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BLD 204 - Final
Terms in this set (186)
(Q1) What is the function of mitochondria?
Sunburn is an example of what kind of injury?
Oxidative stress from excess ROS causes what three things?
1. Lipid peroxidation
2. Protein misfolding
3. DNA damage
The family of enzymes that regulate apoptosis are the _________
The mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is also known as __________
Which results in inflammation, apoptosis or necrosis?
During necrosis, damage is caused by the leakage of proteolytic enzymes from the ___________
During the early stages of necrosis, the cell as a whole _________.
During apoptosis, the cell as a whole ________.
Signal receiving proteins on the outside of a cell are activated by binding ligands, triggering apoptosis via the _________/___________ pathway.
Death receptor / Extrinsic
What three things can increased cytosolic calcium cause?
1. Membrane damage
2. Nuclear damage
3. ATP depletion
What happens to the nucleus during apoptosis?
Condensation of chromatin
The proteins that make holes in the mitochondria to initiate apoptosis are called __________.
BAX and BAK
T/F Apoptosis is always the result of disease.
Damage to a kidney would most likely result in which type of necrosis?
Damage to the brain would most likely result in which type of necrosis?
Damage to the lungs would most likely result in which type of necrosis? (i.e. TB granulomas)
Damage caused by immune mediated disease would most likely result in which type of necrosis?
(Q2) The swelling that occurs with inflammation can best be explained by which of the following?
Increased vascular permeability
What type of inflammation is described (chronic or acute): A child's ear infection that resolves in 3 days with antibiotic treatment.
Do transudates or exudates have more protein content?
Describe the inflammatory process in three steps (include macrophage, edema, and neutrophils).
1. Edema causes swollen tissues
2. Neutrophils are recruited to the site
3. Macrophages are recruited to the site.
Leukocyte transmigration during inflammation requires what protein?
What do Neutrophil Extracellular Traps extrude to capture pathogens?
Provide an example of a vasoactive amine that promotes vascular changes in inflammation.
COX inhibitors block what pathway involved in inflammation?
The arachidonic acid metabolism pathway
The increased production of CPR, fibrinogen, and SAA by the liver in the acute phase response is stimulated by which cytokine?
How often do labile cells divide? Provide an example.
- All the time
- Hematopoietic stem cells, Epithelium cells
How often to stable cell populations divide? Provide an example.
- As necessary
- Kidney cells, Liver cells
How often do permanent cell populations divide? Provide an example.
- Neurons, Inner ear hair cells, Brain cells, Heart cells
Which cells produce the ECM during healing?
What do VEGF family growth factors encourage?
What are scars made of?
How will a shallow, narrow scratch heal?
In a young, healthy patient, why would an injury to the knuckle have a difficult time healing?
Uterine enlargement during pregnancy is an example of _________.
(E1) The avertible replacement of one adult cell type by another as an adaptation to stress is called _________.
Rickets is a disease caused by a lack of Vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate. The disease causes the bones to be soft and weak, leading to an increased risk of fracture. lack of Vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate in a patient with Rickets is the ___________ of the disease.
The type of cell injury that results from carbon monoxide poisoning (decreased O2 carrying capacity) exposure is ________.
Charles had ischemic damage to his left kidney that resulted in necrosis. What type of necrosis would be seen in a kidney?
Joan has TB. She had a granule in her lungs that is filled with a crumbly, whitish substance. What type of necrosis is the substance?
An overdose of acetaminophen can cause what type of injury to liver cells?
Apoptosis or necrosis?
Apoptosis or necrosis?
Apoptosis or necrosis?
Apoptosis or necrosis?
Why does necrosis result in inflammation while apoptosis does not?
Necrotic cell contents leak out
Because of a genetic mutation, a certain cell is accumulating a large number of misfolded proteins. The cell begins to undergo apoptosis because which pathway is activated?
Intrinsic / Mitochondrial
ATP depletion and oxidative stress (ROS increase) can both be caused by damage to which organelle?
What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
5. Loss of function
In the days following an injury, two waves of innate immune cells are recruited to the site. Which type of cell is in the second wave?
The final outcome and goal of properly controlled, successful inflammation is:
The initiation of repair and healing
What are the two main vascular changes that occur in inflammation?
2. Increased permeability
Without PECAM-1, what step in leukocyte recruitment fails to take place?
List the steps of leukocyte recruitment.
In Sialyl-Lewis X deficiency, what process cannot be completed?
The surface of a bacterial cell has been coated with complement protein C3b. What will this directly encourage? Why?
- Phagocytosis of the microbe
- C3b is an opsonin
A twenty-four-year-old diabetic patient has a blister on her foot caused by friction from her shoe. The wound is clean and uninfected but healing very slowly. What factors will make healing more difficult in this situation?
Peg, a 20-year old female, has rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA is an autoimmune disease so her immune system is regularly targeting her own tissues, especially her joints which are sustaining a lot of damage over time. What type of inflammation is the patient experiencing?
FGF-2, IL-1, and TGF-Beta all recruit what kind of cell to injured tissue?
What are chemokines involved in?
Recruiting and activating leukocytes
IL-6 is an important driver of what?
Acute phase protein production in the liver
Healing by first or primary intention will occur in which of the following injuries?
a. Golf ball sized abscess
b. 3-inch wide laceration
c. 1 cm surgical incision
d. bullet wound
c. 1 cm surgical incision
Scarring occurs because...
The extracellular matrix is seriously damaged
How will a deep, large puncture wound heal?
By second intention
Which type of cell is able to reproduce rapidly only when damage occurs?
Stable cell population
Complement proteins 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 together form what defense against microbes?
Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
Histamine is released from ______ ______.
Cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors like NSAIDs and steroids prevent the production of __________.
The pink, soft tissue that fills a healing wound after the fibrin clot is called _________ _________.
Why are aging cells more susceptible to injury?
Because they are less able to respond to damage.
What are the two types of cells that perform phagocytosis during inflammation?
What does the opsonization of bacteria and other particles enhance?
A patient with a serious leg wound is suffering from chills, sleepiness, malaise, and increased heart rate. These systemic effects are due to the proteins of the ______ ______ ______.
Acute phase response
How is a wound initially filled?
Leukocytosis occurs in the acute phase response, as white blood cells are released from the bone marrow stimulated by cytokines, especially those known as ________ ________ ________.
Colony stimulating factors (CSF)
What type of cell damage/malfunction occurs when calcium is increased in the cytosol?
What forms the sticky net when a neutrophil forms a NET?
DNA from the nucleus
What is the source material of arachidonic acid metabolites involved in inflammation?
Phospholipids (cell membrane)
What is the function of the phagolysosome in phagocytosis?
Destroy the pathogen
The cells of the milk-secreting glands of the breast multiply during pregnancy to prepare for breastfeeding. This multiplication is an example of what type of cellular adaptation?
Growth factors involved in angiogenesis include what family of GF's?
The redness seen in inflammation is a direct result of what?
If a stroke leads to tissue death, what type of necrosis will there be?
What does the initial step in phagocytosis require?
Binding to receptors
What type of clinical lab test can be used as a measure of inflammation?
(Q3) Give three examples of APC's.
1. Dendritic cell
2. B cell
Which major histocompatibility complex do B cells have?
Which class of antibody is produced first after immunization?
What are the primary lymphoid tissues?
1. Bone marrow
Emma has been vaccinated against measles. When she is exposed to measles, her body quickly produces antibodies to the virus so she never really experiences a full blown case of the measles. What three things is this an example of?
1. Immunologic memory
2. Humoral response
3. Secondary immune response
When self-tolerance fails, a person is at risk for what kind of disease?
What would an example of secondary immunodeficiency be?
Immunosuppression due to chemotherapy
What do all amyloid diseases have in common?
Beta pleated protein structure
What transplant requires the closest HLA match?
Bone marrow (10 antigens)
Which amyloid disorder is related to an increase in SAA during inflammation?
Reactive systemic amyloidosis
What type of transplant puts a patient most at risk for graft vs host disease?
Changing the expression of one Ig class for another is known as _____________. This is done using _____.
Isotype switching, TH1
Why are immunosuppressant drugs given to transplant patients?
To prevent their immune system from attacking the transplant
What is the antigen that the body responds to in SLE (Lupus)?
Which type of B cell activation results in memory?
T cell dependent
(E2) A molecule organized by the immune system as "non-self" is referred to as a(n) _________
Which cells do APC's present antigens to?
Which MHC is found on all nucleated cells?
Which cells recognize antigen presented by MHC I molecules?
Cytotoxic lymphocytes (CTL's)
Which cytokine causes clonal expansion of lymphocytes in adaptive immunity?
Isotype switching is influenced by cytokines released by what kind of cells?
T helper cells
A bacterium enters the body and is recognized as foreign. The antibody is produced, binding to the foreign bacteria. What type of immune response is this?
One major difference between T-cell dependent and T-cell independent B cell activation is that in T-cell dependent activation what kind of cell is made?
Emily has a type of hyperthyroidism known as Graves disease. She has an antibody that activates her TSH receptors, even in the absence of normal TSH. What type of hypersensitivity is Emily's condition?
What do the autoantibodies in systemic Lupus (SLE) attack?
DNA and nuclear proteins
What are the first antibodies made after immunization?
Which class of antibodies crosses the placenta?
Inflammation and the acute phase response results in SAA levels that are up to 1000x normal. This increases the risk of what type of amyloidosis?
Reactive systemic amyloidosis
What do all amyloid proteins have in common?
What does B cell activation that results in an anamnestic response require?
CD4+ T cells
What can antibodies act as?
Hypersensitivity that involves immune complexes is which type?
III (Immune complex)
What is the resulting disease called if the body fails to ignore self antigens?
What do MHC class II molecules present?
Jeff has a bone marrow transplant six months ago. Now he is in the hospital with jaundice, diarrhea, and a skin rash. His physician is concerned that he has developed what?
Graft versus host disease
What type of immunodeficiency is AIDS a result of?
During which hemostasis do platelets aggregate?
In an acceptable match for a kidney transplant, the donor and recipient are compatible in at least which set of markers?
ABO and HLA-A, -B, & -DR
What step of hemostasis results in a stable clot?
Platelets influence coagulation by releasing ________, which is important for the proper activation of the coagulation cascade.
List risk factors for atherosclerosis.
- Gender (male)
- Age (older)
- High fat diet
The type of shock caused by a systemic bacterial infection would be ________.
In which of the stages of shock does acidosis first occur?
Why does tachycardia occur in the nonprogressive stage of shock?
To maintain blood pressure
Ischemia leads to _______.
A stroke (cerebral infarct) will lead to which type of necrosis?
Emboli that form during decompression sickness are made of what?
What are emboli most commonly made of?
What injury typically results in fat embolism?
Fracture of long bones
What causes fluid to leave the vasculature?
Increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure
What molecule cleaves fibrin to dissolve a clot?
When blood flow into a vessel is normal but outflow is occluded, the resulting increase in blood in the vessel is termed _____.
Cardiac edema is related to decreased heart pumping, but it is even more strongly influenced by what?
Activation of the RAA system
What is DIC?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
What step of platelet plug formation couldn't occur if Von Willebrand factor was missing?
The normal microbiome prevents pathogens from infecting the host by...
Outcompeting pathogens for space and resources
What are the components of Vichow's triad?
1. Blood flow
2. Vessel wall
3. Constituents of blood
HIV infects cells that express what?
How do interferons fight viral infections?
By preventing protein production in host cells
One way bacteria can avoid detection by the immune system is by doing what with their antigens?
Changing or hiding their surface antigens
What is the injury described in the response to injury hypothesis?
What type of cells are foam cells?
What is the cap of the atherosclerotic plaque made of?
Collagen and smooth muscle cells
Which type of lipoprotein accumulates in atheromas?
Increased expression of which hormone increases risk of thrombosis?
Why are lipid levels evaluated in the clinical lab?
To assess cardiac risk
(E3) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease primarily affects the _______.
Gastric cancer is neoplastic growth in what organ?
Hepatic Steatosis describes what condition?
Fatty liver disease
What does fossa mean?
Trench or ditch
What types of growths are malignant?
What is the difference between metaplasia and true neoplastic growth?
Metaplastic growth reverts to normal when the stress is removed
A mutation in one of Edison's microRNA genes makes the miRNA able to bind to P53 mRNA. Now, Edison is at higher risk of cancer because his cells have...
Reduced expression of a tumor suppressor gene
Eleanor had a Pap smear and the results indicated that she has cervical dysplasia. What do these results mean?
Eleanor has some cellular changes that may develop into cancer
Edwin has been diagnosed with lung cancer. His oncologist has ordered an MRI of his brain as well as his lungs. What hallmark of cancer causes Edwin's physician to order that MRI?
Invasion and Metastasis
What must cancer cells do to survive when they metastasize and begin to grow into a large tumor at a new site?
Establish a blood supply
Thyroid hyperplasia happens when the body perceives an increase in functional need. If the body no longer perceives the need, the thyroid returns to its normal size. This phenomenon happens because thyroid function is controlled by...
A negative feedback loop
Which class of proteins puts "brakes" on the cell cycle?
Tumor progression occurs because...
1. Selective pressures act on tumor cells
2. Genomic instability increases over time
3. Subclones that have advantageous mutations outcompete other
Which type of cancer is associated with HBV and HCV infection?
Fever seen in cancer patients is caused by cytokines released by cancer cells and macrophages activated by the presence of the cancer. Which cytokines would cause fever?
IL-1 and TNF-α
The incidence of Klinefelter's syndrome has been related to parental exposure to radiation and _________.
PKU has complete penetrance and the frequency for male and females to present with the mutant phenotype is equal. Offspring may express the phenotype even if neither parent does. What type of inheritance pattern does PKU follow?
Which of the following alpha-1-antitrypsin genotypes would have the worst phenotype?
Which of the following disorders is caused by loss of a catabolic enzyme in the lysosome?
Which metabolic pathway is disrupted when GALT is mutated?
What is the result of a nonsense mutation?
Premature stop codon
Mutations in the gene for Factor VIII result in which condition below?
Bill has an aneurysm that was the result of a problem during his embryonic development. The developmental issue was not caused by any genetic problems present in either gamete that joined to form the embryo. Based on the information that you have, what is the best term to describe Bill's aneurysm?
The mutation that results in the "Philadelphia" chromosome in CML is the result of _________.
PercivallPott discovered that chimney sweeps had increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin because of constant contact with soot. This soot was the leftover ash and debris from the combustion of coal, and it did not need to be chemically changed to cause problems. What type of carcinogen was the soot?
Tumor suppressor governor genes like _____ control important cell cycle "stop" points
Cancer cells often lack contact inhibition behavior. This problem is related to which Hallmark of Cancer?
Insensitivity to anti-growth signals
The first step in metastasis is _________.
The mutation of a microRNA so that it binds to a mRNA to which it did not bind before contributes to transformed phenotypes by reduced __________ ___________ gene expression.
Which immune cells would recognize and kill a transformed cell that was not expressing MHC I molecules?
The bridge-break-fusion cycle encourages what important factor that helps cancer to develop?
How would you diagnose a cytogenetic disorder?
Prader-Willi Syndrome occurs when two specific things occur together. These two things are:
1. Paternal deletion
2. Maternal imprinting of the Prader-Willi genes
Match the Hallmark of Cancer to the mutated protein:
a. Evading apoptosis
b. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals
c. Self-sufficiency of growth signals
d. Limitless replicative potential
e. Invasion of metastasis
f. Sustained angiogenesis
Evading apoptosis - BCL-2
Insensitivity to anti-growth signals - p53
Self-sufficiency of growth signals - RAS
Limitless replicative potential - Telomerase
Invasion of metastasis - Proteases
Sustained angiogenesis - VHL
Which of the following is a protein that can be used to monitor or detect gastrointestinal cancers?
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