G500 Oral Exam Study Guide
Terms in this set (108)
The FSI Q and A guide says "to produce quality power" but the MTM says it is to send "momentary discretes to the two BPCU protection latch." Each BPCU has a protection latch to protect the DC buses from TRU faults to lock out the TRU DC bus contactors. The PAS says this is also true of an AC Bus.
What is the purpose of the AC/DC Reset switch?
24 and 23 VDC.
What are the minimum EBHA and UPS battery voltages?
Emergency lighting, both SFDs, and TSC 2 and 3.
What do you check when arming E Power during the cockpit preflight?
Electrical System Controllers receive TSC and other inputs via the DCN and provide commands to the Modular Power Tiles to switch loads on or off. They also provide status information relating to the SPDS.
What is an ESC?
How many modular power tiles are there?
Hosts the Solid State Power Controllers (SSPC), acting as both switches and circuit breakers.
What does a modular power tiles do?
2 Main Ship Batteries (tail compartment), an EBHA (tail compartment), a UPS (REER), and two EBPs (one in LEER one in Fwd Aft BEER).
How many batteries are there and where are they located?
Four: two IDG (40 kVA), one APU (40 kVA), one RAT (15 kVA).
How many generators do we have? Capacity?
Voltage regulation, control, system protection, and for the IDG's frequency regulation.
What is the purpose of a GCU?
A power interruption on the system distribution bus during normal operation.
What is a break power transfer?
Powers LESS TRU, RESS TRU, EBHA Charger, UPS Charger, Emergency AC bus, Horizontal Stab Ch 1, L and R side windshield heat. Requires 200 knots. Deployed manually, is spring loaded.
What does the RAT power? What airspeed is required? How is it deployed?
There are 8 Remote Electronics Units. They control actuators and the HSTS based on FCC commands and they report control surface positions.
How many REUs on the aircraft? What do they do?
Normal (the default mode), Alternate (if air data, inertial data, or communications between FCC and GSTS lost), Direct (if all 4 FCC channels become invalid), and Backup (All 4 FCCs unable to communicate).
What are the different flight control modes?
Under the floor, used to "get home" if both FCCs fail. Powered by UPS and has its own set of RVDTs on sidesticks and rudder pedals.
Where is the BFCU and what is its purpose?
No faster than 285 KCAS / 0.90M, no more than a 10 knot crosswind for landing, no icing allowed.
What are our limitations in alternate flight control mode?
Yes, using the switch on the OHPTS, it will heat for 10 minutes. The PAS says 1 minute.
Can you turn TAT heat on when on the ground?
At 100 kts.
When does TAT heat normally come on?
Yes, for 10 minutes.
Can you turn the cabin window heat on when on the ground?
Airborne when ice detected (1 minute on, 7 off with gear handle up; 1 on 1 off with gear handle down). Manually forces it on for 5 minutes.
When does EVS window heat come on?
Between 10 and 30 minutes after shutdown.
When do you check engine oil level?
When in essential mode, some protective shutdowns are disabled to allow continued operation.
What is the difference between APU essential and non-essential mode?
Inflight: armed, left system < 1500 psi, fluid in system, fluid not hot, flap or gear positions do not match handles. Ground: armed, left system < 1500 psi, brake pedal depressed.
What causes the Aux pump to operate automatically?
Armed, left system < 2400 psi, fluid in left system, right system fluid not hot.
What causes the PTU to operate automatically?
Onside thrust reverser and a spoiler pair (left: midboard, right: inboard)
What do you lose during a single hydraulic system failure?
In flight it has a 2-minute time limit that can be reset by selecting OFF then ON.
How does the Aux pump operate differently in the air when selected to ON?
10.69 psi (inflight), 0.3 psi (taxi, takeoff, landing).
What is the maximum cabin differential?
10.80 and 11.000 psi.
What is the pressure relief cabin differential?
White (not operating), cyan (wing temp < 100°F), green (wing temp between 100°F and 180°F), amber (wing temp < 100°F for 2 minutes auto or 4 minutes manual, or > 180°F).
When is the wing anti-ice white, cyan, green, or amber?
EMED Push panel - PUSH for Emergency Entry. The EMED door will electrically unlock and free fall open using the FWD E-Batt. This allows you to test that function as well as the FWD E-Batt.
How do you open the Main Entry door from outside the aircraft when starting your preflight during the first flight of the day?
Open the Security/Gnd Service door. Select the External Battery to ON Select the outside door switch to OPEN. The door will electrically unlock and free fall open. Opening the door and unfolding the stair section does not require hydraulic pressure; the door is electrically opened and the stairs will free-fall to the extended position using a closed-circuit hydraulic damper to control the extension rate.
How do you open the Main Entry door from outside the aircraft normally?
No. The forward ground service panel access door and MED emergency open button must remain unlocked during all ground and flight operations to ensure accessibility to the Main Door switches, allowing ground crews the ability to open the MED during an emergency.
Can you fly with the Security / Ground Service panel door locked or the Entrance Entry Push Panel locked?
Aircraft static for at least 2 hours; TSC 1-4 - SYSTEMS—GROUND SERVICE, TIRE PRESSURE. TSC 5, PRESS Status, Tire Pressure AFM, Nose wheel tires: 182 psi, Main wheel tires: 223 psi.
When and how do you check the tire pressure?
8 (3 Gear pins, 4 Door pins, 1 Maint pin)
How many pins should you have in your hand when you finish the preflight?
40° from the tiller (instead of 82° from the tiller).
During landing you get an Amber Tiller Steering Fail CAS message. What type of rudder pedal authority would you expect to get?
Gear in transit.
What does a magenta landing gear indication mean?
Gear fear failed to extend.
What does a amber landing gear indication mean?
Close all the gear doors and select Normal on the LGCMP; otherwise, the plane will remain in MX mode and gear will not retract on departure.
After opening the gear doors for preflight, what must be accomplished to put the airplane back into "ready for flight mode?"
Yes, "LG Maintenance Mode"
Is there a CAS message that the landing gear is not in the NORM mode.
By either retracting the flaps or extending the landing gear. Tone Generator - MAU 1 and MAU 2 Inhibit TSC, Aural Inhibits. Selecting the gear silence button on TSC, Aural Inhibits, Ldg Gear Horn (This works until descending below 345 feet AGL)
How can the gear warning horn be silenced if flap position is < 22° or > 22° and the gear is retracted?
The FMS is not able to perform brake temperature monitoring computations.
While performing the Perf Takeoff, AC Cfg on TSC, you notice that the ENABLED legend under BTMS is amber. What does that mean?
By selecting the Autobrake to OFF on TSC 1-4, POF, Taxi, or Takeoff. Any one throttle advanced forward of the idle stop. Any one brake pedal is depressed greater than 25% and released to less than 8% for more than 0.03 seconds. Any one brake pedal is depressed to more than 25% for more than one second. Brake pressure commanded by any one brake pedal exceeds the brake pressure commanded by autobrakes (greater than 25%).
How can the pilot deactivate the autobrakes system on landing?
From ESS DC until 35% and then from its own PMA. PAS says 52%.
Where does the FADEC get its electrical power?
At high power setting, crossflow open, fire handle pulled, fuel selector OFF, low fuel pressure, HTFR AUTO switch OFF, fuel tank temperature above 10°C, low fuel quantity signal.
Name some conditions that stops the heated fuel return system to operate automatically?
Each time the fuel switch is selected to RUN.
When does the FADEC change channels during a ground start?
You lose FADEC protection, you lose auto throttles, and you can't dispatch in alternate control. Operation in icing conditions prohibited. Engine sync inoperative. Increased ground and flight idle.
What's the downside to the alternate control mode?
13 items: APU fire light, two master cautions, left and right fire handles, left and right fuel controls, 6 CAS.
When you select Fire Test switch on OHPTS what are you expecting to happen?
Absence of discharge bottle CAS messages.
On your preflight checks, how do you know you have full engine fire bottles?
No; the APU will automatically shut down. However, you must discharge the fire bottle into APU enclosure by selecting FIRE EXT on Overhead Panel.
If the APU senses a fire will it continue to operate?
One Halon in the cockpit, and two Halon and one water in the cabin.
What's the location of portable fire extinguishers?
You send a signal to close the fuel shutoff valve, trips the associated GCU, and shuts off hydraulics in the tail compartment.
What happens when you pull the fire handle up?
What electrical power source is required to detect an engine/APU Fire and discharge a fire bottle?
Supply aircraft w/bleed air and AC power during ground ops. Inflight AC power or /and bleed air for engine start only.
What is the purpose of the APU?
Surface to 20,000 feet the APU sheds the air and electrical, slows down at 1/2 % per second to 70% then shuts down. Above 20,000 feet the APU sheds the APU Generator and Bleed Air and operates at 100% before shutting down.
How does the APU shut down?
Yes, for engine starts 30,000 feet and below.
Can APU air be used inflight?
Essential power (Right Ships Batteries), AC external power cart. Use of an External DC power source to start the APU is prohibited.
What power sources can be used for starting the APU?
Cyan "APU Ready" annunciation illuminates on IRS / APU / Batt page of OHPTS's. ALSO ON THE HARD SWITCH.
What the indication that air inlet door has opened and APU is ready to start?
Cycle MASTER and give it another try.
After selecting the APU Master ON the switch indicates amber FAULT. Can I clear this indication?
It means it hasn't shutdown for one of the malfunctions that would have caused shutdown on ground. Don't shut it down if you really need it because a subsequent start may be inhibited. If you don't need it, shut it down quickly by turning off the APU MASTER.
Inflight you get an amber APU Essential CAS message. What does that indicate?
How much fuel can be uploaded to the aircraft?
What is the maximum amount of fuel when fueling over wing?
What is the maximum imbalance while in-flight?
Select operable fuel pumps ON for all phases of flight unless fuel balancing is in progress.
When must the Fuel Boost Pumps be ON?
CHECK Engine and APU OIL LEVEL 10 MINUTES to 30 minutes AFTER SHUTDOWN TO DETERMINE IF THE ENGINE NEEDS OIL SERVICE.
What must you do to check the engine oil?
Left Thrust Reverser and Mid Spoiler Panels/Speed Brakes.
If you get a "L Hyd Pump Fail" CAS message, what will not work?
Land at the nearest suitable airport no more than 4 hours after the failure.
The Left Hydraulic pump failed 1 hour after takeoff. Is there anything you must do?
Yes, but very slowly.
Will the aux hydraulic pump retract the landing gear?
What is the lowest power source that will operate the Standby Flight Display?
If operating on the Emergency Batteries ONLY do you have Air Data Information?
ESS DC power
What would have to be powered to get Air Data to the SFD?
The APU alternator can deliver 100% (40 kVA) electrical power on the ground or in flight from sea level to 35,000 ft. You can still use it above 35K, to 45K. If load exceeds 55% descend to 35 or below.
What is the maximum altitude I can use the APU for electrical power?
A Fault in Main AC or Emergency AC bus, a logic fault within BPCU, or by a relay or component failure (Glitch, Fault, Failure)
What causes the "AC" legend of AC/DC RESET switchlight to activate?
Any one of the 3 door open switches selected to OPEN causes the Forward E-Batt to come ON and open the MED. Or if < 20 volts on the ESS Busses with the E-Batts ARMED.
What would cause 1 or both emergency batteries to come ON automatically?
It serves as a backup to the other TRU's. When not serving in a backup role, the Aux TRU powers the Aux DC bus which provides 28 VDC power to cabin loads.
Describe the purpose of the fifth or Aux TRU?
EBHA battery charger, UPS battery charger, H-STAB Channel 1, L & E Ess TRU - VIA RAT, L & R Side Window Heat - VIA RAT, RAT VOLT/FREQ
What does the Emergency AC Bus power?
Right main DC bus, external DC power cart, or right battery.
What are the sources of power for the ground service bus?
Left Main AC or RAT generator.
What powers the Emergency AC Bus?
The right battery powers the ground service bus and the anti-collision beacon illuminates and TSC #5 is powered.
What happens on a dark airplane when the GND SVC BUS switch on the Security / Gnd Svc panel is selected to ON?
The Secondary Power Distribution System can be accessed from any two of TSC 2 thru 5. Secondary Power is not available on TSC 1
How many TSC's can be used to simultaneously control the SSPC's?
Aux TRU will take over the LH ESS DC bus and the right Ess DC bus will be powered by the BATTS.
If the Right Essential TRU fails, the Aux TRU will power the Right Essential DC bus. If we have a subsequent failure of the Left Essential TRU, what will occur?
Emergency AC Bus, Left and Right ESS Buses.
What buses can the RAT power?
0 to 100 % - Full cold 35 F to full hot 230 F
What is temperature range in manual?
Main batteries, CPCS Channel 1
Automatic pressurization is available down to what source of power?
A fault has been sensed by the cabin pressure controller, or both channels of the controller have failed.
During Cockpit Inspection there is a pressurization panel Fault Light illuminated, what does that mean?
Isolation valve closed until 1500 feet AGL or clear of obstacles, if wing anti-ice needed must be single pack.
What are the restrictions when taking off with a single bleed air system?
VNAV operations using QFE altimeter settings are prohibited.
Is there any time I cannot use VNAV?
During single engine approaches. During approach and landing with flaps 10° or flaps 0°.
When can I not use the Autothrottles?
Yes, Both can be inoperative
Can you dispatch without the pilot's CCD?
Do you lose any functionality in the cockpit with one CCD inoperative?
It indicates EVS A, H, or L in the upper left corner.
Looking into the HUD, how can you tell if the EVS is selected ON and ready for use?
The use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to takeoff, approach, and landing. If icing conditions exist or may exist during approach and landing, wing anti-ice must be selected on and confirmed to be operating in the normal temperature range prior to flap extension. Extended operations in icing conditions is limited to the Flaps Up configuration. If flight in icing conditions with flaps extended has occurred for more than 10 minutes during takeoff or approach and landing, do not retract flaps below 10 deflection until it is verified that the flap leading edge is clear of ice by one of the following means: 1. Visual inspection of the flap on the ground after landing. 2. Visual inspection of the winglet leading edges while in flight.
What are the flap restrictions in icing conditions?
Yes, you can go with 3 of the 4 channels.
As you are taxiing out, you get a blue "FCC 1A Fail (U)" CAS. Can you takeoff?
Yes, do not exceed 285 KCAS or 0.90M.
Are there any limitations associated with an amber "Spoiler Panel Fail (U)" CAS message?
Less than 2 valid IRS signals, or less than 2 valid ADS sources, or loss of communications from FCC to HSTS. FLT CTRL RESET might get it back.
What will cause an amber "FCS Alternate Mode (U)" CAS message? Can it be recovered?
Do not exceed 285 KCAS or 0.90M, don't fly into known icing conditions, maximum crosswind for landing is 10 knots.
What are the limitations associated with flying in a degraded flight control mode?
It disengages the autopilot, stops runaway trim in all three axes, silences the AP DISC warning, trim speed sync.
What's the purpose of the A/P DISC switch?
Override the flight controls, select the AP OFF on the guidance panel, use any of the pitch trim switches.
Any other ways to disconnect the AP?
The flight control system reverts to the Direct Mode.
What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are invalid?
Used to reset flight control computers and control surface actuators when directed by a checklist. Removes Lockouts for the FCCs.
What's the function of the FLT CTRL RESET switch?
ADS Failure (AOA, Airspeed, etc.), or FCC mode other than Normal, or Flaps position information unavailable, or WAI status miscompare between FCCs.
When is stall protection not available?
After landing, ground spoilers retract 10 seconds after wheel and air speeds are both below 42 knots, or immediately after either throttle is not at idle, or immediately if either MLG WOW is in air.
What causes the spoilers to stow during landing?
5 seconds after ground spoilers stow, the FCC commands a post-flight BIT of control surface and stab actuators. The stab will return to zero as soon as the post-flight BIT completes.
When does the Stab return to zero after landing.
Changes the Flight Control Logic for AOA. Increases the available AOA thus providing a lower approach speed.
On a no flap landing why do we turn on the wing anti-ice?
APU FIRE light, fire handles, fuel control switches, red light in ELT switch panel, and passenger oxygen light.
What lights aren't tested during Annun Test?
When do taxi lights automatically extinguish?
Press and hold the Menu button for 3 seconds.
What's the quickest way of turning up the SFD lighting?
Press and hold the tumbler for 7 seconds.
What's the quickest way of turning up TSC lighting?
How long does it take to purge the water tanks?
Open the water service panel door or Pressing the button on the water level indicator in the baggage compartment next to the water tanks or Turn off the water system on the Galley Touch Screen.
How do I turn OFF the water compressor to service the water system?