Chapter 20 - Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities

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One of the most common radionuclides used in nuclear medicine is:

a. Thalium
b. Technetium 99m
c. Cardiolite
d. Sulfure colloid
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Terms in this set (120)
One of the most common radionuclides used in nuclear medicine is:

a. Thalium
b. Technetium 99m
c. Cardiolite
d. Sulfure colloid
b
What type of imaging device used in nuclear medicine provides a 3-D image of anatomic structures?

a. SPECT camera
b. B-mode unit
c. Linear accelerator
d. Real-time scanner
a
An abnormal region detected during a nuclear medicine bone scan is often described as a(n):

a. Signal void
b. Hot spot
c. Acoustic shadow
d. Region of high attenuation
b
Which one of the following is a common clinical indicator for a nuclear medicine gastrointestinal study?

a. Duodenal ulcer
b. Bezoar
c. Hepatobiliary disease
d. Ileus
c
How is the heart stressed during a nuclear cardiac perfusion study?

a. Giving the patient a radiopharmaceutical
b. Giving the patient valium
c. Giving the patient lasix
d. Having patient run on treadmill
d
Which radiopharmaceutical is given during a thyroid uptake study?

a. Technetium 99m
b. Sodium iodide (123I)
c. Sulur colloid
d. Thallium
b
Which one of the following duties is not a typical responsibility of the nuclear medicine technologist?

a. Calibrates imaging equipment
b. Processes images
c. Administers radionuclides
d. Decontaminates area after spills
a
A device for accelerating charged particles in a circular orbit to high energies by means of an alternating electric field is a:

a. Cyclotron
b. Particle accelerator
c. Linear accelerator
d. Pulsed accelerator
a
A helium nucleus, consisting of 2 protons and 2 neutrons is a(n):

a. Alpha particles
b. Neutrino
c. Beta particle
d. Radionuclide
a
A type of atom whose nucleus disintegrates spontaneously is a(n):

a. Alpha particle
b. Beta particle
c. Radiopharmaceutical
d. Radionuclide
d
PET demonstrates the __________ of the body's organs and tissues a. Anatomy b. Biochemical function c. Physiology d. Chemical structurebWhat is produced when a positron and electron join and then undergo annihilation? a. x-ray b. Alpha particle c. Radionuclide d. Two 5-11 keV photonsdWhich of the following biochemical compounds is used to gauge glucose metabolism in tissues during PET-scan? a. 12 O-water b. 12 N-ammonia c. 18 F-FDG d. 11 C-methioninecWhich of the following elements is not used in PET imaging process? a. Hydrogen b. Carbon c. Fluorine d. OxygenaMost PET tracers have a half-life of: a. 1-13 seconds b. 120 seconds - 110 minutes c. 150 - 320 seconds d. 8-12 hoursbMalignant cells have a high rate of glucose metabolism a. True b. FalseaDuring an epileptic seizure, there is a decrease in sugar (glucose) use at the seizer site in the brain a. True b. FalseaBrain mapping is a PET procedure used to identify: a. Primary tumors b. Metastatic spread c. Critical motor or sensory regions d. Regions of brain responsible for dementiacCNS tumors examined with PET will demonstrate decreased glucose metabolism a. True b. FalsebDementia, when studied with PET, is demonstrated by decreased glucose metabolism in aspects of the brain a. True b. FalseaThe most common form of coregistration, or fusion technology is the use of: a. PET/MRI b. CT/MRI c. PET/X-ray d. PET/CTdWhich one of the following is not an example of a telepathy unit? a. Linear accelerator b. Interstitial radiation c. Intraoperative radiation therapy d. Cobalt 60-unitbPalliative radiation therapy is intended to: a. Treat deep tumors b. Treat superficial tumors c. Treat tumors during surgery d. Help relieve a patient's symptoms caused by a cancerdBrachytheraphy employs the use of sealed radioactive isotopes a. True b. FalseaWhich one of the following is not a responsibility of the certified radiation therapist? a. Uses fluoroscopy for treatment planning b. Interacts directly with the patient c. Prescribes the treatments d. Maintains therapy recordscWhich of the following is not an alternative term for medical ultrasound? a. Echosonography b. Sonography c. Piezosonography d. UltrasonographycMedical sonography operates at a frequency range between: a. 1 - 5 MHz b. 25 - 50 MHz c. 1 - 17 MHz d. 1 - 20 MHzdWhich generation of ultrasound equipment first introduced grayscale imaging? a. A-mode b. B-mode (patient-mode) c. Real-time dynamic d. DopplerbAn ultrasound transducer converts ________ energy to ultrasonic energy a. Electrical b. Heat c. Light d. MagneticaWhich of the following transducer frequencies would most likely be used on a large abdomen? a. 3.5 MHz b. 5 - 7 MHz c. 10 MHz d. 17 MHzaA higher frequency transducer will increase penetration through the anatomy but will produce lower image resolution a. True b. FalsebA normal gallbladder is an example of a hyperechoic structure a. True b. FalsebBreast sonography is used primarily to distinguish between solid and cystic masses a. True b. FalseaHigh-intensity focused ultrasound utilizes heat to destroy tissues a. True b. FalseaWhat is the junction between the inferior aspect of the breast and chest wall called?Inframammary foldIn which quadrant of the breast is the tail, or axillary prolongation, found?Upper outer quadrantWhat is the term that describes the thickest portion of the breast near the chest wall?BaseWhich one of the following tissue types would be found in the breasts of a 25 year old pregnant female? a. Fibroglandular b. Fibrofatty c. Fatty d. CysticaWhich of the following tissue types would be found in the breasts of a 35 year old female who has borne two children? a. Fibroglandular b. Fibrofatty c. Fatty d. CysticbThe male breast would be classified as: a. Fibroglandular b. Fibrofatty c. Fatty d. CysticcWhich of the following tissue types requires more compression during mammography as compared with the others? a. Fibroglandular b. Fibrofatty c. Fatty d. CysticaWhat is the target material used in most mammography X-ray tubes?MolybdenumAEC can be used for most mammographic procedures a. True b. FalseaCompression of the breast will improve image quality by reducing scatter radiation a. True b. FalseaA grid is generally not used for mammography a. True b. FalsebThe average mean glandular dose received by the patient during a basic two-projection mammogram examination is in the range of: a. 50 - 150 mrad b. 200 - 300 mrad c. 400 - 600 mrad d. 800 - 1100 mradbWhich imaging modality is best suited to distinguish a cyst from a solid mass within the breast?SonographyWhich imaging modality is best suited to diagnose a rupture of a breast implant?MRIOne reason that mammoscintigraphy is not ordered more frequently is the higher number of false positives reported with this procedures a. True b. FalseaWhich one of the following radionuclides is used during a BSGI study? a. Sulfur colloid b. Sestamibi c. Technetium d. Iodine 131bWhat is the typical kV range for analog mammography?23 - 28 kVThe technique of "pinching" the breast to push an implant posteriorly to the chest wall is known as what method?Eklund methodWhat other special projection can be taken if a lesion is too deep into the axillary tail aspect of the chest wall to be seen with an exaggerated craniocaudal projection?Axillary tail viewWith a large breast, which of the two routine projections is most likely to require two images to include all of the breast tissue? a. craniocaudal b. MLO - mediolateral obliquebWhat soft-tissue landmark determines the correct height for placement of the image receptor for the CC (craniocaudal) projection?Inframammary fold @ its upper limitsWhich one of the following projections is recommended for demonstrating evaluating air-fluid levels in the structures of the breast? a. Craniocaudal b. Mediolateral oblique c. MediolaterL (true laterL) d. Exaggerated craniocaudal (lateral)cWhat device or system is part of the direct digital mammography? a. Imaging plate b. Image intensifier c. Bucky tray d. Flat panel detectordspatial resolution of digital mammography nearly equals that of film-screen imaging a. True b. FalsebWhich projection is requested when a lesion is seen on the MLO (mediolateral oblique) but not on the CC (craniocaudal) projection?Exaggerated craniocaudal - lateralWhich of the following imaging modalities is most effective in studying the breast with implants? a. Ultrasound b. PEM (PET) c. MRI d. IR-screen mammographycWhat type of radionuclide is used with mammoscintigraphy? a. Technetium -99m-sestamibi b. Iodine 131 c. Sulfur colloid d. GadoliniumaWhich imaging modality will produce sectional images of the breast with a 3D appearance? a. Mammoscintigraphy b. DBT c. Sonomammography d. BSGIbOne of the major disadvantages of using MRI as a breast screening tool is: a. Higher patient dose b. High false-positive rate c. Patient discomfort d. Length of the exambThe most common form of breast cancer is: a. Fibroadenoma b. Infiltrating sarcoma c. Lobular carcinoma d. Infiltrating ductal carcinomadWhich of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis? a. Excessive physical activity b. Alcohol consumption c. Low body weight d. Low calcium intakeaNewer dual-energy x -ray absortiometry (DXA) use: a. Fan-beam x ray source b. Positron-emission source c. Pencil-thin x-ray source d. Super voltage x-ray sourceaA T-score obtained with the DXA system compares the patient with a(n): a. Average patient of the same age, sex and ethnic background b. Young health individual with peak bone mass c. Young healthy individual of the same sex and ethnic background d. Patient with severe osteoporosisbWhich cells are responsible for bone reabsorption?OsteoclastsWhich of the following factors often leads to advance bone loss? a. Being a female over the age of 21 years b. Undergoing hormone replacement therapy c. Undergoing glucocorticoid therapy d. Undergoing cardiac rehabcA T-score acquired during a DXA scan of lower than -1.0 but higher than -2.5 indicates: a. Normal BMD b. Osteopenia c. Osteoporosis d. Severe osteoporosisbWhich vertebral region(s) is (are) analyzed during a DXA scan? a. T12 b. Between T7-L1 c. L1-L4 d. L4-S1cIf trabecular and cortical bone is being evaluated, QCT is the method of choice a. True b. FalseaThe presence of _______________ prevents accurate measurement of the BMD of an extremity? a. Cancer b. Paget's disease c. Metallic prosthesis d. OsteoporosiscParathyroid hormone 1-34 analog (teriparatide, brand name Forteo) is given to patients with osteoporosis to: a. Heal hip fractures b. Stimulate bone formation c. Relieve pain d. Reduce bone lossbBoniva belongs to a group of drugs termed: a. Calcitonin b. Selective estrogen receptor modulators c. Teriparatide d BisphosphonatesdThe MRI image represents differences in the number of: a. X-rays attenuated b. Nuclei and the rate of their recovery c. Frequencies of nuclei d. Radio wavesbThe MRI process excites the nuclei in the body with: a. X-rays b. Radio waves c. Sound waves d. Visible lightbThe most common nuclei in the body used to receive and reemit radio waves are: a. Hydrogen b. Carbon c. Oxygen d. PhosphorusaThe nuclei that receive and rennet radio waves are under the influence of: a. Gravitational force b. The sun and the planets c. X-ray energy d. A static magnetic fielddWhich of the following properties result in a nucleus behaving like a small magnet? a. An even number of neutrons and protons b. An odd number of neutrons or protons c. An even number of electrons d. The presence of a magnetbPrecession of the magnetic nuclei occurs because of: a. Oscillation in the presence of other atoms b. Regression under the influence of a magnet c. The influence of a static magnetic field d. Ionization exposed atomscA precessing nucleus produces __________ in a nearby loop of wire a. An alternating current b. A dipole c. Direct current d. Magnetic regressionaPrecession of magnetic nuclei can be altered by the application of: a. X-rays b. Radio frequency waves c. Microwaves d. Visible lightbResonance occurs when radio waves are: a. Of the same frequency as the precessing nuclei b. At the same rate as T1 relaxation c. At the same rate as T2 relaxation d. Received by an antennaaThe angle of precession of the nuclei is altered because the: a. Nuclei must be vertical b. Magnetic force dominates c. Electrostatic properties of the nuclei dominate d. MR signal is strongest when nuclei are in horizontal or transverse planedEmitted signals from the exposed nuclei are ________________ and sent to the computer a. Evaluated b. Received by an RF antenna c. In resonance d. PrecessingbIn T2 relaxation, the spins of the exposed nuclei: a. Are vertical orientation b. Move to the north c. Are reduced in density d. Become out of phase with one anotherdIn T1 relaxation, the spins of the exposed nuclei: a. Are relaxing back to a vertical orientation b. Stay in a horizontal position c. Are reduced in density d. Become out of phase with one anotheraSpin density refers to the __________ of hydrogen nuclei a. Quality b. Quantity c. Phase d. WavelengthbThe signal strength and thus the brightness of points in the image are primarily determined by: a. Differences in T1 and T2 relaxation rates of tissues b. Differences in spin density of tissues c. The longitudinal component of nuclei d. Exposure of the nuclei to the static magnetic fieldaCommon strengths of magnets used in MRI range from: a. 1 to 3 Tesla b. 5 to 7 Tesla c. 12 to 15 Tesla d. 15 to 20 teslaaWhich one of the following types of MRI magnets requires the use of cryogens? a. Permanent b. Superconducting magnets c. Resistive d. Open magnetsbTR can be defined simply as: a. Time reversal b. Repetition time c. Timing range d. Time of resonancebTE can be defined simply as: a. Echo phase b. Time net c. Temporary echo d. Echo timedRT and TE have a profound influence o: a. Image noise deletion b. Image contrast c. Signal averaging d. Image densitybOne Tesla equals: a. 10,000 times the earth's magnetic field b. 0.00005 gauss c. 10 gauss d. 10,000 gaussdWhich one of the following is not a similarity between MRI and CT? a. The outward appearance of the unit b. The use of a computer to analyze information c. The use of ionizing radiation d. Images views as a slice of tissuecPrimary saften concerns for the technologist, patient, and medical personnel are due to: a. Fringe field strengths less than 1 gauss b. Gravitational pull on metallic objects c. Magnetic fields and heat production d. Interaction of magnetic fields with ferrometallic objects and tissuesdProjectiles are a concern because of: a. Force of ferromagnetic objects being pulled to the magnetic b. Fringe fields less than 10 gauss c. Nerve cell function d. Local heating of tissues and metallic objectsaPacemakers are not allowed inside the: a. 5-gauss line b. 2.5-gauss line c. 1.0-gauss line d. 0.5-gauss lineaIV pumps, wheelchair, and O2 tanks are not allowed inside the: a. 150-gauss line b. 50-gauss line c. 5-gauss line d. 1-gauss linebThe most important MRI safety contraindication in regard to torquing of metallic objects is: a. Intra-abdominal surgical implants b. Stainless steel femoral heads c. Ferromagnetic intracranial aneurysm clips d. Titanium hip prosthesiscLocal heating of tissues (referred to SAR, or specific absorption ratio) is measured in: a. W/kg b. Joules/kg c. RF frequency d. W/cm 2aThe contrast agent is commonly used for MR examination is: a. Iodine 131 b. Lanthanum oxybromide c. Gadolinium oxysulfide d. Gadolinium-diethylne thiamine pentaacetic aciddContrast agents are generally used in conjunction with: a. T1-weighted pulse sequences b. T2-weighted pulse sequences c. Spin-density weighted pulse sequences d. All of the aboveaContrast media used in MRI carry a higher risk for allergic reaction as compared with iodinated contrast agents a. True b. FalsebWhich of these pathological indications would indicate the use of contrast media during an MRI procedure? a. Cerebral bleed b. C-spine fracture c. HNP d. Spine cord accessdT1-weighted images will demonstrate free air within the abdominal cavity a. True b. FalsebOn T1-weighted images, CSF will appear: a. Dark b. Bright c. Same as white matter d. Same as gray matteraOn T2-weighted images, CSF will appear: a. Dark b. Bright c. Same as white matter d. Same as gray matterbMRI of the brain allows visualization of: a. White matter disease b. Acute cerebral bleeds c. Small calcifications d. Skull anomaliesaMRI of the brain includes the use of a standard head coil and: a. Prone position b. Cardiac gating c. Sedation d. T1 and T2-weighted pulse sequencesdWhich of the following is not best evaluated by MRI of the spine? a. Bone marrow changes b. Cord abnormalities c. Disk herniation d. Degree of scoliosis present in the spinedMRI of the joints or limbs demonstrates all of the following except: a. Ligaments b. Tendons c. Muscle d. Cortical bonedThe largest drawback to MRI of the abdomen is: a. Motion artifacts b. Metallis implants c. Coil selection d. Sequence timesaHigh-field strength MRI magnets can produce up to 7 tesla a. True b. Falseba titanium hip prosthesis is an example of an MRI safe device a. True b. FalseaA stray magnetic field that exists outside of the MRI gantry is the definition for: a. RF field b. Fringe field c. Magnetic field d. Field of influencebFunctional MRI is performed to study: a. Anatomy of the brain b. Specific functions of the brain c. Processes such as language, vision, movement, hearing and memory d. All of the abovedFunctional MRI of the brain exceeds the spatial resolution seen with PET and SPECT images a. True b. Falsea