SAE or ISO Type II and water to the critical surfaces of the aircraft.

When heated water alone is used in the deicing process, the second step must be performed before refreezing occurs - generally within 3 minutes after the beginning of the deicing step. If necessary, the process is conducted area-by-area. As with any deicing or anti-icing fluid, SAE and ISO Type II fluid should not be used unless the aircraft manufacturer has approved its use. SAE and ISO Type II fluids are designed for use on aircraft with VR in excess of 85 knots. This is to ensure sufficient flowoff of the fluid during the takeoff.
which is a reason for heating cockpit windows?
Deicing
Anti-icing
Prevent thermal shock
Anti-icing
lowest temperature that water droplets may remain in a liquid state?
negative forty degrees centigrade
advantage of one step process
quicker
deicing of the wings should begin at the ____ ___ ___, sweeping in and ____ and ____ direction to avoid increasing the snow load on the outboard wing sections
deicing of the wings should begin at the leading edge wingtip, sweeping in an aft and inboard direction to avoid increasing the snow load on outboard wing sections
more on deicing explained
On most aircraft, deicing of the wing should begin at the leading edge wing tip, sweeping in the aft and inboard direction. This process avoids increasing the snowload on outboard wing sections, which under some very heavy snow conditions could produce excessive wing stresses. This method also reduces the possibility of flushing ice or snow deposits into the balance bays and cavities.
use of rain repellent to clean a windshield is approved - true or false?
false, rain repellent should not be used to clean a windshield
what precaution should be taken when using truck-mounted deice forward slash anti-ice equipment?
spray pee toe inlets and static ports indirectly
the purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to ____ the freeze point
decrease the freeze point
General deicing precautions explained
General deicing precautions include:

Do not spray deicing/anti-icing fluid directly at or into pitot inlets, TAT probes, or static ports.

Do not spray heated deicing/anti-icing fluid or water directly on cold windows.

Do not spray deicing/anti-icing fluid directly into engine or APU inlets, air scoops, vents or drains.

Check that ice and/or snow is not forced into areas around flight controls during ice and snow removal.

Remove all ice and snow from door and girt bar areas before closing any door.
Using a truck-mounted deice forward slash anti-ice equipment spray the ___ ____ and ____ ____ indirectly
spray the pee toe inlets and static ports indirectly
how can you increase the holding time during the anti-ice phase of a two-step process?
Glycol content is raised to one hundred percent
Fluid Strength explained
Fluid strength or the ratio of FPD ingredients, such as glycol, to water should be known if proper precautions, such as those outlined above, are taken before application. It is crucial to realize that fluid strength is a significant factor in deicing and anti-icing properties. Fluid strength affects the time that the FPD fluid may remain effective (holdover time).

Do not use pure (100 percent) ethylene glycol or pure propylene glycol fluids in nonprecipitation conditions. The reasons for this caution are explained below.

The freezing point of pure ethylene glycol is much higher than when diluted with water. Slight temperature decreases can be induced by factors such as cold soaked fuel in integral tanks, reduction of solar radiation by clouds obscuring the sun, ambient temperature cooling, wind effects, and lowered temperature during development of wing lift. If the freezing point of the remaining film is found to be insufficient, the deicing/anti-icing procedure should be repeated before the aircraft is released for flight.
Full strength (undiluted) propylene glycol, having a strength of about 88 percent glycol at temperatures less than -10ºC (+14ºF), is quite viscous. In this form, propylene glycol based fluids have been found to produce lift reductions of about 20 percent. Propylene glycol FPD fluids are not intended to be used in the undiluted state.
What will cause the E.P.R. indication to decrease falsely if the P sub T probe at the engine nose dome is iced closed?
Anti-ice air will pressurize the nose dome and the vent hole causing a decrease in the E.P.R.
What temperature range should the deice forward slash anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?
cold
warm
hot
cold
disadvantage of one-step
more fluid used with the one step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces
type 2 de-icing forward slash anti-icing fluids have a significantly ___ holder period than type ___ fluids
significantly longer holdover period than type one fluids
what is the minimum glycol content of Type one deicing forward slash anti-icing fluid?
eighty percent
which temperature indicator
R.A.T.
O.A.T.
T.A.T.
without applying a correction factor, predicates operation of in-flight engine anti-icing?
Total air temperature (TAT) predicates operation of in-flight engine anti-icing without applying a correction factor.
Locking nuts have ____ _____ showing
Locking nuts have one thread showing.
Air Cycle Machine needs a ____ _____
Air Cycle Machine needs a heat exchanger
A surrounded by Triangle
ordinary combustibles (paper)
B in a square
Flammable Liquids
C in a Circle
Electrical Equipment in example would be circuit breaker panels
D in a Star
Combustible Metals consider using on brake fires
When an ordinary class A extinguishing material, generally water, is sprayed on a (class D) combustible metal (such as the magnesium of a brake fire), the fire will ______
the fire will intensify
Pressurization controller's explained
Several instruments are used in conjunction with the pressurization controller. The cabin differential pressure gauge indicates the difference between inside and outside pressure. This gauge should be monitored to assure that the cabin does not exceed the maximum allowable differential pressure. A cabin altimeter is also provided as a check on the performance of the system. In some cases, these two instruments are combined into one. A third instrument indicates the cabin rate of climb or descent.
A.T.I.S. not broadcasting visibility or sky conditions means that
ceiling is greater than five thousand feet and visibility is greater than five miles
Each crew member must carry a _______
flashlight
Chine Tires Explained
Sidewalls are primarily covers over the sides of the cord body to protect the cords from injury and exposure. Little strength is imparted to the cord body by the sidewalls. A special sidewall construction, the "chine tire," is a nosewheel tire designed with built-in deflector to divert runway water to the side, thus reducing water spray in the area of rear mounted jet engines.
Fusible Plugs Explained
Some aircraft wheels have fusible plugs that are designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire's blowing out or breaking of the wheel. Should air be lost due to the melting of one of these plugs, it is recommended that the tire involved be scrapped. However, an effort should be made to determine whether the plug melted at a much lower temperature than it should have, or whether air could have been lost around the plug because of improper installation.
Brake Debooster Explained
In some power brake control valve systems, debooster cylinders are used in conjunction with the power brake control valves. Debooster units are generally used on aircraft equipped with a high pressure hydraulic system and low pressure brakes. Brake debooster cylinders reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow.
Thermal Fuse Plugs Explained
Most thermal fuse plugs in use today are hollow bolts installed in the wheel rim. The cavity in the bolt is filled with a material that melts at a precisely defined temperature and is ejected from the hollow bolt by tire pressure, allowing the tire to deflate. Because the pressure and temperature rise inside the tire would be nearly instantaneous following ignition, the melting of the fuse plug, which is basically a mechanical process, would not have time to take place. Also, the cross sectional area of a series of fuse plugs sufficient to safely vent the energy of an explosion would be so large that it could seriously compromise the structural integrity of the wheel. It is more logical to prevent a tire explosion than to attempt to deal with it after it happens. A tire explosion can be prevented by the use of an inert gas such as nitrogen for tire inflation.
What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?
Ground Safety Switch
Which airplanes use chine tires?
Jets with aft mounted engines
the purpose of the anti-skid system control box is to prevent ____ with the ____ applied
prevent landing with the brakes applied
Which of the following conditions will cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?
One power lever retarded to idle and the landing gear not locked down.
The purpose of fusible plugs in the wheel is to prevent ___ ____.
The purpose of fusible plugs in the wheel is to prevent tire blowout.
If the landing gear on an airplane moves forward during retraction the total moments will, increase or decrease?
gear moves forward total moments will decrease
Where should the chines be located for a dual nose wheel installation?
On the outside of the tires only
Retractable gear aircraft are required to have a warning device of what type?
Amber light
horn
3 green
A horn or other aural device
Brake debooster main purpose is to
reduce the hydraulic pressure
One purpose of a brake debooster system is to allow ____ to be replenished if there should be a ____ in the line
is to allow fluid to be replenished if there should be a leak in the line
When will the landing gear position warning system provide a warning in the cockpit?
When the power levers are retarded and the gear is in transit
One purpose of a brake debooster is to _____ the volume of fluid going to the _______.
increase the volume of fluid going to the brakes
Which of the following conditions would most likely cause the landing gear warning signal to be activated?
Power levers retarded to idle, flaps ups, landing gear locked up.
What item of the antiskid system enables full braking action during taxi and parking?
The locked-wheel arming circuit is inoperative at taxi speeds.
One of the main gear tires has deflated as a result of a thermal fuse melt. What does this mean?
High tire temperatures have melted a fusible metal plug installed in the aircraft wheel and caused the tire to deflate.
What tread wear will occur if tires are overinflated?
Accelerated centerliine wear while leaving rubber on the shoulder.
If the landing gear of an airplane moves rearward upon gear retraction the CG will ___ _____
the CG will move aft
What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?
Ground Safety switch
Which airplanes use chine tires?
Jets with aft mounted engines
The purpose of the antiskid system control box is to
prevent landing with the brakes applied
Which of the following conditions will cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?
One power lever retarded to idle and the landing gear not locked down.
Disconnected static pressure lines explained
The erroneous 'high static pressure' causes the altimeter to read low.

The erroneous 'high static pressure' provides a smaller differential compared to the pitot pressure causing the airspeed to read low.

An alternate static system provides an alternate source of static air for the pitot-static system in the unlikely event that the primary static source becomes blocked. In nonpressurized airplanes, most alternate static sources are plumbed to the cabin. On pressurized airplanes, they are usually plumbed to a (nonpressurized) baggage compartment. The pilot activates the alternate static source by opening a valve or a fitting in the cockpit. Upon activation, the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and the vertical speed indicator (VSI) will be affected and will read somewhat in error. A correction table is frequently provided in the AFM/POH.
TAT explained
Static air temperature (SAT) and total air temperature (TAT) are not defined in section 1.1 of 14 CFR but may be significant in accurate calibration of airspeed systems.

Total Air Temperature (TAT) method, is based on aerodynamic heating (ram rise). TAT is calculated by adding the aerodynamic ram rise temperature to the Outside Air Temperature (OAT).

Total air temperature (TAT) is obtained by a probe having velocity with respect to the air. Because of kinetic heating on the upstream side of the probe, TAT is warmer than SAT. SAT is computed from TAT and other flight conditions by an air data computer for dry air. There is less kinetic heating in saturated air than dry air.
Mach Meter explained
As an aircraft approaches the speed of sound, the air flowing over certain areas of its surface speeds up until it reaches the speed of sound, and shock waves form. The indicated airspeed at which these conditions occur changes with temperature. Therefore airspeed, in this case, is not entirely adequate to warn the pilot of the impending problems. Mach number is more useful. Mach number is the ratio of the true airspeed of the aircraft to the speed of sound in the same atmospheric conditions. An aircraft flying at the speed of sound is flying at Mach 1.0.

Most high-speed aircraft are limited as to the maximum Mach number they can fly. This is shown on a Machmeter as a decimal fraction. For example, if the Mach-meter indicates .83 and the aircraft is flying at 30,000 feet where the speed of sound under standard conditions is 589.5 knots, the airspeed is 489.3 knots. The speed of sound varies with the air temperature, and if the aircraft were flying at Mach .83 at 10,000 feet where the air is much warmer, its airspeed would be 530 knots.
Ram Air and Static Air explained
Ram air temperature rise. The increase in temperature created by the ram compression on the surface of an aircraft traveling at a high rate of speed through the atmosphere. The rate of increase is proportional to the square of the speed of the object.

When the airplane is stationary, the static air temperature will be the same as the ram air temperature.

It is a basic aerodynamic principle that due to the Bernoulli principle, the temperature at stagnation points on the airplane's outer surfaces will be greater than the static air temperature. The ram rise is directly proportional to the square of the airplane speed, i.e., the faster the airplane, the greater the ram rise. Hence it is possible for the airplane not to collect any ice even though it is flying in icing conditions, i.e., atmosphere concentrated with super cooled liquid water droplets at subfreezing temperatures. For example, the air temperature rise at 150 knots and 10,000 feet is +4°C, whereas the temperature rise at 300 knots at the same altitude is +16°C. It is important to take this temperature rise into account for the assessment of ice accretion.
Regarding the installation of all electric gyro instruments the instruments must have some type of _____ indicator showing a ____ of _____
some type of failure indicator showing a loss of power
What effect does the barometric settings on the pilot and copilot altimeters have on the MODE C altitude information transmitted by the transponder?
Neither pilot altimeter setting has an effect.
What will result of the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during cruise flight?
The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.
Total Air Temperature is equal to ___ ____ temperature when the recovery factor of the temperature sensor is equal to _____ percent
TAT is equal to ram air temperature when the recovery factor of the temperature sensor is equal to one hundred percent
What altitude information is transmitted by MODE C of the transponder?
Altitude without barometric pressure correction
What information does a mach meter present?
Ratio of airplane true airspeed to the speed of sound
During the walkaround inspection you observe covers over the pitot probes. Which items will be affected if the covers are not removed?
flight recorder, airspeed, and autopilot
when will the static air temperature equal ram air temperature?
When the airplane is stationary.
Ventilating Air explained
Ventilating air may come from one of three sources: (1) A blower for air circulation and heater operation on the ground, (2) a ram air inlet, or (3) the cabin compressors on pressurized aircraft. Ventilating air, ram or blower, enters at the burner head end of the heater and, passing over the heated radiator surfaces, becomes heated and passes through the outlet end into the plenum assembly and into the distribution system ductwork.
Air-cycle Cooling System explained
An air cycle cooling system consists of an expansion turbine (cooling turbine), an air-to-air heat exchanger, and various valves which control airflow through the system. The expansion turbine incorporates an impeller and a turbine on a common shaft. High pressure air from the cabin compressor is routed through the turbine section. As the air passes through the turbine, it rotates the turbine and the impeller. When the compressed air performs the work of turning the turbine, it undergoes a pressure and temperature drop. It is this temperature drop which produces the cold air used for air conditioning.
Which section of a turbine engine provides air for the pressurization and air-conditioning systems?
Compressor
Pressurization System explained
In the typical pressurization system, the cabin, flight compartment, and baggage compartments are incorporated into a sealed unit that is capable of containing air under a pressure higher than outside atmospheric pressure. On aircraft powered by turbine engines, bleed air from the engine compressor section is used to pressurize the cabin. Superchargers may be used on older model turbine powered airplanes to pump air into the sealed fuselage. Piston-powered airplanes may use air supplied from each engine turbocharger through a sonic venturi (flow limiter). Air is released from the fuselage by a device called an outflow valve. The outflow valve, by regulating the air exit, provides a constant inflow of air to the pressurized area.
Which component of an air-cycle cooling system undergoes a pressure and temperature drop of air during operation?
Expansion turbine
Which components make up the basic air-cycle cooling system?
A source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.
Which cabin air-conditioning system utilizes a refrigerant to carry away cabin heat?
Vapor Cycle
Which statement is correct with regard to leaking refrigerant R dash twelve?
Refrigerant R dash twelve will cause frostbite if it touches skin
Nozzle Diaphragm Explained
The stator element is known by a variety of names, of which turbine nozzle vanes, turbine guide vanes, and nozzle diaphragm are three of the most commonly used. The turbine nozzle vanes are located directly aft of the combustion chambers and immediately forward of the turbine wheel.

The function of the turbine nozzles is twofold. First, after the combustion chamber has introduced the heat energy into the mass airflow and delivered it evenly to the turbine nozzles, it becomes the job of the nozzles to prepare the mass air flow for driving the turbine rotor. The stationary blades or vanes of the turbine nozzles are contoured and set at such an angle that they form a number of small nozzles discharging the gas at extremely high speed; thus, the nozzle converts a varying portion of the heat and pressure energy to velocity energy which can then be converted to mechanical energy through the rotor blades.

The second purpose of the turbine nozzle is to deflect the gases to a specific angle in the direction of turbine wheel rotation. Since the gas flow from the nozzle must enter the turbine blade passageway while it is still rotating, it is essential to aim the gas in the general direction of turbine rotation.

The turbine nozzle assembly consists of an inner shroud and an outer shroud between which are fixed the nozzle vanes. The number of vanes employed vary with different types and sizes of engines.
why will the E.P.R. indication increase falsely if the P sub t probe at the engine nose dome opening ices up?
The P sub T probe vent will act as a P sub S probe
Iced P sub T probe vent during takeoff explained
If anti-ice is ON, but insufficient power has been used to provide adequate heat to the Pt2 probes for proper deicing, initial thrust settings may appear to decrease once the takeoff roll has begun, as increasing bleed air temperatures melt snow, or ice blockage of the Pt2 sensor inlet. As the probes become unblocked, artificially high EPR reading may decrease to actual values.
Generating Systems are paralleled to obtain ___ ____ _____.
Generating systems are paralleled to obtain equal generator loads
Control tabs move the flight controls in the event of a ____ _____
manual reversion
An elevator trim tab is used to modify the
An elevator trim tab is used to modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight control pressures.
Highest gas volume in a turbine engine?
Turbine outlet
Compressor outlet
Combustion chamber outlet
Turbine outlet
What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines?
Dry Sump, pressure, and spray
electrical generators are rated in
Watts at rated voltage
Amperes at rated voltage
Voltage at rated amperes
Amperes at rated voltage
Answer is positive five degrees Fahrenheit, what is the question?
What is the lowest ambient temperature that engine ice is likely to form in air clear of visible moisture?
index units are determined by what formula?
Weight times Arm divided by the Reduction Factor
Zero Fuel Weight plus Total Fuel Load determine which two weights?
Ramp or Taxi
heat sensitive paint has changed from white to black, what caused this?
an expended chemical oxygen generator
maximum allowable airplane weight excluding usable fuel is called _____ ____ ___ ____
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight
Determining Optimum Cruise Altitude Explained
Gross weight of the airplane at the beginning of the cruise is most significant when determining the optimum cruise altitude available.

Altitude is the one most important factor affecting the specific range of the turbojet airplane. Any operation below the optimum altitude will have a noticeable effect on the range capability and proper consideration must be given to the loss of range. In addition, turbojet airplanes designed specifically for long range will have a large percent of the gross weight as fuel. The large changes in gross weight during cruise will require particular methods of cruise control to extract the maximum flight range. A variation from the optimum flight path of cruise (constant Mach number, cruise-climb, or whatever the appropriate technique) will result in a loss of range capability.
Gross weight of the airplane when beginning cruise flight is critical to determine the appropriate ____ _____
cruise altitude
dividing total moments by total weight gives you the _ _
C G
Left aileron moves up when the control wheel is moved ____
left
During an engine trim check use turbine discharge pressure from location
If it is needed for calculating thrust during an engine trim check, use turbine discharge pressure P sub T seven
What does P sub t sub seven mean?
Total absolute pressure at Station number seven
Transport Category aircraft
Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes
Turbine-powered only
Which ones has to have G.P.W.S. and Glide slope deviation alerting system?
Turbine-powered airplanes only
Outflow valve opening controlled by the
cabin pressure control setting
Continuous rising current and increasing battery temperature characterize a ___ ______.
a thermal runaway
What is worse about frost, changing the shape of the airfoil or early airflow separation?
FAA says frost does NOT change the basic aerodynamic shape of the aerodynamic shape of the wing. Early airflow separation is the answer.
Protecting the wiring from too much current is the function of the ____ ___ in the ____ _____ system
function of the circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system
Ram air temperature when the recovery factor of the temperature sensor is equal to one hundred percent is equal to ____ ___ _______
Total air temperature
Trip Free C.B.
cannot hold it manually closed
Automatic Pilot Servo using a ___-____, balanced ____ _____.
Automatic pilot servo is the hydraulic operation normally using a double-acting, balanced linear actuator.
What consideration should be included in determining optimum cruise altitude?
highest altitude at which maximum continuous power provides optimum aerodynamic conditions
Name a red liquid used on airplane
M.I.L. dash H dash five six zero six
Heat damage to the fuel control, what can cause this?
Excessive operation of the fuel heater.
Watts are used in which electrical circuits
DC
Slats and slots explained
Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edges of the wings. When the slat is closed, it forms the leading edge of the wing. When in the open position (extended forward), a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge. At low airspeeds this increases lift and improves handling characteristics, allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeeds below the otherwise normal landing speed.
A confusing test question has to do with slats and slots - the answer mentions 'higher angle of attack' Of course we know there is never a higher angle of attack. Basically you have a NEW wing when you deploy a slat to open a slot. that new wing has a different AOA than the wing did before you deployed the slat creating the slot, get it? In this case you make a new wing and that wing has a higher aoa than the old wing so choose 'higher AOA' as your answer.
nuff said
Name a fuel system that helps maintain the aircraft's center of gravity
cross feed fuel system....think that if you have a lateral imbalance you can open the cross feed valve and correct the imbalance condition
servo tabs reduce control forces by
deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control
what increases the camber of the wing?
leading edge flaps
a confusing question answer on the test is the gear warning horn sounding with one power lever retarded to idle and the landing gear not locked down....obviously in cruise this would not happen so flaps must also be partially down to trigger this event
The landing gear warning signal will sound when the landing gear is not down and locked when flaps are less than full up and a throttle is retarded to idle is the explanation from advisory circular sixty five dash fifteen
Again a confusing question and answer regarding gear warning signal has the following question: which of the following conditions would most likely cause the landing gear warning signal to be activated
the correct answer according to Dauntless is power levers retarded to idle, flaps up, and landing gear lever locked up
Control wheel is moved left the right aileron will move
down
decreasing the holding time is a good thing or a bad thing?
bad thing
stabilizer leading edge moves up, and the rudder tab moves right - what are you trying to trim towards?
more nose down and more nose left
Trim tabs are adjusted the same or opposite the desired movement of the surface being controlled.
Trim tabs are adjusted opposite the desired movement of the surface being controlled.
Elevator trim tab for the nose to move down, the elevator must move _____, therefore the trim tab would move ____.
For the nose to move down, the elevator must move down, therefore the trim tab would be move up.
For the nose to move left, the rudder must move left, therefore the trim tab would be moved to the _____.
For the nose to move left, the rudder must move left, therefore the trim tab would be moved to the right.
Rate of temperature rise activates what type of fire warning system?
Thermocouple
Specific range is a ration of ____ __ ___to fuel flow in pounds per hour
The ratio of NM per hour to fuel flow in pounds per hour identifies specific range
maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speed is a function of ____ ___ mounted ____ ____
upper surface mounted vortex generators
Emergency circuits may be powered by holding this type of circuit breaker in
NON TRIP-FREE
Open phase, under-excitation, and over-voltage are protective functions of an __ ____ ___ ____ ___
Open phase, under-excitation, and over-voltage are protective functions of an alternating current generator control unit
basic operating weight plus payload equals
zero fuel weight
Rotary Inverter explained
A permanent magnet inverter is composed of a dc motor and a permanent magnet ac generator assembly. Each has a separate stator mounted within a common housing. The motor armature is mounted on a rotor and connected to the dc supply through a commutator and brush assembly. The motor field windings are mounted on the housing and connected directly to the dc supply. A permanent magnet rotor is mounted at the opposite end of the same shaft as the motor armature, and the stator windings are mounted on the housing, allowing ac to be taken from the inverter without the use of brushes.
converting dc to one hundred fifteen volts, and four hundred cycle power is the job of the ___ _____
job of the rotary inverter
twenty five volts is the approximate nominal voltage rating of a
fully charged nickel-cadmium battery containing twenty cells
when do vortex generators work at slow speeds?
when mounted on the horizontal stab to prevent flow seperation
lead-acid battery spill? grab the
bye carb (bicarbonate of soda)
two-wire thermal switch is a type of fire detector circuit that can
continue to function with either one open or one short in the detector loops?
vertical fin vortex generators assist during what flight condition
extreme angles of yaw
what is the A B C D order of extinguisher classes
paper, liquid, electrical, metal
under what condition will the compressor speed up as altitude is increased?
The low pressure compressor of a triple spool engine will speed up as altitude is increased
closing the outflow valve faster will have what affect
will assist in slowing down a too rapid cabin rate of climb
the first part of inhalation providing rich oxygen is part of what oxygen delivery system
constant-flow
Tough one because of phraseology: Which of the following three is correct for landing gear position warning system activation:
When power levers are advanced and the speed brakes are not retracted
Power levers are retarded and the gear is in transit
When one power lever is retarded below cruise and the gear is down and locked
The landing gear position warning system provide a warning in the cockpit when the power levers are retarded and the gear is in transit.
Constant-Flow
Diluter-Demand
Demand
Which one is used for passengers
Constant-flow
Continuous flow oxygen system explained
Continuous Flow Oxygen System. The oxygen system usually provided for passengers. The passenger mask typically has a reservoir bag, which collects oxygen from the continuous flow oxygen system during the time when the mask user is exhaling. The oxygen collected in the reservoir bag allows a higher inspiratory flow rate during the inhalation cycle, which reduces the amount of air dilution. Ambient air is added to the supplied oxygen during inhalation after the reservoir bag oxygen supply is depleted. The exhaled air is released to the cabin.
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at a constant power and indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
the true airspeed will increase and true altitude will increase
why should you remember one hundred and ten degrees Fahrenheit as an answer?
it is the temperature at which fuel vapor lock can occur
Fuel Jettisoning system explained
The fuel jettisoning system is usually divided into two separate, independent systems, one for each wing, so that lateral stability can be maintained by jettisoning fuel from the "heavy" wing if it is necessary to do so. Normally, if an unbalanced fuel load exists, fuel will be used from the "heavy" wing by supplying fuel to engines on the opposite wing. The system consists of lines, valves, dump chutes and chute operating mechanisms. Each wing contains either a fixed or an extendable dump chute depending upon system design. In either case the fuel must discharge clear of the airplane.
what two things do fuel dump systems not have
Flow meters and Tanks are not part of a fuel dump system, ignore answers that have those terms in them
relays or solenoids - which one has a movable core?
solenoids have movable cores
Relays explained
A relay is an electrically controlled device that opens and closes electrical contacts to effect the operation of other devices in the same or in another electrical circuit. The relay converts electrical energy into mechanical energy through various means, and through mechanical linkages, actuates electrical conductors (contacts) that control electrical circuits. Solid-state relays may also be used in electrical switching applications.
Battery cells in series explained
To connect the cells in series, the negative terminal of each cell is connected to the positive terminal of the succeeding cell. The voltage is then equal to the sum of the voltages of the individual cells. Since the same current must flow through each cell in succession, the current that the battery can supply is equal to the current rating of a single cell. Thus, a battery composed of cells in series provides a higher voltage, but not a greater current capacity.
two lead-acid twelve volt batteries show what amount of voltage?
18
24
12
twenty-four
Standard Day - Sea Level what is the temperature in Centigrade?
fifteen degrees centigrade
Standard Day - sea level what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
fifty nine degrees Fahrenheit
At Taxi speeds what circuit helps provide full braking action?
locked-wheel arming circuit which is inoperative at taxi speeds
Which fuel leaks are not considered a flight hazard?
Stains, seep, and heavy seeps, when on the outside of the aircraft, and away from ignition sources.
Which leaks are considered a flight hazard?
Any leaks in enclosed areas, especially near heat sources, do constitute a flight hazard.
Diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in nonprecipitation conditions will ________ the freeze point.
Diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in nonprecipitation conditions will decrease the freeze point.
Too much rudder - not enough bank
Skid
Airplane trimmed to a more nose right and right wing up position...
For the right wing to move up, the right aileron must move down, therefore the right aileron trim tab would be move up.
Aft of the compressor section but forward of the burner section is the _____ section
diffuser
Excel Chart Column Headers for Weight and Balance are
Item
Qty
Weight Per Item
Total Items Weight
Divide Total Items Weight by 1000
Multiply by ARM
= MOMENT
Item - Quantity - Weight Per Item - Total Items Weight - Divide Total items Weight by 1000 - multiply by arm = moment