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Terms in this set (912)
A nucleotide consists of
a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base
3 traits of nucleic acid polymerization
1. 5' to 3' synthesis and base sequence
2. antiparallel and complementary
3. phosphodiester bond
single-ring nitrogenous base, cytosine, uracil and thymine
double-ring nitrogenous base; adenine and guanine
bonds between base pairs
Strands containing more Gs and Cs require a higher
temp to denature
all of the DNA in an organism
what has a single, circular DNA genome?
what 2 processes does the prokaryotic genome undergo?
Methylation provides protection from
a prokaryote's own restriction enzymes
Supercoiling is done by
DNA Gyrase (prokaryotic topoisomerase
Eukaryotic DNA is packaged in
several linear chromosomes
tightly packaged DNA
loosely packaged DNA that is more transcriptionally active (brought about by the acetylation of histones)
Why do histones have a high concentration of K & R amino acids?
the (+) charged aa will attract the (-) charged DNA
What does the methylation of DNA/histones do?
represses (inhibits) the sequence of DNA
the attachment point of two sister chromatids; also serves as point of attachment of spindle fibers during mitosis
What are the 2 arms of a centromere
P (short arm) & Q (long arm)
Where are telomeres located?
ends of chromosomes
what is the function of a telomere
prevent the degradation of the ends of chromosomes
what is the highly repeated 6 base sequence of a telomere
(U Are Annoying)
(U Go Away)
(U Are Gross)
3 types of polymerase errors
1. point mutation
2. small repeats (Huntington's disease)
a. reactive oxygen species
b. physical damage
prevented by glutathione
1. UV radiation causes pyrimidine dimers
2. X-rays cause double stranded breaks and translocations
single base pair change
3 types of point mutations
1. missense mutation: causes one AA to be replaced with a different AA.
2. nonsense mutation: a stop codon replaces a regular codon and prematurely shortens the protein.
3. Silent mutation: a codon is changed into another codon for the same AA. Therefore there is not change in the protein's AA sequence.
insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs (changes the reading frame)
give an example of a frameshift mutation
THE CAT ATE THE HAM
THE CAA TET HEH AM
Transposons (jumping genes)
DNA segments that can move to new location on same/different chromosome (cut and paste or copy and paste)
Effect of 2 transposons in the same direction
Effect of 2 transposons in the opposite direction
inversion of the intergenic region
due to recombination between non-homologous chromosomes or faulty DNA repair (non-homologous end joining) -- result in gene fusion
all transcription takes place in the _________
All translation begins in the
A cytosolic protein finishes translation in the
mRNA is made in the
signal sequence (signal peptide)
a short stretch of amino acids that indicates where in the cell the polypeptide belongs, majority of amino acids are hydrophobic
hydrophobic region of a transmembrane protein that anchors it in the membrane
components of cell membrane
phospholipids, proteins, carbohydrates, cholesterol
Free ions in solution produced as a result of dissolving ionic substances
Van't Hoff factor (i)
The # of ions produced when dissolving 1 molecule of a substance in water
properties that depend on the concentration of solute particles but not on their identity
4 colligative properties
1. vapor pressure lowering
2. boiling point elevation
3. freezing point depression
4. osmotic pressure
Freezing point depression
DeltaT = -kf i m (kf = 1.86)
vapor pressure depression
Higher concentration of solute = lower VP
Boiling point depression
Δ Tb =Kb i m +100
- kb = 0.5
(Mass of solute)/(Kg of solvent)
Osmotic pressure elevation
Pi = i M R T
when comparing two solutions, the solution with the greater concentration of solutes
Movement of water
Which direction do water molecules move in osmosis
Toward the hypertonic side
Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
when comparing two solutions, the solution with the lesser concentration of solutes
pressure that must be applied to prevent osmotic movement across a selectively permeable membrane
Both sides are relatively equivalent in concentration (this is the state that diffusion/osmosis tries to reach)
Osmotic pressure is equal to
Requires NO energy, Movement of molecules from high to low concentration via diffusion
Energy-requiring process that moves material across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient (low to high)
small, nonpolar molecules passing directly through the lipid bilayer (high to low)
process of diffusion in which molecules pass across the membrane through cell membrane channels
3 molecules that user simple diffusion
Pores (facilitative diffusion)
Holes in the membrane that allow things to go through based on size and sometimes charge
Channels (facilitative diffusion)
Very specific about the moplecules they let in
Porters (facilitative diffusion)
Membrane proteins that selectivley transport certain molecules to the other side of the membrane
2 types of active transport
primary active transport and secondary active transport
primary active transport
Active transport that relies directly on the hydrolysis of ATP.
Secondary active Transport
Form of active transport which does not use ATP as an energy source; rather, transport is coupled to ion diffusion down a concentration gradient established by primary active transport.
a carrier protein that uses ATP to actively transport sodium ions (3) out of a cell and potassium ions (2) into the cell
Na+/K+ ATPase pump
1. Maintains osmotic balance
2. Establishes electrical gradient (RMP = approx -70mV)
3. Sets up sodium gradient for secondary active transport
What happens if Na+/K+ pump stops working?
Water will fill the cell until it bursts
A membrane transport process that carries one substance in one direction and another in the opposite direction.
A membrane transport process that carries two substances in the same direction across the membrane.
Peptide signal (ligand)
A water soluble hormone that has to bind to a receptor
microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
Uses: mitotic spindles, intracellular transport, cilia and flagella
Uses: muscle contraction, pseudopod formation, cytokinesis
Protein: 20 different kinds
Uses: cell structure
Desmosomes (intermediate filament)
Anchoring junctions that prevent cells from being pulled apart
tight junctions (intermediate filament)
Membranes of neighboring cells are pressed together, preventing leakage of extracellular fluid
Example of a tight junction
blood brain barrier, blood placental barrier, blood testes barrier, intestinal lumen
(communicating junctions) provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent cells
Where are gap junctions found
Cardiac myocardial, smooth muscle cells, and osteocytes
Standard growth phase (used to repair its genome), possible to slip into G0 phase
A nondividing state occupied by cells that have left the cell cycle, sometimes reversibly
Cell growth to prepare for division
number of sets of chromosomes in a cell
G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase
1. Form mitotic spindle
2. Breakdown the nuclear membrane
3. Condense the chromosomes
Centromeres align along the metaphasic plate
1. Sister chromatids are separated
2. Initiate cytokinesis
1. Cytokinesis finishes
2. Opposite of prophase
normal cellular genes that are important regulators of normal cellular processes, they promote growth
a mutated version of a proto-oncogene, which allows for uncontrolled progression of the cell cycle, or uncontrolled cell reproduction (ALWAYS ACTIVE)
Tumor suppressor gene characteristics (4)
1. Code for proteins that slow down cell reproduction
2. Monitor genome of cells in the cell cycle
How do TS genes activate apoptosis?
Intracellular death signal known as capsases
Example of a capsase
Cytotoxic cytochrome C
regularly found as an inactive zymogen
contains and protects DNA; transcription; partial assembly of ribosomes
produces ATP via the Krebs cycle and OP
location of synthesis/modification of secretory, membrane-bound, and organelle proteins
detoxification and glycogen breakdown in liver; steroid synthesis in gonads
modification and sorting of protein, some synthesis
contain acid hydrolyses that digest various substances
metabolize lipids and toxins using H2O2
Found inside the nucleus and produces ribosomes
composed of 2 lipid bilayer membranes -- separates nucleus from cytoplasm
6 steps of G-protein signal transduction
1. epinephrine binds to G-protein linked receptor
2. cytoplasmic portion of the receptor activates G-proteins resulting in the dissociation of GDP and GTP binds in its place
3. activated G proteins diffuse through the membrane and activate adenylyl cyclase
4. adenylyl cyclase makes cAMP from ATP
5. cAMP activates cAMP-dPK in the cytoplasm
6. cAMP-dPK phosphorylates certain enzymes, with the end result being mobilization of energy
Steps of Mitosis
interphase G1, interphase S, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase & cytokinesis, 2 new cells in interphase
programmed cell death
extracellular/intracellular death signals --> activation of initiator cascades --> activation of effector capsizes --> apoptosis
4 biologically important molecules
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids
polymerization reactions are run via
dehydration synthesis (condensation)
primary protein structure
peptide (covalent) bonds between the free C terminus of one aa and the N terminus of the next aa
secondary protein structure
hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone causes the amino acids to fold into a repeating pattern
tertiary protein structure
due to side chain interactions with in a polypeptide
Types of side chain interactions in tertiary structure
1. polar vs nonpolar
2. acidic vs basic
3. + vs - charges
4. steric hinderance
5. disulfide bridge (covalent)
quaternary protein structure
side chain interactions between different polypeptides
glucose + glucose
glucose + fructose
glucose + galactose
found in animals, used for energy storage
a1,4 and a1,6
found in plants, used for energy storage
found in plants, used for structural purposes
used for energy storage, found in mammals
used in the cell membrane
phospholipids are both polar and non polar so they are _____________
built from isoprene units (at least 2)
functions of squalene
1. cerumen (earwax)
2. vitamin A
3. steroid synthesis
G>0 (non spontaneous)
Energy needed to produce the transition state
high energy states are typically
Enzymes/catalysts do not change the
thermodynamics of a reaction (will not change the Keq)
how do catalysts increase the rate of a reaction
1. stabilizing the transition state
2. cause Ea to decrease
3 characteristics of an enzyme
1. highly specific to reactions
2. lower energy of activation of the reaction
3. not consumed in the course of the reaction
where the substrate binds to the enzyme; where the reaction should take place
4 ways to regulate enzyme activity
1) Covalent Modification
2) Proteolytic Cleavage
3) Subunit regulation
4) Allosteric Regulation
used to turn the enzyme on/off by binding of the molecule to sites on the enzyme that are different from the active site (non covalent and reversible)
covalent modification of enzymes
reversible addition or removal of a chemical group alters enzyme activity
The inactive form of the enzyme (zymogen/proenzyme) is affected by something in its environment and causes cleavage of the peptide bond to activate it.
AKA irreversible covalent modification.
examples of proteolytic cleavage
pepsinogen--> pepsin, fibrinogen--> fibrin
small molecule covalent modifications examples
phosphorylation, acetylation, glycosylation
large molecule covalent modification examples
ADP-reibosulation, glutathionylation, and ubiqiutination.
hydrolyzes chemical bonds (includes ATPases, proteases, and others)
rearranges bonds within a molecule to form an isomer
forms a chemical bond (DNA ligase)
breaks chemical bonds by means other than oxidation or hydrolysis (pyruvate decarboxylase)
transfers a phosphate group to a molecule from a high energy carrier, such as ATP (PFK)
runs redox reactions (includes oxidases, reductases, dehydrogenases, and others)
polymerization (e.g., addition of nucleotides to the leading strand of DNA by DNA polymerase III)
removes a phosphate group from a molecule
transfers a phosphate group to a molecule from inorganic phosphate (glycogen phosphorylase)
hydrolyzes peptide bonds (e.g., trypsin, chymotrypsin, pepsin, etc.)
a mechanism of response in which a stimulus initiates reactions that reduce the stimulus
A type of regulation that responds to a change in conditions by initiating responses that will amplify the change. Takes organism away from a steady state. (labor, cancer)
substance that resembles the normal substrate competes with the substrate for the active site
competitive inhibition effects on Vmax and Km
binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme that prevents the reaction from taking place in the active site
non-competitive inhibition effects on Vmax and Km
binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme-substrate complex
uncompetitive inhibition effects on Vmax and Km
binds to an allosteric site, but binding depends on the enzyme
mixed inhibition effects on Vmax and Km
Km: depends on when it bonds to the enzyme
E + S --> ES complex --> E + P
the double reciprocal graph of the Michaelis-Menten equation
v = (vmax [S])/(Km + [S])
Y intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot
-if you increase the y-intercept, you decrease the Vmax
X-intercept of Lineweaver-Burk plot
-the further to the right the x-intercept (closer to zero), the greater the Km and the lower the affinity
what lifecycle do most mutation repairs take place?
mismatch repair pathway
repairs a non-complementarypair in newly synthesized DNA that polymerases have missed
mismatch repair in prokaryotes
older strand is assumed to be the correct strand and is recognized via methylation
Base and nucleotide excision repair
Exonuclease recognizes and cuts distortion/error.
DNA polymerase inserts complementary nucleotides in missing gap.
DNA ligase seals final "nick."
Homologous end joining
A mechanism of double-strand break repair that uses the double helix of a homologous chromosome to guide accurate repair. (T3P2)
homologous end joining only occurs during
nonhomologous end joining
A quick-and-dirty mechanism for repairing double-strand breaks in DNA that involves quickly bringing together, trimming, and rejoining the two broken ends; results in a loss of information at the site of repair.
Direct reversal of DNA damage (mainly prokaryotes)
nothing is taken out or replaced, just directly repaired on the damaged place
ex. E. coli photo reactivated repair of pyrimidine dimers caused by UV light
4 rules to DNA replication
2. 5' to 3'
3. requires a primer
4. requires a template
puts down RNA primer
replicates DNA, proofreads, removes primer
An enzyme that catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres. The enzyme includes a molecule of RNA that serves as a template for new telomere segments. (should only be active in stem cells)
DNA sequence of telomerase
5' TTAGGG 3'
3 primary types of RNA
1. rRNA (RNA polymerase I)
2. mRNA (RNA polymerase II)
3. tRNA (RNA polymerase III)
transcription is the primary point of regulation for
bond formed between amino acid and tRNA molecule
amino acyl bond
obligate intracellular parasite composed of a protein and a nucleic acid
2 steps to viral life cycle
1. attachment (adsorption)
2. injection (penetration)
Lytic life cycle (bacteriophage)
1. transcribe and translate the viral genome
2. replicate the viral genome
3. lysis of host and release of new viral particles
Lysogenic life cycle (bacteriophage)
1. integrate viral genome with host genome
2. normal host activity, including reproduction
3. excision and lytic cycle
The hemispheres comunicate via the
A region of the cerebral cortex that has specialized areas for movement, abstract thinking, planning, memory, and judgement
A region of the cerebral cortex responsible for hearing and language.
A region of the cerebral cortex whose functions include processing information about touch.
A region of the cerebral cortex that processes visual information
The awareness we have of ourselves, our internal states, and the environment
What controls alertness and arousal
reticular activating system (RAS)
states of consciousness
alertness, sleep, dreaming, altered states of consciousness
Consciousness is always needed to complete
Novel and complex tasks
dopamine reward pathway
Begins in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) of the midbrain and conects to the nucleus accumbens ("pleasure center")
neural system located below the cerebral hemispheres; associated with emotions and drives
4 primary structures of the limbic system
changes in the brain due to learning, thinking, behavior, emotions, etc; change can occur from the cellular level to the anatomical level
Long term potentiation
Changes in the brain due to strengthening connections between neurons
the processing of information into the memory system
the retention of encoded information over time
the process of getting information out of memory storage
Short term memory is also known as
Baddeleys model of working memory
A component of working memory where we repeat verbal information to help us remember it
A component of working memory where we create mental images to remember visual information
A component of working memory where information in working memory interacts with information in long term memory (eg. relating information you are processing to a previous memory)
the part of working memory that directs attention and processing
4 types of encoding
Semantic, acoustic, visual, elaborative
conscious repetition of information
the organization of meanings into something whole and finite, grouping of ideas
linking new information with previously known information
Self reference elaboration
Making information to be remembered personally relevant
Review material over time
memory aids, especially those techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices
Long term memory is divided into
explicit and implicit memory
Explicit (declarative) memory
memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare"; broken into episodic and semantic memory
implicit (nondeclarative) memory
Consists of our skills and conditioned responses; broken into classical conditioning and procedural memory
A category of long-term memory that involves the recollection of specific events, situations and experiences.
a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world
a stimulus that assists in memory retrieval
Occurs when exposure to one stimulus influences the response to another stimulus
Effect of positive priming
Speeds up processing
Effect of negative priming
Slows down processing
Context dependent memory
We are more successful at retrieving memories if we are in the same environment in which we stored them
The theory that information learned in a particular state of mind (e.g., depressed, happy, somber) is more easily recalled when in that same state of mind.
a testing condition in which a person is asked to remember information without explicit retrieval cues
a testing condition in which people are given an explicit retrieval cue to help them remember (short answer)
the ability to match a piece of information or a stimulus to a stored image or fact (multiple choice, faces)
a memory measure that assesses the amount of time saved when learning material for a second time
a clear memory of an emotionally significant moment or event
A highly accurate, verbatim recording of an event.
Method of loci
Memory retention in which an individual uses visualized spatial information to recall lists of words to be memorized
a memory aid that involves linking words with numbers
Memory mistakes in which elements that were not part of the original information get mixed into ("intrude" into) someone's recall.
Competing material makes it more difficult to encode or retrieve information
Information that has already been learned interferes with the ability to learn new info (prior interferes)
New information that has been learned makes it more difficult to retrieve older information (recent interferes)
Semantic memory improves until age _______ then stabilizes
Types of memory that are stable over a lifetime
Implicit, semantic, crystallized intelligence (ability to retrieve general info and use it)
an irreversible, progressive brain disorder, characterized by the deterioration of memory, language, and eventually, physical functioning; impacts hippocampus first
Source monitoring errors
misidentifying the origins of our knowledge
memories for events that never happened, but were suggested by someone or something
incorporating misleading information into one's memory of an event
inability to form new memories
loss of memory from the point of some injury or trauma backwards, or loss of memory for the past
remembering to do something at some future time
Dual coding theory
memory is enhanced by using both semantic and visual codes since either can lead to recall
Levels of processing model
the more deeply an item is encoded, the more meaning it has and the better it is remembered
enhanced memory for adolescence and young adulthood found in people over 40
Improvements in performance resulting from opportunities to perform a behavior repeatedly so that baseline measures can be obtained.
An organism changes the magnitude of its response due to the repeated exposure to a particular stimulus
an organism's decreasing response to a stimulus with repeated exposure to it
an increase in behavioral response after exposure to a stimulus
recovery of a habituated response after a change in stimulation
Classical conditioning (associative learning)
a type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events
discovered classical conditioning; trained dogs to salivate at the ringing of a bell
the tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit similar responses
Discrimination (classical conditioning)
the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus
a type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher
Behaviorist that developed the theory of operant conditioning by conditioning rats
stimulus that is naturally rewarding, such as food or water
any reinforcer that becomes reinforcing after being paired with a primary reinforcer (money)
A punishing stimulus that is based on a physiological need (pain)
a stimulus that has acquired punishing properties through association with other punishers (fines)
type of behavior modification in which desired behavior is rewarded with tokens and can later be exchanged for desirable stimuli
reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed
reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals
reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses
reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses
In operant conditioning, the strengthening of a reinforced response.
Extinction (classical conditioning)
the diminishing of a conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus (US) does not follow a conditioned stimulus (CS); occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced.
the tendency of a learned behavior to recover from extinction after a rest period
learning that results from the reinforcement of successive steps to a final desired behavior
a stimulus that elicits a response after association with reinforcement
A pattern of inheritance in which two alleles, inherited from the parents, are neither dominant nor recessive. The resulting offspring have a phenotype that is a blending of the parental traits.
2 tips you are dealing with non-classical dominance
1. When 2 traits merge
2. Genotype: H^B H^D
A condition in which both alleles for a gene are fully expressed simultaneously
Example of codominance
AB blood type
1. Rh factor is classically dominant
- Rh - (don't have antigen -> recessive)
- Rh + (have antigen -> dominant)
2. Complete blood type is the combination of ABO & Rh genotypes
3. Transfusion reactions
- immune system designed to recognize foreign proteins
a gene at one locus alters the phenotypic expression of a gene at a second locus (example: wavy hair and bald, African American but albino)
Hardy Weinberg Equations
1. p^2+2pq+q^2=1 (genotype frequency)
2. p+q=1 (allele frequency)
- p= frequency of dominant alleles in an entire population
- q = frequency of recessive alleles in an entire population
- q^2 = odds of being homo recessive
- p^2 = odds of being homo dominant
- 2pq = odds of being heterozygous
5 conditions for Hardy Weinberg
1. No mutations
2. Random mating
3. No natural selection
4. Extremely large population size
5. No migration
How long does it take to reach new equilibrium if the old one is disturbed? (Stabilize alllelic frequency)
Genes located close enough together on a chromosome that they tend to be inherited together.
(# of recombinants)/(total # of offspring)
There are significantly more affected _________ than _________ by sex-linked inheritance
Males than females
all genes present in mitochondria come from mother
A wave in which the particles of the medium move perpendicularly to the direction the wave is traveling (light)
A wave in which the vibration of the medium is parallel to the direction the wave travels (sound)
Light does not need a ___________ to travel
a (transverse) wave that consists of oscillating electric and magnetic fields, which radiate outward at the speed of light
Intensity and energy are proportional to the
Square of the wave amplitude (light & sound)
The bouncing back of a wave when it hits a surface through which it cannot pass.
The bending of a wave as it passes at an angle from one medium to another
Index of refraction
the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium (n=c/v)
n1 sintheta = n2 sintheta
the angle of incidence that produces an angle of refraction of 90 degrees
Critical angle equation
Sin c = n2/n1
The bending of a wave as it moves around an obstacle or passes through a narrow opening
The separation of light into its component wavelengths
Occurs when 1 direction of oscillation is priveleged over another, whether by reflection or transmission through a special material or filter
removal of all electric field oscillations except from those along one plane parallel to the direction of propagation (example: sunglasses)
speed of wave equation
v = frequency * wavelength
m = -i/o
1/f = 1/o + 1/i
- concave mirror
- convex lens
- convex mirror
- concave lens
Lens power equation
P = 1/f
secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream via capillaries (ductless)
secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead either to other organs or out of the body (NOT in the bloodstream)
- made from amino acids
- water soluble
- location of receptor: cell surface of recieving cell
- mechanism of action: secondary messengers ( cAMP, cGMP, DAG)
- speed of effects: fast
- longevity of effects: short
- made from cholesterol
- lipid soluble
- nuclear receptor (inside cytoplasm or nucleus)
- mechanism of action: transcription factors
- speed of effects: slow
- longevity of effects: long
thyroid hormone has the characteristics of a _______________ hormone
3 mechanisms to control hormone release
Humoral Hormone Release
blood levels of certain ions or nutrients stimulate hormone release. Ex. low blood calcium release of PTH
hormonal hormone release
a hormone from another gland stimulates or inhibits the release of a second hormone. Ex. hypothalamic/pituitary relationship. (tropic hormones — ACTH)
Neural Hormone Release
nerve fibers stimulate hormone release. Ex. sympathetic stimulation of adrenal medulla to release E and NE.
vasopressin and oxytocin
Made in the hypothalamus but stored and released in the posterior pituitarty (release is triggered by action potential)
Hormones released from the anterior pituitary
Shock (eg Anaphylactic)
Low enough blood pressure, blood vessels can't flow through capillaries.
blood flow pathway
Superior/inferior vena cava -> right atrium -> tricuspid valve-> right ventricle -> pulmonary semilunar valve -> pulmonary artery -> lungs -> pulmonary veins -> left atrium -> bicuspid valve -> left ventricle -> aortic semilunar valve -> aorta -> body
Contraction of the heart
Relaxation of the heart
BP is directly proportional to
1. Cardiac output
2. Peripheral resistance
How much blood is pumped from the heart per minute (HR x Stroke volume)
the opposition to flow that blood encounters in vessels away from the heart
How much blood is pumped per beat
What effects both stroke volume and HR?
Hormones (epinephrine), drugs (uppers), exercise
the constriction of blood vessels (decreased diameter/flow), which increases resistance & blood pressure .
cardiac conduction system
a system of specialized muscle tissues that conducts electrical impulses that stimulate the heart to beat
Cardiac conduction system pathways
1. SA node: controls the atria
2. AV node: signals travel from SA node to ventricles
3. Bundle branches: run through the ventricular septum, connect to terminal purkinje fibers
4. Purkinje fibers: control the ventricles
3 reasons why a conduction system is necessary
Hemoglobin has _______________ binding
The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in
Temp, pH, CO2
RBC's do not have a
Proteins made by the liver that bind to foreign cells
1. Barriers: skin, mucous, blood brain barrier
2. Chemicals: stomach acid, lysozyme, complementary factors
An immune response in which the binding of antibodies to the surface of a microbe facilitates phagocytosis of the the microbe by a macrophage
A molecule that the immune system recognizes either as part of the body or as coming from outside the body.
An antigen-binding immunoglobulin, produced by B cells, that functions as the effector in an immune response.
A disease causing agent
B cells (humoral immunity)
-Activated by antigens and by Helper T cell cytokines
-Proliferate into plasma cells that make antibodies
-Major defense against bacteria, viruses, and other microbes in the extracellular fluid, and against toxins
- produce plasma cells and memory cells
Types of T cells
1. Killer Ts (CD8)
2. Helper Ts (CD4)
Killer T cells
(Cytotoxic) attacks and kills pathogens
Helper T cells
Look at MHC II complexes and release chemokines and cytokines (neutrophils get called in and phagocytose everything)
How do killer T cells find the infected cells?
ALL cells have MHC I complexes on membrane which display proteins Bering made by the cell. If infected with virus, the viral proteins will be on display so the T cells can find it
1. Found on all nucleated cells
2. Allows cells to display intracellular proteins on cell surface
1. Found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
2. Allows cells to display previously phagocytosed things on cell surface
The oxidation state of any element in its standard state is _________
The sum of the oxidation states of atoms in a molecule/ion must always equal
Fluorine has a ____________ oxidation state
Hydrogen has a +1 oxidation state when bonded to __________________________, a -1 if bonded to ________________, and 0 if bonded to _____________.
Something more electronegative than carbon, something less electronegative than carbon, carbon
Oxidation potential are the negative of the ______________________
Donates electrons and becomes oxidized.
Accepts electrons and becomes reduced.
device in which chemical energy from a spontaneous redox reaction is changed to electrical energy that can be used to do work (spontaneous + Ecell)
cell that uses electrical energy to produce a chemical change that would otherwise not occur spontaneously
What occurs at the cathode
Current flow (+ to -)
Metal ions turn into metal coating
What occurs at the anode
Electrons flow from anode
Oxygen produced in aqueous solution in electrolytic cell
A cell in equilibrium has a non-zero _______________
Standard cell potential (due to gradient)
A cell in equilibrium has a _________________________ equal to 0
Actual cell potential
Ecell= E°cell - (RT/nF) (lnQ)
A redox titration where the consumption of iodine indicates titration end point (example: titration of vitamin C)
Alpha decay occurs in atoms with a _____________ nucleus
beta decay and positron emission occur in nuclei with a high ratio of ________
gamma decay occurs in a nucleus in a _________________ state and accompanies _____________________
Excited, nuclear reactions (z=z)
Nuclear reactions are ____________________.
Which type of decay is the most dangerous?
Which type of decay is the least dangerous?
colon, liver, kidney
What organ eliminates hydrophobic waste?
1. Eliminates hydrophilic waste
2. Helps synthesize vitamin D
3. Blood pressure regulation
4. Produces erythropoietin
5. Urine formation
6. Can aid liver in gluconeogenesis
7. Water retention
8. Electrolyte concentration maintenance
9. Blood pH regulation
A hormone produced and released by the kidney that stimulates the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow.
outer layer of the kidney which contains the glomerulus
inner portion of the kidney
cup-like cavities that collect urine (where kidney stones form)
3 processes to produce urine
Moving a substance across a membrane using pressure (amino acids, water, ions, etc.)
How does filtration in the kidney work?
High blood pressure inside the glomerulus will force fluid out of the glomerulus and into the nephron (Bowmans capsule)
proximal convoluted tubule
first section of the renal tubule that the blood flows through; reabsorption of water, ions, and all organic nutrient
What is the ONLY sight where reabsorption of amino acids and glucose occurs?
Proximal convoluted tubules
descending loop of henle
reabsorption of water
Descending loop of henle concentration gradient
Increases as you enter the medulla (300 -> 1200) this results in H2O reabsorption
Descending loop of henle membrane is permeable/impermeable to
Permeable to H2O and impermeable to ions
Ascending loop of henle
reabsorbs Na+ and Cl- from the filtrate into the interstitial fluid (ions become part of the medullary concentration gradient)
Permeable to ions and impermeable to water
Capillary branches that supply loops of Henle in the medulla region of the kidney
tiny blood vessels that travel alongside nephrons allowing reabsorption and secretion between blood and the inner lumen of the nephron
distal convoluted tubule
Between the loop of Henle and the collecting duct; Selective reabsorption and secretion occur here, most notably to regulate reabsorption of water and sodium; also specifically bicarbonate reabsorption
H+ is secreted in the ______________ (kidney)
The portion of the nephron where water reabsorption is regulated via antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
The greater the concentration of blood, the greater the amount of ______________ will be released
Moves a substance from the filtrate to the blood
Contact point between afferent (towards) artery and DCT
What kind of receptor is the afferent artery?
What kind of receptor is the distal tubule?
hormone pathway that increases thirst (increasing aldosterone) and raises blood pressure (vis angiotensin II) if blood volume falls, detected as decreased blood flow to the kidneys
Blood pressure regulation
High BP -> Atria stretches -> R atria releases ANP -> inhibits aldosterone, vasodilator, inhibited renin
physical process of breaking up large fat globules into smaller globules, thereby increasing the surface area that enzymes can use to digest the fat
1. The metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.
2. Excretion of bilirubin, cholesterol, hormones, and drugs.
3. Enzyme activation.
4. Storage of glycogen, vitamins (ADEK), and minerals.
5. Synthesis of plasma proteins, such as albumin, and clotting factors.
6. Blood detoxification and purification.
7. Bile production and secretion.
A muscular sac attached to the liver that secretes bile and stores it until needed for digestion
Pancreas (endocrine function)
Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin
Pancreas (exocrine function)
1. Production, storage, and release of pancreatic digestive enzymes
2. Production, storage, and release of bicarbonate in the small intestine
Enzymes in the pancreas are produced as _____________
Zymogens (activated by trypsin)
3 cells in the gastric gland
1. Mucus cells
2. Parietal cells (make HCl and intrinsic factor)
3. Chief cells (make pepsinogen)
makes the absorption of vitamin B12 happen
3 regions of the small intestine
In a patient with diabetes, the blood concentration is _________________
the distance between electron orbits ____________ as distance from the nucleus increases
electron energy __________ increases as distance from the nucleus increases
What describes the radial distance of an electron's orbit from the nucleus?
principle quantum number (n)
Photon energy equation
E(photon)=hv. the variable e is energy, the variable h is plancks constant and the variable v is frequency.
what occurs when an excited electron returns to a lower energy orbit?
a photon is emitted equal in energy to the energy difference between the energy levels
(T/F) electrons have to return to the ground state in a single transition.
F. single or multiple transitions
Why are there specific energy emissions per energy level?
the energy levels are QUANTIZED
electron energy _____________ with increasing complexity of the orbital shape
How many electrons can each orbital hold?
(Describes carrying capacity) atomic orbitals can hold only 2 electrons at most and they must have opposite spins
An electron occupies the lowest-energy orbital that can receive it and electrons are added to or removed from orbitals of DIFFERENT energy
states that single electrons with the same spin must occupy each equal-energy orbital before additional electrons with opposite spins can occupy the same orbitals and electrons are added to or removed from orbitals of the SAME energy
Pauli Exclusion Principle
No two electrons may be identical which limits the occupancy of an orbital to a maximum of 2
How are electrons added to the orbitals?
lowest to highest energy
What are valence electrons?
electrons in the outermost shell containing the highest energy level
How are electrons removed from the orbitals?
highest to lowest energy
Although 3d is of higher energy than 4s, the valence _________ electrons are removed prior to the non-valence _________ electrons
Atom or substance containing unpaired electrons and is consequently attracted by a magnet.
All electrons are paires
The lowest energy state of an atom
any infinite number of configurations that have higher energy than the lowest energy electron configuration
Rule for excited state configurations
electrons may be in ANY orbital as long as that orbital exists
The valence shell configuration determines _______________
What elements tend to be inert?
noble gases and helium with closed shell configurations
What is an inert gas?
aka 'noble gas': a gas which does not undergo chemical reactions under a set of given conditions. The noble gases often do not react with many substances
Which groups of the periodic table tend to lose 1-2 electrons and become oxidized metal cations?
alkali and alkaline earth metals
Which periodic group tends to gain a single electron, either forming diatomic molecules, or becoming reduced non-metal anions?
What is a group on the periodic table?
What is a period on the periodic table?
Why do valence electrons experience electrostatic attraction?
due to the nucleus, given by Coulombs' law
electric force between charged objects depends on the distance between the objects and the magnitude of the charges. (F proportional (Zeff + C)/r^2) where Z = effective nuclear charge, F is the force acting on electrons, and C is charge in coulombs
What shields valence electrons from full nuclear charge?
effective nuclear charge (Zeff)
the nuclear charge experienced by a valence electron (Zeff = Z-core e-)
What occurs when moving down a periodic group (in relation to Coulomb's law)?
1. core electrons are added at the same rate as protons (Zeff remains constant)
2. the number of valence electrons remains the same (C = 0)
3. the size of the valence shell increases (r increases)
4. Fe decreases
What occurs when moving left to right across a period (in relation to Coulomb's law)?
1. number of core electrons remains constant while protons are added (Zeff increases)
2. valence electrons are added at the same rate as protons (C = 0)
3. the size of the valence shell remains constant (r = 0)
4. Fe increases
What occurs when changing from a positive charge to a negative charge (in relation to Coulomb's law)?
1. number of core electrons and protons remains constant (Zeff remains constant)
2. number of valence electrons increases while the number of protons remain constant (C becomes more negative)
3. the size of the valence shell remains constant (r remains constant)
4. Fe decreases with increasing negative charge
What is the trend for atomic radius?
What represents an atom's volume?
The ionic radius _______________ with increasing negative charge
Valence electron repulsion is slightly ___________ in anions compared to a neutral atom
Valence electron repulsion is slightly _______________ in cations compared to a neutral atom
What is ionization energy?
the minimum amount of energy required to remove the outermost electron from an atom in its gaseous state
Periodic trend: Ionization Energy
As the positive charge on an ion increases, will the ionization energy increase or decrease?
elements with closed shell and closed subshell configurations tend to require _____________ to remove an additional electron
the energy change that occurs when adding an electron to the valence shell of an atom in its gaseous state
Is the addition of an electron to an atom an endothermic or exothermic process in most cases?
As Fe _______________, the addition of electrons will give off more energy
Is the addition of an electron to an element with a closed shell/subshell exothermic or endothermic?
Periodic trend: electron affinity
What is electronegativity?
the ability of an atom to attract electrons to itself in a covalent bond
As Fe increases, the ability to attract electrons ____________
Do metals typically lose or gain electrons in the presence of nonmetals?
Place the elements in order of decreasing electronegativity: C, S, Br, I, F, N, H, Cl, O
F > O > N > Cl > Br > I > S > C = H
What is acidity?
a measure of a compound's ability to lower the pH of a solution, donate protons, or accept electrons
Acidity is dependent on _____________________________________________
relative stability of the acid and its conjugate base
As the stability of the anion produced increases, the acidity of the acid _______________
As the size of the anion increases, the stability _______________
Period Trend: Acidity
increases from left to right, top to bottom
Sociological investigation that concentrates on large-scale phenomena or entire civilizations.
is macrosociology top-down or bottom-up?
What is the premise of macrosociology?
individual's in positions within large scale social structures determine individual human behavior
focuses on the smallest building blocks os society and builds up to larger structures; begins with 1:1 interactions
is microsociology top-down or bottom-up?
What is the premise of microsociology?
human behavior is the result of each individual's interpretation of each social situation
What are the 6 major sociological theories?
2. Conflict theory
3. Symbolic interactionism
4. social constructionism
5. rational choice/social exchange theory
6. feminist theory
What is functionalism?
the theory that all aspects of a society serve a function and work together and are necessary for the survival of that society.
What is the most common analogy of functionalism?
society is like a living cell
Is functionalism a macro or micro level theory?
considered one of the founders of modern sociology, pioneered modern social research and established the field of psychology as separate from psychology/political philosophy
Who is the founder of functionalism?
dynamic equilibrium (sociology)
many independent parts working together to maintain stability. healthy societies can achieve and maintain this equilibrium, unhealthy ones would not.
What causes dysfunction in societies?
what is anomie?
A MISMATCH between societal and personal standards of normalcy that result in the break down of social bonds and exclusion.
intended and recognized consequence of some element of society
the unrecognized and unintended consequences of any social pattern
What are some manifest and latent functions of higher education?
manifest: learning, education, bettering oneself
latent: debt, segregation, increasing distance between social classes
Views society in terms of competing groups that act according to their own self-interests, rather than according to the need for societal equilibrium.
is conflict theory micro or macro
What is the primary concern of conflict theorists?
the imbalance of wealth, power, and prestige among major groups in society and how such imbalances competitively advantage the haves vs have-nots resulting in a class struggle
considered a founder of modern sociology, his theories about economy, society, and politics form the foundation of conflict theory
What was Marx's view on capitalism?
it is an economic system that encourages private ownership in order to produce profit and thereby wealth ultimately leading to inequality and worker revolutions resulting in a replacement of capitalism with socialism
an economic system in which most means of production are publicly (government) owned in order to benefit all members of society equally
How did Marx define class consciousness?
a social condition in which members os a subordinate class are actively aware of themselves as a group who is being exploited by the wealthy
How did Marx define false consciousness?
a lack of awareness of one's class
When does false consciousness occur?
when members of a subordinate class see themselves instead of as an exploited group
considered a founder of modern sociology, contended that modern societies are becoming increasingly rational and bureaucratic
What was the relationship between Karl Marx and Max Weber?
Max Weber refined many of Karl Marx's assertions about conflict in society
rationalization of society
Weber's term for the historical change from tradition to rationality as the main type of human thought
a system of government in which most of the important decisions are made by non-elected state officials
What beliefs are the basis of symbolic interactionism?
1. ideas and beliefs can exert a very powerful effect on society
2. people base their actions on their personal interpretation of the meaning of the world around them
people act toward things based on the meaning those things have for them, and these meanings are derived from social interaction and modified through interpretation.
Is symbolic interactionism micro or macro?
culturally derived social objects that have shared meanings, which are created and maintained through social interaction
what is the central theme of symbolic interactionism?
human life is lived in the symbolic domain; through language and communication, symbols provide the means by which reality is constructed
George Herbert Mead
Developed Symbolic Interactionism. Believed development of individual was a social process as were the meanings individuals assigned to things
Mead asserted the self is developed in 3 stages: (name them)
1. preparatory stage (0-2)
2. play stage (2-6)
3. game stage (7+)
preparatory stage (Mead)
imitating w/out understanding their behavior
play stage (Mead)
learn to play the roles of others (pretend to be mom, doctor, firefighter)
game stage (Mead)
children begin to understand the generalized other
generalized other (Mead)
What will others think?
Looking Glass Self (Charles Cooley)
a self-image based on how we think others see us
a sociological theory that argues that people actively shape their reality through social interaction; it is therefore something that is constructed, not inherent
What is a social construct?
a concept or practice everyone in a society agrees to treat a certain way regardless of inherent value (different across culture, history, etc.)
What are some social constructs in the US?
gender, marriage, religion, laws, paper currency
What is socialization?
the dynamic, ongoing process by which an individual internalizes the values, beliefs, and norms of their society and learns to function as a member of that society
Is social constructionism macro or micro?
can be either
Rational Choice Theory
suggests individuals make decisions by comparing the costs and benefits of various courses of action; we try to maximize benefits and reduce costs
social exchange theory
suggests individuals assign rewards and punishments to interaction and prefer those with the greatest personal benefit
Are social exchange theory and rational choice theory macro or micro?
a theoretical approach that looks at gender inequities in society and the way that gender structures the social world
is feminist theory macro or micro?
can be either
First Wave Feminism
right to vote; right to divorce; right to property
Second Wave Feminism
gender equality, equal pay, reproductive rights
Third Wave Feminism
focuses on intersectionality and the shortcomings of the second wave
the study of how different social identities such as gender, race, class, etc interact
the extent to which we can say the change in the dependent variable is due to intervention
What are the common threats to internal validity?
1. impression management
2. confounding variables
3. lack of reliability
4. sampling bias
5. attrition effects
participants adapt responses based on social norms or perceived research expectations; self-fulfilling prophecy
extraneous variables not accounted for in the study; another variable offers alternative explanation of the results
Lack of Reliability
measurement tools do not measure what they purport to, lack of consistency
selection criteria is not random
participant fatigue resulting in drop-out
What is external validity?
the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized to other situations and to other people
What are threats to external validity?
1. experiment doesn't affect real world
2. selection criteria
3. situational effects
4. lack of statistical power
variable that is manipulated (x)
variable that is measured (y)
acceleration of an object toward the center of a curved or circular path
centripetal acceleration formula
centripetal force formula
Is centripetal force a physical force?
no, it's a result of then net physical force
Forces that act perpendicular to the velocity cannot change the _____________
What is torque?
The ability of a force to cause rotation around an axis.
or torque = Fd
is torque a vector or scalar quantity?
when is torque maximized?
sin 90 =1
What is the direction of torque?
clockwise (-) /counterclockwise (+)
If nothing is angularly accelerating, what is the net torque?
In static equilibrium what is the net torque and the net force?
W = Fd cos(theta)
What are the units of work?
N*m = J
What is work?
a measure of the how much force contributes to the displacement of an object
Is work a vector or scalar quantity?
Can work be negative?
Work will be negative whenever a force reduces an object's energy or when the force & direction of motion are in opposite direction (90 deg < theta < 180 deg)
the force that opposes the movement of two surfaces that are in contact and are moving over each other
the work done by kinetic friction is always ______________
the work done by centripetal force is ____________
0, always perpendicular to motion
the work done by normal force is ________________
usually 0, is perpendicular to motion if the surface isn't moving
gravity is a ____________ force
Work done by gravity formula
What is power?
the rate at which work is done
formula for power
What are the units of power?
J/s = (kg*m^2)/s^3 = Watts
What is the formula for a constant force parallel to a constant velocity?
energy of motion
What are the units of kinetic energy?
kg*(m2/s2) = J
Is kinetic energy scalar or vector?
What is energy?
the ability to do work
kinetic energy formula
Work is a transfer of ____________
Total work done on a object is equal to ____________
stored energy that results from the position or shape of an object
Near the surface of the earth, ΔPEgravity = ____________
ΔPEgravity = mgΔh
ΔPE <0 when ____________
spontaneous changes to the system are made
When only conservative forces are doing work ____________________________________ is conserved.
total mechanical energy
What are the conservative forces?
gravity, electrostatic force, spring force
What are conservative forces?
They are path independent forces that do not dissipate the mechanical energy of a system and are associated with potential energies
kinetic friction and drag are examples of ____________ forces
nonconservative forces ALWAYS do _______________ work
Conservation of Mechanical Energy formulas (3)
ΔKE = -ΔPE
ΔKE + ΔPE = 0
Nonconservative force formulas
KEi + PEi + Wnc = Kef + PEf
Wnc = ΔE
what is the function of a simple machine?
reduce the amount of force required to do something
Force of gravity on an inclined plane equations
Fg(II) = mg sin(theta)
Fg(T) = mg cos(theta)
A pulley is used to reduce the force required to lift something by a factor _____________________
equal to the number of pulleys
What is mechanical advantage?
the factor by which force can be reduced when using a simple machine
mechanical advantage formula
output force/input force
What is efficiency?
the percentage of the work input that becomes work output
Work output/work input x 100% (always <1 unlike MA)
Steps to Drawing a Lewis Dot Structure
1. count the valence electrons
2. Arrange the atoms with the least electronegative atom in the center (C always goes to the center, H never does)
3. connect each atom with one line
4. add pairs of electrons to all non-hydrogen atoms until each has 8 (start with the most electronegative)
5. if there are remaining electrons, add them in pairs to the central atom
6. if there are missing octets, form db/tb
7. assign formal charges
Formal charge equation
FC = (valence electrons) - (1/2 bonding electrons) - (lone pair electrons)
How to count groups of electrons
each lone pair and each bond count as a group (all bonds: triple, double, single, count as 1)
2 groups of electrons
Example of linear geometry
3 groups of electrons
sp2 trigonal planar
example of trigonal planar
4 groups of electrons
Example of tetrahedral
molecular geometry of AX4
molecular geometry of AX3E
molecular geometry of AX2E2
How are chemical bonds formed?
electrons are shared between 2 atoms as their orbitals overlap
The strength of a chemical bond increases as the shared electron count _______________ and the distance between atoms ____________
breaking a bond is ALWAYS an ___________________ process
stronger bonds = ___________________ bond dissociation energies
Covalent bonds are formed between _______________ with high electronegativity
Compounds with _________________ bonds are insulators and rigid
metallic bonds are formed between metals with low __________________________
Compounds with __________________ bonds are conductors and malleable
When are coordinate covalent bonds formed?
between atoms with lone pairs and electron deficient species
example of a coordinate covalent bond
formed between oppositely charged ions
Compounds with _____________ bonds are insulators and brittle when solid
An ionic compound whose aqueous solution conducts an electric current
When are intermolecular attractions produced?
when particles of opposite charge attract each other
IMF strength increases as the charge of a particle _____________
Does particle size affect IMF
an intermolecular force between an ion and the oppositely charged end of a polar molecule
The larger the ionic charge and the larger the dipole the larger the _______________
forces of attraction between polar molecules
Are dipole forces easily broken?
Where is Dipole-Dipole found?
aligned along the permanent MOLECULAR dipole
a weak attraction that results when a polar molecule induces a dipole in an atom or in a nonpolar molecule by disturbing the arrangement of electrons in the nonpolar species
Is it easy to cleave a dipole-induced dipole?
London dispersion forces (induced-dipole induced-dipole forces)
the intermolecular attraction resulting from the uneven distribution of electrons and the creation of temporary dipoles
How are London dispersion forces produced?
produced by collisions that produce small dipoles by deforming the electron cloud
Are dispersion forces weak or strong?
Hydrogen bonds are produced between
VERY polar molecules
Where are hydrogen bonds aligned during formation?
along the permanent bond dipole
energy stored within chemical bonds or any attractive force
What is the ΔH if the system is exothermic?
What is the ΔH if the system is endothermic?
Change in Enthalpy (ΔH)
the difference between what is stores in the reactants vs the products
forming bonds is always
enthalpy is a __________ function
state function (physics)
a property of the system that changes independently of its pathway
A measure of disorder or randomness.
entropy increases as randomness _______________
Free energy (G)
energy available to do work
A spontaneous process is _________
exergonic (ΔG = -)
A non spontaneous process is _____________
endergonic (ΔG = +)
Gibbs free energy equation
ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
What is heat?
transfer of non-mechanical energy between a system and the environment
What is temperature?
macroscopic measurement of the average internal (thermal) energy of a system
Is KE proportional to Temp?
doesn't depend on the amount of a material (ie. color, density, temperature)
T/F Adding heat to a system always increases temperature
Zeroeth Law of Thermodynamics
heat transfer will occur between two substances until they achieve the same temperature (thermal equilibrium)
3 models of heat transfer
Heat transfer by direct contact
heat transfer through fluid circulation
heat transfer through emission/absorption of electromagnetic energy
___________________ depends upon how much heat energy is transferred into the system and how much work the system does on its surroundings
internal energy of a closed system
first law of thermodynamics
Energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.
internal energy of a system equation (physics)
W < 0 if work is done on the system
W > 0 when the system does positive work
ideal gas law
PV = nRT
What are the 4 reversible pathways used (alone or in combination) to transition from one state to another
no heat transfer
What is pressure?
distribution of force over area
units of pressure
N/m^2 = Pa
Is pressure a vector or a scalar?
isobaric process equation
First law of thermodynamics (Isobaric) equation
ΔE = Q - PΔV
First law of thermodynamics (isochoric) equation
ΔE = Q
First law of thermodynamics (isothermal) equation
Q = W
First law of thermodynamics (adiabatic) equation
ΔE = -W
second law of thermodynamics
entropy of an isolated system either stays the same or increases during any thermodynamic process
What would cause the entropy of a closed system to decrease?
if the entropy of the surrounding environment increased by a greater amount
In a thermodynamic system, it is (impossible/possible) to convert all heat into work
What type of system is the human body?
and OPEN system, it has exchange with the environment
What is a fluid?
a material that flows/takes the shape of its container when at rest (ie. liquid/gases)
weight of a fluid formula
W = pVg
density of water
specific gravity formula
units of density
Hydrostatic gauge pressure
Pressure due to being immersed within a fluid; assumes that gauge is zeroed at the surface of the fluid
hydrostatic gauge pressure formula
the force exerted up on any object either partially or completely submerged in a fluid
the buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object
Archimedes' Principle formula
Bouyant force equation
Fw = p(object)Vg
volume of fluid moving through a particular cross-sectional area per unit time
units of flow rate
flow rate formula
f = Av
for an incompressible fluid, flow rate is constant through the pump
How does decreasing the area affect flow speed
A1v1 = A2v2
4 characteristics of an ideal fluid
2. negligible viscosity
3. laminar (streamline) flow
4. steady flow rate
increase velocity=decrease pressure
List the IMFs from strongest to weakest
ion-dipole > H bonds > dipole-dipole > induced-dipole > London dispersion
Liquid to gas
Gas to liquid
solid to liquid
liquid to solid
solid to gas
gas to solid
the temperature and pressure conditions at which the solid, liquid, and gaseous phases of a substance coexist at equilibrium
the temperature and pressure at which the gas and liquid states of a substance are no longer distinct
what is density?
a measure of how condensed a substance is
External pressure is _______________ proportional to density
External temp is __________ proportional to density
IMF is ______________ proportional to density
the science of measuring changes to determine heat transfer
phase change equation
q = nΔHphase change
PE of a substance ________ as IMF's break
Heating Curve (Temperature Change) equation
q = mcΔT
specific heat (c)
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 degree celcius
unit of heat capacity
J/deg C = J/K
the force exerted by the gas particles that vaporize from a solid or liquid sample
What effect does external P have on Pvap?
External T is _____________ proportional to Pvap
IMF is ______________ proportional to Pvap
Pvap = Patm
external P is ____________ proportional to bp
IMF is _______________ proportional to bp
melting point/freezing point is the temperature at which ______________________________________
fusion/crystallization phase transitions occur
what is a solution?
A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances
A mixture in which substances are evenly distributed throughout
the substance that is dissolved in solution
the substance in which the solute dissolves
A solute can be a _____________, ________________, or _________________
strong electrolyte (complete dissociation)
weak electrolyte (partial dissociation)
non-electrolyte (no dissociation)
How do electrolytes dissolve in water?
Agitation (endothermic) -> dissociation (endothermic) -> solvation (exothermic)
How do polar non-electrolytes dissolve in water?
agitation (endothermic) -> solvation (exothermic)
How do nonpolar non-electrolytes dissolve in water?
the amount of a substance that can dissolve in a specific solvent at a specific temperature
A solution is _________________ if the concentration < solubility (additional solute can dissolve)
a solution is __________________ if the concentration = solubility
A solution is __________________ if the concentration > solubility (additional solute causes precipitate)
liquid/solid solubility is ______________ proportional to temperature
Does pressure affect solubility of solids/liquids?
gaseous solubility is ____________ proportional to pressure
gaseous solubility is _________________ proportional to temperature
Group I ions are _____________ soluble
ALWAYS (H+, NH4+, NO3-, CH3COO-, ClO4-)
Ag+, Pb2+, Hg2+, Pb4+, Hg2 2+, CO3 2-, PO4 3-, S2-
electrolytes usually insoluble in water
Does an ideal gas have IMF's?
4 properties of an ideal gas
1. negligible volume compared to container size
2. KEavg proportional to T
3. elastic collisions between particles and container walls
4. favored with high T and low P
The volume of an ideal gas is proportional to the _______________________ at a given P and T
number of particles in the container
How many liters are occupied by an ideal gas at STP?
Boyle's Law Formula
P1V1=P2V2 (P is inversely related to V)
Charle's Law formula
V1/T1=V2/T2 (T is directly proportional to V)
Gay-Lussac's Law formula
P1/T1=P2/T2 (P is directly proportional to T)
Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressures of all the gases in the mixture
the partial pressure of a gas is proportional to its ___________________
What is affected by a catalyst?
A catalyst increases the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions, and it does this by lowering the activation energy.
What are the 3 major factors affecting a reaction's kinetics?
temperature, reactant concentrations, and Ea
how does stirring affect reaction rate?
stirring the reaction will increase the amount of collisions therefor increasing reaction rate
What is the function of telomerase?
Lengthens the ends of chromosomes where primate is unable to bind
Prokaryotic energy source for transcription is ___________
Eukaryotes use __________ ribosomes for translation. Prokaryotes use _________ & _______ ribosomes for translation.
30s & 50s = 70s
ribosome binding site in prokaryotes
Ribosome binding site in Eukaryotes
mRNA start codon (AUG) codes for N-formylmethionine in prokaryotes that stimulates neutrophil chemotaxis
Maintains prokaryotic DNA in its supercooled helical state
Small fragments of DNA produced on the lagging strand during DNA replication, joined later by DNA ligase to form a complete strand.
An enzyme encoded by certain viruses (retroviruses) that uses RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. (5 to 3)
What produces a strand of DNA in the 5' to 3' direction?
Eukaryotic DNA polymerase, Prokaryotic DNA polymerase III, reverse transcriptase
Enzyme that functions in DNA replication, helping to relieve strain in the double helix ahead of the replication fork.
Detects a specific sequence of RNA using DNA
Detects a specific sequence of DNA using DNA
Detects a specific protein within a sample using a primary antibody
Detects protein post translational modification
screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in the bloodstream (protein)
Which direction do proteins migrate in western blotting?
Towards the +
Steps to synthesizing a polypeptide
1. DNA generates mRNA
2. mRNA Moves to the ribosomes
3. tRNA anticodon binds to mRNA codon causing amino acid polymerization
Occurs when recombination occurs between non-homologous chromosomes and previously unrelated genes are now placed together
What are the requirements for a complex transposon?
Contains an IS (insertion) element and 1+ genes
2 IS (insertion) elements and an intervening sequence
Eukaryotic DNA is initially transcribed as _________ then spliced to form mRNA
Method of DNA repair- fixes a small mutation by cleaving the side chains, no base removal (example: Photoreactivation)
homologous recombination as a repair mechanism
Used with double strand breaks
What is a difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation?
The mechanism by which ribosomes recognize the 5' end of mRNA
adult male chicken
sugar + base
A building block of DNA, consisting of a five-carbon sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.
DNA that is densely packed around histones. The genes in heterochromatin are generally inaccessible to enzymes and are turned off.
The ENCODING of physical energy from the environment
The DECODING (selection, organization, interpretation) of sensations
The study of how physical stimuli are translated into psychological experience.
the lowest level of a stimulus we can detect 50% of the time
What is the JND?
Just Noticeable Difference. The minimum change in stimulation required to detect the difference between two stimuli
The size of the JND is a constant proportion of the original stimulus value
signal detection theory
the response to a stimulus depends both on a person's sensitivity to the stimulus in the presence of noise and on a person's response criterion
Type I error
Type II error
Feature detection theory
We activate different areas of the brain when looking at different features of an image
the processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously
Inability to process sensory information
perceptual organization (Gestalt)
the process by which stimuli are organized into meaningful units
A region of the cerebral cortex that processes visual information
Balance and coordination
Respond to low levels of light at all wavelengths of the visible spectrum
Do rods or cones function best in bright light conditions?
Law of Simplicity (Gestalt)
Patterns are seen in the simplest way possible
Law of Similarity (Gestalt)
Similar things are grouped together
Law of Good Continuation (Gestalt)
elements that appear to follow the same pathway tend to be grouped together
Law of Proximity (Gestalt)
elements close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit
Law of Common Fate (Gestalt)
Things moving in the same direction appear to be grouped together
Law of Familiarity (Gestalt)
Things are more likely to form groups if the groups appear familiar/meaningful
cocktail party effect
Ability to concentrate on one voice amongst a crowd
Treisman's Attenuation Model
Accounts for cocktail party effect
Attenuating filter "turns down" volume of unattended message, but it still enters working memory
Broadbent's Filter Model
Early-selection model which filters message before incoming information is analyzed for meaning
a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information
Piaget's Stages of Cognitive Development
1. Sensorimotor (0-2 mo)
2. Preoperational (2-6 y)
3. Concrete operational (7-11 y)
4. Formal Operational (12+ y)
Object permanance, stranger anxiety
Pretend play, egocentrism
Formal operational milestone
Abstract logic, moral reasoning
a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms
a tendency to search for information that confirms one's preconceptions
contractile unit of a muscle fiber
A dark thin protein band to which actin filaments are attached in a striated muscle fiber, marking the boundaries between adjacent sarcomeres.
I band of sarcomere
contains only thin actin filaments
A band of sarcomere
contains all of the thick myosin filaments plus any overlapping thin actin filaments
Which zone/band of a sarcomere shortens during contraction?
I band and H zone
H zone of sarcomere
contains thick filaments of myosin only
Sliding filament theory
1. Myosin binds to actin (cross bridge formation)
2. Myosin pulls actin toward the center of sarcomere (no ATP)
3. Myosin releases actin (requires ATP)
4. Myosin resets to high energy conformation (requires ATP hydrolysis)
In order for myosin to bind to actin
Ca2+ must be present to bind to troponin & myosin must be in a high energy state
What causes muscle contraction to stop?q
1. No more Ca 2+ ions for troponin
2. No more ATP
3. No more I band or H zone for contraction
Pumps blood, located in the heart, uninucleate, striated
constricts hollow tubes/glands, uninucleate, non-striated
The central cavity of bone shafts where yellow marrow is stored.
porous bone underneath compact bone layer on epiphysis (end of long bone) contains red marrow
What are the effects of parathyroid hormone on bone turnover?
1. increases blood (Ca2+)
2. breaks down hydroxyapatite
3. vitamin D increases absorption
4. increases reabsorption
What are the effects of calcitonin on bone turnover?
1. decrease blood (Ca2+)
2. increase bone deposition
3. decrease absorption
4. decrease reabsorption
Type I cells
simple squamous epithelial cells. which allow for gas exchange in alveoli
Type II cells
produce surfactant, a phospholipid that alters the surface tension of alveoli, preventing their collapse during expiration and limiting their expansion during inspiration
supports mixture and allows compounds to be retained
carries mixture of compounds to be separated
Which size of compounds elute first in size-exclusion chromatography
Which compounds travel farther on a TLC plate?
Rf value equation for TLC
(migration distance of compound)/(distance of solvent front)
What is retained in column chromatography?
Normal phase HPLC
polar stationary phase, non-polar mobile phase (most NP elutes first)
Reverse phase HPLC
nonpolar stationary phase, polar mobile phase (most polar elute first)
What is retained in cation-exchange resin?
What is retained in anion-exchange resin?
to elute target protein, add competitive antibody binding protein
metal ion affinity chromatography
stationary phase is resin linked to Ni2+ ions
mobile phase is protein tagged with his-tag, which binds Ni
elute target protein by changing pH
separates based on volatility/boiling point (compounds with lowest bp elute first)
How does branching of a molecule affect boiling point?
a separation technique that is based on differences in the boiling points of the substances involved
simple vs fractional distillation
simple: used to remove impurities, BP difference is > 30 deg C (water from seawater)
fractional: used for separating diastereomers, BP difference is < 30 deg C (crude oil separation)
isomers that are mirror images of each other
What is UV-VIS Spectroscopy used for?
indicates the presence of a conjugated pi system
indicated functional groups present in a molecule (does not indicate where groups are located or how many)
Are solids included in the rate law?
electron pair acceptor
What kind of bonds are formed between Lewis acid-base?
coordinate covalent bond
Lewis bases are
electron pair donor
2 other names for a Lewis base
Strecker amino acid synthesis
Nonstereoselective synthesis of aa from aldehyde
- synthesis includes imine formation (nucleohpilic addition)
How to separate enantiomers?
Gabriel Malonic Ester Synthesis
A method of synthesizing amino acids that uses potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalonate followed by an alkyl halide; two substitution reactions are followed by hydrolysis and decarboxylation.
6 strong acids
HCl, HBr, HI, HNO3, H2SO4, HClO4 (pKa < 0 so Ka > 1)
Carboxylic acid side chain has pKa of
Amine side chain has pKa of
Weak acids have a pKa
PKa > 0 & Ka < 1
pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]
When pH > pKa, a group wil be (protonated/deprotonated)?
Overall charge of 0
The pH at which an amino acid has no net charge (average of pKa surrounding zwitterion)
Peptide bond formation AND hydrolysis are (spontaneous/nonspontaneous)?
Desaturation disrupts a protein's 3D structure without breaking _________________
Nurse the development of spermatocytes through spermatogenesis
Leading cells (interstitial cells)
Sperm Pathway in the Male
Seminiferous tubules -> rete testis -> vas deferens -> epididymis -> vas deferens -> urethra
Males have what kind of developmental ducts
Females have what kind of developmental ducts
Mullerian ducts (default)
enzyme lacking cofactor (inactive)
Enzyme with its cofactor (active) -> tightly bound (not covalent)
Transition state analog
resembles the transition-state structure of the normal enzyme-substrate complex
Is a positive reduction value spontaneous or non-spontaneous?
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