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Pathophysiology Exam 6
Chapter 12 - Cardiovascular System
Terms in this set (75)
Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?
Increased intraventricular pressure
When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
Increased heart rate
Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity?
It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
The function of the baroreceptors is to:
signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.
The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
completing ventricular filling.
Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine?
Increased heart rate and force of contraction
Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:
The cardiac reserve is:
the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed.
The term preload refers to:
volume of venous return.
The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:
Cardiac output refers to:
the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute.
Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:
relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles.
A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:
promotes platelet adhesion.
The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to:
degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries.
A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:
leading a sedentary lifestyle.
An atheroma develops from:
accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL):
promote atheroma development.
Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:
taking a nap.
When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?
Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not.
The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as:
total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis.
Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:
persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is:
atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus.
Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?
Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG
The size of the necrotic area resulting from myocardial infarction may be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT:
removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development.
The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is:
cardiac arrhythmias and fibrillation.
Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following?
The cessation of all cardiac function
Which change results from total heart block?
Spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction
The term premature ventricular contraction refers to the condition where:
additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle.
Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
Uncontrolled essential hypertension
The definition of congestive heart failure is:
inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body.
Significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include:
edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is marked by:
hemoptysis and rales.
Compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure include:
increased renin and aldosterone secretions.
In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?
Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?
In an infant, the initial indication of congestive heart failure is often:
A sign of aortic stenosis is:
a heart murmur.
An incompetent mitral valve would cause:
decreased output from the left ventricle.
Common signs of rheumatic fever include all of the following EXCEPT:
arthritis, causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet.
Rheumatic heart disease usually manifests in later years as:
cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs.
Which of the following applies to subacute infective endocarditis?
A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves.
Pericarditis may be caused by:
2. abnormal immune responses.
4. malignant neoplasm.
A source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain could be the:
The basic pathophysiological change associated with essential hypertension is:
increased systemic vasoconstriction.
Uncontrolled hypertension is most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function in the:
kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye.
The term intermittent claudication refers to:
ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise.
A friction rub is associated with:
A dissecting aortic aneurysm develops as:
a tear in the intimal lining, which allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.
The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is:
rupture and hemorrhage.
Shock is defined as:
decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion.
Shock follows a myocardial infarction when:
a large portion of the myocardium is damaged.
What are the early signs of circulatory shock?
1. Pale moist skin
3. Anxiety and restlessness
A compensation for shock would include:
increased heart rate and oliguria.
Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?
Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow.
A prolonged period of shock is likely to cause:
damage to, and increased permeability of, pulmonary capillaries.
Shock develops in patients with severe burns as a result of:
pain and loss of plasma.
The classic early manifestation(s) of left-sided congestive heart failure is/are ____, whereas the early indicator(s) of right-sided failure is/are _______.
shortness of breath on exertion or lying down; swelling of the ankles
The cause of essential hypertension is considered to be:
A cardiac pacemaker would most likely be inserted in cases of:
Which of the following is considered to be the most dangerous arrhythmia?
The most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins is:
increased venous pressure.
In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from:
onset of circulatory shock.
Septic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that it is frequently manifested by:
fever and flushed face.
Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the AV node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called:
A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
ventricular filling is reduced.
The right side of the heart would fail first in the case of:
3. large infarction in the right ventricle.
4. advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which of the following compensations that develop in patients with congestive heart failure eventually increase the workload of the heart?
A, B, and C
Peripheral vasoconstriction - Increased secretion of renin - Faster heart rate and cardiomegaly
Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because:
edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area.
Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes:
reduced venous return.
Aortic stenosis means the aortic valve:
cannot fully open during systole.
Septic shock is frequently caused by infections involving:
gram-negative endotoxin-producing bacteria.
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