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A&P

Terms in this set (249)

Automonic motor nns regulate visceral activities by?
1. increasing activies in effector tissues
2. decreasing activities in effector tissues
3. allowing bidirectional conduction across synapses.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 1 & 2
d) 3
e) 1, 2, 3
1 & 2
Interoceptors can detect what sensations - select al that apply

blood gas levels
stretch of organ walls
grilled steak aroma
taste of chocolate
px
Blood gas levels
stretch of organ walls
px
ANS is involved in controlling what effects
sm mm
cardiac mm
glands (endocrine glands + exocrine glands)
A postganlionic nn in the ANS:

a) release NT that binds to the effector cell
b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway
c) has its cell body in the brain or SC
d) has its axons exiting the CNS through the CN
e) carries info into the sympathetic chain
releases NT that binds to effector cells (NT = NE hormone = E)
Which nn would normally have the shortest axons?
Preganglionic sympathetic nns

Postganglion parasympathetic nns
What structures are Dually innervated?

a) radial iris mm
b) spleen
c) adipose tissue
d) most BVs
e) stomach
Stomach

(Radial iris mm = symp)
(Spleen = symp)
(adipose tissue = None)
(BVs = Symp)

(SKABAS = Symp: Sweat glands/ Kidneys/ Arrector Pilli/ BVs/ Adrenals/ Spleen)

(SLUDD = Para: Salivation/ Lacrimation/ Urination/ Digestion/ Defecation)
Which Parasympathetic terminal ganglion is associated with the parotid salivary gland?

a) ciliary ganglion
b) Pterygopalatine ganglion
c)Submandibular ganglion
d) Otic Ganglion
Otic (CN 9 Glossopharyngeal )

( Ciliary = CN 3 = cililary mm)
(Pterygopalatine (Lacrimal + Nasal + Palatine glands) + Submanindubular (Salivary) = CN 7)
What CN innervates the Parotid gland?
CN 9 glossopharyngeal

(CN 7 goes through the parotid gland)
Which parasympathetic terminal ganglion is associated with the parotid salivary gland?
Otic ganglion (CN 9 - Glossopharyngeal)
What is the Largest Autonomic plexus called?

a) sup mensentric plexus
b) renal plexus
c) cardiac plexus
d) celiac plexus
e) hypogastic plexus
Celiac plexus (aka Solar plexus = 2 Celiac + Aorticorenal ganglia)
Which autonomic plexus serves the large intestines?
Inf + sup mensentric plexus
What are the 2 main NT of the ANS?
NE + ACh

(Norepienphrine + Acetylcholine)
AcH is always released by ______ postganlionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic cleft at a ______ rate than norepinephrine
parasympathetic
faster
Cholinergic receptors include:
nicotinic & muscarinic receptors (Both accept ACh)

(Nicotinic = chromaffin cells + MNJ)

(Muscarinic = sweat glands)
Autonomic tone is regulated by the

a) MO
b) Cerebellum
c) Vermis
d) Hypothalamus
e) Cerebrum
Hypothalamus (regulates body temp + emotions too)
Matching Symp vs Para:

1) Innervates Sweat glands

2) Stimulates urine & Defecation

3) Innervates sex organs

5) increases gastric motility
1) symp

2) Para

3) Both

4) Para (increase digestion)
Neurons leaving the sup cervical ganglion primarily serve what regions of the body?
Heart & Head
What sympathetic ganglion supplies the stomach w/ postganglion nn?
Celiac ganglion
Which CNs contain preganglionic nns for the parasympathetic motor pathway to the salivary glands?
CN 7 (Facial = submandibular + Pterygopalatine) + CN 9 (Glossopharngeal = parotid gland)
Parasympathetic innervations of the Liver occurs through:

a) CN 3
b) CN 7
c) CN 9
d) CN 10
e) Pelvic splanchnic nn
CN 10
In a sympathetic division motor pathway, which NT is released at the kidneys?
NE

(NE is a NT & Hormone & E is a hormone only)
Increased Parasymapathetic stimulation will cx:

a) Bronchoconstriction
b) Bronchodilation
c) Pupil Dilation
d) increased heart rate
Bronchoconstriction
T or F:

Pons contains apneustic & pneumotaxic centres that help control breathing
T
The MO:

a) is the site of decussation of the corticospinal tract
b) is involved in regulation of HR & BP
c) Sets the basic rhythm of respiration
d) all of the above
all of the above
Which Beta & Alpha is excitatory?
Beta 2 + Alpha 2 = Excitatory

(Beta 1 + Alpha 1 = Inhibitory)
Splanchnic nns are primarily:

a) sympathetic preganglionic fibers
b) parasympathetic preganglionic fibers
c) sympathetic post ganglionic fibers
d) parasympathetic post ganglionic fibers
sympathetic preganglionic fibers (synapse with Prevertebral ganglia - CSI Agent Renal)
What are the name for the parasympathetic autonomic ganglion?
Terminal (aka Intramural) ganglia

(COPS = ciliary/ Otic/ Pterygopalatine/ Submandibular ganglia)
Cholinergic nn release ____ & Adrenergic nn release ______
ACh
NE
Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?

a) Parasympathetic nn system
b) Sympathetic nn system
c) Somatic nn system
d) CNS
Sympathetic
What NT is released from sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons?

a) Adrenergic
b) Cholinergic
c) Nicotinic
d) Muscarinic
Adrenergic (Release NE = 2 types Alpha 1 + Beta 1 [excitatory] & Alpha 2 + Beta 2 [inhibitory])

(Cholinergic = Nicotinic & Muscarinic = accepts ACh)
What Spinal Reflex has Contralateral reflex arch?

a) Stretch Reflex
b) Tendon Reflex
c) Flexor reflex
d) cross extensor reflex
Cross Extensor Reflex (ONLY one to have contralat reflex arch)

(All others are ipsilateral reflex arc)
Which Spinal reflex does not have reciprocal innervation ?

a) Stretch Reflex
b) Tendon Reflex
c) Flexor reflex
d) cross extensor reflex
Stretch reflex

(only one that does NOT + it is the only one that is Monosynpatic)
Where is the integrating centers found for a reflex?

a) grey mater
b) white mater
c) hypothalamus
Grey mater

(5 Essential components of a reflex arch: 1 = Sensory receptor 2 = sensory nn = 3 Integration center (grey mater in CNS) 4 = Motor neuron 5 = Effector: bodies response)
This studies functional changes associated with dz & aging:

a) Physiology
b) embryology
c) pathophysiology
d) pathology
pathophysiology
What Tract conveys px & thermal sensations?

a) Lateral spinothalamic
b) Anterior spinothalamic
c) Posterior column
d) Medial lemniscus
lateral spinothalamic
What tract conveys itch, tickel, pressure, crude touch?
a) Lateral spinothalamic
b) Anterior spinothalamic
c) Posterior column
d) Medial lemniscus
Anterior spinothalamic
Which tract conveys touch/ light pressure/ vibrations/ conscious proprioception but NOT Temperature?

a) Lateral spinothalamic
b) Anterior spinothalamic
c) Posterior column
d) Medial lemniscus
Posterior column
What 2 tracts are made up of the posterior column?

a) Direct & indirect Pathways
b) Gracile fasciculus + Cuneate fasciculus
c) Anterolateral pathways
d) Rubrospinal + Tectorspinal tract
Cuneate fasciculus (Upper body)
Gracilie Fasciculus (Lower Body)
What motor pathways convey input to LMNs from the Cerebral Cortex?

a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Spinocerebellar
d) Posterior column
Direct (Corticospinal tracts = voluntary skeletal mvmts)
What motor pathways convey input to LMNs from Centers of the Brain?

a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Spinocerebellar
d) Posterior column
Indirect (Rubrospinal tract + Tectospinal tract + Vestibulospinal tract + Lat & med Reticulospinal tract = involuntary autonomic mvmt)
What spinal nn branch re-enters the vertebral canal?

a) Dorsal Ramus
b) Ventral Ramus
c) Meningeal ramus
d) Rami Communicates
Meningeal ramus
What attaches the cerebellum to the brain stem?

a) peduncles
b) tentori cerebelli
c) Corpus collosum
peduncles
What produces CSF & Reabsorbs it?
Choroid plexus (produce it)
Arachnoid vili (reabsorb it)
Parasympathetic innervation of the Liver occurs through?

a) CN 3 Oculomotor
b) CN 7 Facial
c) CN 9 Glossopharyngeal
d) CN 10 Vagus
Vagus
What divides the SC into R & L halves?

a) White Column
b) Grey Mater
c) Ant median fissure + Post median sulcus
Ant median fissure + Post median sulcus
What reflexes are Monosynaptic?

a) Patellar + Achilles tendon reflex
b) GTO release
c) Flexor withdrawal reflex
Patellar + Achilles tendon (DTR = Stretch reflex = only one that is monosynaptic)
Describe the Depolarization phase?

a) Inflow of Na+ into a cell
b) Inflow of K+ into a cell
c) Outflow of Na+ into a cell
d) Outflow of K+ into a cell
Inflow of Na+ into a cell

(Resting membrane = -70 mV - AP arrives at synaptic end bulb & Na+ rushes into the cell until it reaches Threshold which is -55 mV)
Transection of a nn, degeneration only extends to the 1st node of Ranvier, this is what type of degeneration?

a) wallerian degeneration
b) axon al degeneration
c) retrograde degeneration
retrograde degeneration (prox to the injury)
What innervations does intrafusal mm fibers of mm spindle have?

a) gamma motor nn
b) alpha motor nn
c) LMN's
d) UMN's
gamma motor nn

(Extrafusal mm fibers = alpha motor nn for mm spindle too)
Which nn is most likely to be adrenergic?

a) Symp. preganglionic
b) symp. postganglionic
c) Para. preganglionic
d) Para post ganglionic
symp postganglionic
Beta Blockers are used to:

a) Prevent a rise in HR
b) Prevent a drop in HR
c) Dilate pupils
d) Prevent sweating
Prevent a rise in HR
What 2 divisions of the ANS have antagonistic effects on all of the following effector structures EXCEPT?

a) iris mm
b) GI tract
c) Bronchioles
d) BV in skeletal mm
BV in Skeletal mm

(Symp = BV dilate to skeletal mm)
What injury is seen with Automonic dysreflexia?

a) Raynauds
b) SC injuries above T6
d) SC injuries below T9
SC injuries above T6

(85% of pt with SC injuries above T6 - Sev HTN + Sev HA + Profuse HA)
How many sensory modalities can a signal sensory neuron have?

a) one
b) 2
c) Dozens
d) hundreds
one

(Sensory Modalities: is the property by which one sensation is distinguished from another)
Place the events in order for the process of sensation?

1) stimulation of sensory receptor
2) Generation of impulses
3) Intergration of sensory input
4) Transduction of the stimulation

a) 1, 4, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 1, 4, 3
d) 3, 2, 4, 1
1, 4, 2, 3

(Stimulation of sensory receptor - Transduction of the stimulation - Generation of impulses - Integration of sensory input)
______ are sensory receptors located in BV's + Visceral organs, whose signals are not usually consciously perceived.

a) exteroceptors
b) Interoceptors
c) Proprioceptors
d) Nociceptors
Interoceptors

(Monitors internal environment )
What is the only Special sense that is not a complex receptors and is a free nn ending?

a) vision
b) smell
c) Taste
d) Hearing
Smell
What is considered an Exteroceptor?
Hearing/ Vision/ Smell/ touch/ temp/ px/ vibrations
(Near the body of the surface)
_____ would detect irritation of the skin if you didn't wear gloves while cleaning with Bleach

a) Photoreceptor
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Proprioceptors
d) Nociceptor
Nociceptor
Select all receptors that fires continuously as long as a stimulation is applied?

a) Meissner corpuscle
b) Type 1 cutaneous (Merkel Disc)
c) Pacinian corpuscle
d) Hair root plexus
e) Ruffini corpuscle
g) Thermoreceptor
h) mm spindle
Merkel disc (fine touch/ Pressure)
Ruffini Corpuscle (Type 2 cutaneous - Stretch of skin)
Thermoreceptor (Type C fibers - slow)
mm spindle
Which proprioceptors are found in the articular capsule of synovial jts?

a) Tendon organs
b) gamma motor nn
c) mm spindle
d) Kinesthetic receptors
Kinesthetic receptors

(similar to GTO that adjust reflex inhibition & adjust mm when excessive strain occurs)
The postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex:

a) are considered the primary gustatory area
b) receives primary somatic sensory info
c) receives visual info
d) provides the ability to move the eyeballs
Receives primary somatic sensory info (1/2/3)
Analgesic drugs (Aspirin & Ibuprofen) block the formation of _______
Prostaglandins (which stimulate nociceptors
T or F:

Morphine & other opiate drugs; Px is still sensed in the PNS but it alters the quality of px perception in the brain
T
Do we have more cold receptors or Warm receptors?
Cold
The Descending pathway

a) controls sensory fxn
b) consists of Upper + Lower motor neurons
c) Consists of neurons located completely within the SC
d) begins in the spinal cord and ends in the brain
Consists of UMN + LMN
Which structure monitors the stretching of skin during a physical therapy session?
D (Ruffini corpuscle)

(A = free nn ending: px, itch, tickle, cold & warm B = Merkel disc: fine touch + pressure C= Corpuscle of touch: fine touch + pressure + slow vib D= Ruffini corpuscle: crude touch + stretching of skin E = Lamellated or Pacinian: pressure + fast vibs )
What are the 2 pathway that somatic sensory entering the spinal corder ascend to the cerebral cortex
Post column + Anterolateral pathway
What Sensory Pathway crosses over at the SC level that it entered?
Anterolateral (aka Spinothalamic)
for the Post Column where is the 2nd order?
MO
A disorder that affects the basal nuclei would have what affect?

a) loss of memory
b) total loss of mm tone
c) shaking of hands
d) loss of sensation
shaking of hands

(fxn to regulates initiation & termination of mvmts/ suppresses unwanted mvmts & regulates mm tone)
A soccer ball was hit your way. You see the area you want to kick it to at the same time you are preparing to plant your foot & kick the ball. What area allows you to compare intended mvmt with the actual mvmt?

a) cerebral cortex
b) MO
c) Midbrain
d) Cerebellum
cerebellum
An individual with damage to the their hippocampus may struggle with:

a) explicit memory (conscious memory)
b) implicit memory (autonomic memory)
c) long term memory
d) memory consolidation
e) short term memory
memory consolidation

(short term to long term memory
Which of the following types of stimuli is sensed using encapsulated nn endings?

a) px
b) tickle
c) temperature
d) vibration
vibrations
The cerebellum, premotor cortex and basal nuclei are involved in:

a) explicit memory (conscious memory)
b) implicit memory (autonomic memory)
c) long term memory
d) memory consolidation
e) short term memory
implicit memory
A pt has asthma and struggles to breathe at times. Referred px associated with this pt would be located where on the diagram?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) G
e) H
A (lungs & diaphragm)
A pt with chronic cirrhosis of the liver would have px referred to which location of the diagram?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) G
e) H
B
Sharp pains occuring at the tip of the xiphoid process can be an indication of visceral px in what organs?
Pancreas
Gallbladder
stomach
Which condition is characterized by a lack of memory for events occurring after the trauma of dz that cx'd the condition?

a) retrograde amnesia
b) anterograde amnesia
c) sleep apnea
anterograde amnesia
(inability to form NEW memories)

(Retrograde amnesia = loss of memory for event that occurred b/f trauma = inability to recall from past events)
During the process of learning, the brain shows a characteristic called _______, which is the ability to change in response to intensive usage for a particular task like memorizing a page of physiology notes

a) habituation
b) desensitization
c) plasticity
d) reflexes
plasticity
Olfactory epithelium is found:

a) throughout the nasal cavity
b) only in the sup portion of the nasal cavity
c) only in the inf portion of the nasal cavity
d) From the vestibule to the pharynx
only in the sup portion of the nasal cavity
_____ binds the odorants and begins signal transduction.

a) olfactory cilia
b) supporting cells
c) basal stem cell
d) Bowman's glands
olfactory cilia
Olfactory has a _______ (Low/High/ No) Threshold and adapation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant ________ (does not occur/ enhances gustation/ occurs rapidly/ occurs slowly)
Low
Occurs rapidly
The olfactory pathway, axons of the mitral cells form the ______. The axons project to the _______.

a) olfactory tract, thalamus & cerebral cortex

b) olfactory tract; cerebral cortex & limbic system

c) Olfactory bulbs; thalamus + cerebral cortex

d) olfactory bulbs; temporal lobe & cerebral cortex
olfactory tract; cerebral cortex & limbic system
Which papillae increases surface area but do not aid in direct gustation?

a) vallate
b) fungiform
c) foliate
d) filiform
e) circumvallate
filiform (texture = CN 5 Trigeminal)
Which of the following nn conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation?

-vestibulocochlear
-oculomotor
-vagus
-trigeminal
-facial
-glossopharyngeal
-hypoglossal
-abducens
Vagus
Facial
Glossopharyngeal
(Trigeminal = texture only)
After staying up all night to study, your eyes are bloodshot. The vasculature in what area is congested and diluted?

a) cornea
b) lacrimal puncta
c) palpebral conjunctiva
d) bulbar conjunctiva
bulbar conjunctiva
Where does the most light refraction occur?
cornea

(Cornea = 75% + Lens 25%)
Which CN's carry special senses?
1 (Smell)
2 (vision)
7 (ant 2/3 taste)
8 (Hearing + Equilibrium)
9 (taste post 1/3 tongue)
10 (taste on epiglottis)
Which mm of the eye cx's dilation?
Radial mm
areas of the brain:

1) Sensory area

2) visual area

3) language comprehension

4) Facial recognition

5) Motor Language

6) Orbitofrontal (Identify smell)

7) Gustatory
1) parietal

2) occipital

3) parietal (L side dom)

4) temporal

5) Frontal (L side dom)

6) frontal (right side dom)

7) Parietal

(Left side = LANGUAGE)
Place the flow of Tears in the correct order:

Lacrimal gland
Lacrimal sac
Lacrimal duct
Sup or Inf lacrimal canal
Nasolacrimal duct
nasal cavity
Lacrimal gland
Lacrimal duct
Sup or Inf lacrimal canal
lacrimal sac
nasolacrimal duct
nasal cavity

(G-D-C-S-D- nasal cavity)
How many extrinsic eye mm are responsible for moving each eye?
6
The _____ regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil
iris (acts as a filter for light)
____ are proteins that make up the refractive portion of the lens

a) collagen
b) ciliary body
c) Crystallins
d) Elastin
crystallins (fxns to focus light on fovea)
What lies between the lens and the retina?

a) vitreous chamber
b) anterior chamber
c) anterior cavity
d) Aqueous humour
vitreous chamber
______ receptors are primarily used for detecting light rays under bright light conditions?

a) Basal cell
b) rods
c) cones
d) ganglion
cones (Bright light + colour)
Light enters the retina through the layers of neural retina in this order _________; however info is processed through this order ______ in the retina


1) photoreceptors cell layer
2) bipolar cell layer
3) Inner synaptic layer
4) outer synaptic layer
5) ganglion cell
5, 3, 2, 4, 1 / 1, 4, 2, 3, 5

(Ganglion cell - inner synaptic layer - bipolar cell - outer synaptic layer - photoreceptors cell then process backwards)
What structure vibrates back & forth when sound waves strike?

a) cochlea
b) pinna
c) tympanic membrane
d) spiral organ
tympatic membrane (CN V3 = innervates tympatic membrane = mandibular branch)
What CN innervates Stapedius mm?
CN 7 Facial (Smallest mm in the body)
What is the course of the saphenous vein?
coming up from the big toe - along med maliollus where it bifurcates
-continuing along med tibia and into Femoral vv (entering just below inguinal lig)
The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is:

a) activation of amacrine cells
b) absorption of scattered light by pigmented epithelium
c) absorption of light by photopigment
d) generation of AP in optic nn
absorption of light by photopigment
Dynamic equilibrium is maintained by the :

a) cochlea
b) semicircular canals
c) vestibule
d) Utricle & saccule
Semicircular canals

(ampula w/ crista covered by cupula)

(Dynamic movement - shaking head - pressure on the cupsula pushes hair in opposite direction)
What structure is responsible for static equilibrium?

a) cochlea
b) semicircular canals
c) vestibule
d) Utricle & saccule
Utricle & saccule

(Utricle = Acceleration)
(Saccule = elevation)
What are Paracrines?
Local hormones that act on neighbouring cells
1) What is the term for Nearsighted - and what type of lens is needed?

2) what is the term for Farsighted - and what type of lens is needed?
1) Myopia (Nearsighted) & Needs a concave lens

2) hyperopia (farsighted) & needs a convex lens

(Presbyopia = age related degeneration of sight)

(20/20 vision = mmmetropia)
What is the first step in vision?
Transduction (absorption of light by photopigments which are opsin + retinal in rods + cones)
Choose the correct statement?

a) primary vision are temporal lobe
b) primary auditory is occipital lobe
c) speech found in parietal lobe
c) speech found in parietal lobe (wernicke's = Parietal & Broca = Frontal)
Choose the correct statement for the Left side of Brain?

a) Space and pattern awareness
b) spoken & written language
c) musical artistic awareness
Spoke & written language
Colour blindness:

a) lack of rods
b) lack of Vit A
c) Lack of photopigment red & green in cones
Lack of photopigment red & green in cones (m/c kind lack red-green cones - inherited - Men m/c = sex-linked recessive)
What is the deficency of vitamins cx's night blindness?

a) Vit A
b) Vit B6
c) Vit B9
d) Vit C
Vit A (Night blindness = Nyctalopia)
What areas of the body DO NOT have Nociceptors?
Brain/ hair/ nails
What is the m/c site for osteogenic sarcoma?

a) diaphysis
b) metaphysis
c) distal epiphysis
d) prox epiphysis
metaphysis
What makes up the borders of the Post triangle of the neck:

What makes up the ANT Neck Triangle?
POSTERIOR
Post = UT
Ant = SCM
Inf = Clavicle
Subdivided = omohyoid
Floor = Splenius capitis
(subdivided into occipital & supraclavicular = by inf belly of omohyoid)

Contains = subclavian aa // External jugular vv // lymph nodes // brachial plexus // CN XI


ANTERIOR:
Sup = mandible
Med = cervical midline
Lat = SCM
Contains = lymph nodes// Submandibular salivary gland + portion of Parotid // facial aa + vv// Carotid aa// INTERNAL Jugular vv // CN 9 + 10 + 12)
(Subdivided into 3 pairs = submandibular, carotid, muscular)
What happens in Accommodation in close vision?
Ciliary mm contracts combined with suspensory lig relaxation cxing lens to become convex
What is Saltatory conduction?

a) slower & uses more ATP
b) slower and uses less ATP
c) Faster & uses Less ATP
d) Faster & uses MORE ATP
Faster & uses Less ATP
What type of epithelia cells of the bladder?
transitional
What are the heart valves made up of?
Dense CT (Fibrous skeleton)
What are the Glands that are ONLY Endocrine glands
Adrenal
Thyroid
Pituitary
Parathyroid
Pineal

(Other glands that are NOT Exclusive: Hypothalamus/ Thymus/ pancreas/ ovaries/ testes/ Kidneys/ stomach/ liver/ sm intestine/ skin/ heart/ adipose tissue/ placenta)
The Thalamus does all the following EXCEPT:

a) gives precise location inof for sensation of px & info
gives precise location inof for sensation of px & info
Matching: Lipid-soluble or water-soluble hormones:

1) binds to target cell INSIDE the cell (no messenger)

2) Binds to plasma membrane (1st messenger) activates G protein (cAMP is the 2nd messenger)
1) lipid

2) water
Which of the following is NOT a fxn of hormones?

a) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
b) regulates metabolism
c) regulates glandular secretions
d) produce electrolytes
Produce electrolytes
When a hormone is present in excessive levels, the number of target-cell receptors may decrease. This is called:

a) receptor recognition
b) sensory adaptation
c) up-regulation
d) down-regulation
down-regulation
Which of the following is an eicosanoid?

1) prostaglandin
2) Leukotriene
3) Glycoprotein

a) 1 only
2) 1 & 2
3) 2 only
4) 3 only
Prostaglandin
Leukotriene
An individual with a deficiency in Fatty acid intake might have difficulty producing which type of hormones?

a) amine hormones
b) Peptide hormone
c) Steroid hormones
d) Eicosanoid hormones
Eicosanoid hormones (derived from arachidonic acids = a 20 carbon fatty acid)

(Steroid is derived from = cholesterol)
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone it is called?

a) synergistic effect
b) permissive effect
c) antagonistic effect
d) circulating effect
antagonists effect

(Permissive effect = hormones that require a simultaneous or recent exposure to a 2nd hormone to be able to fully affect the target cell)

(Synergistic effect = 2 hormones acting together is greater or more extensive that if acting alone)
Which of the following hormones of the ant pituitary stimulates general body growth?

a) somatotropin
b) prolactin
c) thryotropin
d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
somatotropin
Which of the following ant pituitary hormone stimulates gonads to secrete progesterone &/or testosterone?

a) Luteinizing hormone
b) TSH
c) Corticotropin
d) Growth hormone
luteinizing hormone
Which type of ant pituitary cell secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone?

a) thyrotrophs
b) gonadotrophs
c) Somatotrophs
e) corticotrophs
corticotrophs
Which of the following pairs of hormones are released by the post pituitary gland?

a) Prolactin & Growth hormone
b) Oxytocin + antidiuretic hormone
c) follicle-stimulating hormone & thyroid-stimulating hormone
d) Prolactine + ACTH
Oxytocin + antidiuretic hormone
The amount of ADH that is released by the post pituitary gland varies with?

a) osmotic pressure
b) blood calcium levels
c) blood oxygen levels
d) blood glucose levels
e) all of the above
osmotic pressure (effects occur at the DCT + Collecting duct)
Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?

a) thryoid-stimulating hormone
b) Insule
c) Testosterone
d) calcitonin
e) calcitriol
Calcitonin (puts the tone in the bone)

(Parathyroid = increase ca+ blood levels)
Which endocrine gland stores its hormonal products for aprox 100 days?

a) Parathyroid
b) adrenal
c) pituitary
d) thyroid
thyroid
What are the fxns of Thyroid hormones?
- increasing basal metabolic rate
- enhancing actions of catecholamines
- regulating development of nn & bone tissue (stimulates protein synthesis)
- increases use of glucose & FA's for ATP production
What is the most abundant ant pituitary hormone?
Human Growth hormone (aka somatotrophin)
Which of the labeled endocrine glands secrete hGH, TSH, FSH and other hormones?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) I
e) D
B (ant pituitary)
What are the layers of the adrenal Cortex and its purpose?
Glomerulosa = Mineralcorticoids ("Salty") = Aldosterone
Fasciculata = Glucocorticoid ("Sweet") = Cortisol
Reticularis = Androgen ("sexy") = Testosterone or DHEA
Which bone does the houses the pituitary gland?
sphenoid
What is the correct location of pituitary gland?

a) anterior to the brain stem
b) post to the brain stem
c) inf to the brain stem
d) sup to the brain stem
anterior to the brain stem
what cx's or triggers the testes to produce testosterone?
Luteinizing hormone

(testosterone is secreted by leydig cells & LH is secreted by anterior pituitary)
Which condition of excess androgen secretion that is primarily in women & characterized by the presence of excessive body and facial hair in a male pattern?

a) acromegaly
b) tetany
c) Hirsutism
d) Gynecomastia
e) myxedema
hirsutism
Which condition results from the pineal gland?
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
Leptin is a hormone produced by the

a) placenta
b) ovaries
c) testes
d) adipose tissue
adipose tissue (Suppress appetite)
Which of the following hormones acts on neighbouring cells without entering the bloodstream?

a) Local Hormones
b) Paracrine hormones
c) Autocrine hormones
d) local & paracrine hormones
e) Autocrine and circulating hormones
local & Paracrine hormones
All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called:

a) Thromboxane
b) intrinsic factor
c) thymopoietin
d) arachidonic acid
arachidonic acid
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the :

a) placenta
b) ovaries
c) testes
d) pituitary gland
placenta
Leptin is a hormone produced by the:

a) placenta
b) ovaries
c) Testes
d) adipose tissue
adipose tissue
Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of an exocrine gland?

a) initially secretes its products into a duct
b) secretes material onto outer surface of the body
c) secretes material into the lumen of follow organs
d) its secretory products are carried into body fluids to distant target cells
e) all of the above is characteristics of exocrine glands
its secretory products are carried into body fluids to distant target cells
All of the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT?

a) estradiol
b) estrone
c) inhibin
d) progesterone
e) FSH
FSH (via ant pituitary gland)
Which of the following is NOT a major fxn of the blood?

a) Transportation of nutrients
b) Regulation of pH
c) Protection against infectious dz
d) Production of oxygen
e) transportation of heat
production of oxygen
The Hematocrit is a measure of the % of whole blood occupied by?

a) WBCs
b) Platelets
c) RBCs
d) Plasma
e) Plasma proteins
RBCs
What percentage of blood plasma is water?

a) 95.1%
b) 91.5%
c) 88.5%
d) 8%
91.5%

(water = 91.5% // Protein = 7% // Other solutes = 1.5%)
What is the most abundant protein in blood plasma?
Albumins (38%)

(Smallest & Most abundant = fxns to maintain osmotic pressure which is an important factor in exchange of fluids across blood capillary ways)
Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in dz resistance?

a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Hemoglobin
Globulins
Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?

a) Albumin
b) Globulins
c) Fibrinogen
d) Hemoglobin
fibrinogen
The process by which the formed elements of blood develop is called?

a) hematospermia
b) hemopoiesis
c) thrombocytosis
d) hemostasis
hemopoisesis
A megakaryoblast will develop into:

a) RBC
b) WBC
c) Platelet
d) WBC or Platelet
e) none of the above
WBC or Platelet (?? I thought it was only Platelets)
Ferritin is a protein used to:

a) break down iron
b) store iron in the liver, mm, spleen
c) oxidize iron in the peroxisome
d) synthesize iron
e) absorb iron in small intestines
store iron in liver, mm or spleen
What is the major fxn of RBCs?

a) nutrient transport
b) cytokine stimulation
c) gas transport
d) dz resistance
gas transport
Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a:

a) proerythroblast
b) megakaryocyte
c) progenitor cell
d) reticulocyte
reticulocyte
Which of the following blood cell is a phagocyte?

a) neutrophil
b) platelet
c) Lymphocyte
d) basophil
neutrophil (first to the seen - to combat infection)
Which of the following blood cell releases granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (Allergic) reactions?
Basophil

(60 30 8 2 0 = Never Let My Engine Blow = Buy Vera More Pop Tarts)

(60% = Neutrophil = Bacteria// 30% = Lymphocytes = Virus // 8% = Monocytes = Macrophages // 2% Eosinophils = Parasites // 0% = Basophil = Terminal or allergic reactions)
Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and is effective agains parasitic worms?

a) Eosinophils
b) Monocytes
c) Lymphocytes
d) Basophil
Eosinophil

(60 30 8 2 0 = Never Let My Engine Blow = Buy Vera More Pop Tarts)
(60% = Neutrophil = Bacteria// 30% = Lymphocytes = Virus // 8% = Monocytes = Macrophages // 2% Eosinophils = Parasites // 0% = Basophil = Terminal or allergic reactions)
Where does bilirubin broken down?
Liver (Taken from the heme portion of RBCs - broken down in Liver)
What are the 2 sources mm tissue has of oxygen?
Myoglobin and hemoglobin

(Myoglobin = oxygen-binding iron-containing protein present in the sarcoplasm of mm fibers; contributes the red colour of mm - releases O2 when it is needed by mitochondria for ATP production)

(1 = diffused from blood via hemoglobin 2 = myoglobin in aerobic respiration)
The lymphatic vessels empty into the venous at the level of the subclavian vv and _____

a) Internal Jugular vv
b) External Jugular vv
c) Brachiocephalic vv
d) Sup Vena Cava
Internal Jugular vv
Edema happens when:

a) Filtration is greater than reabsorption
b)
filtration is greater than reabsorption
Erythropoiesis may be stimulated by:
Select all that apply

a) pulmonary dz that decreases available oxygen
b) excessive bleeding
c) traveling to high altitudes
d) diving in deep water
a
b
c
Which of the following correctly lists the sequences of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged BV?

a) Vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia
b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis
d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting
vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting

(Vascular spasm = reduces blood loss for several mins to hrs - this is usually cx'd by damage to bv)

(Platelet plug formation = 1: platelets stick together platelet adhesion 2 = platelets become active platelet release reaction 3= platelet aggregation to form platelet plug)
The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of:

a) thromboplastin
b) prothrombinase
c) clotting factor XII
d) Fibrin
Prothrombinase
Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?

a) Mom is Rh negative and Fetus is Rh negative
b) Mom in Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative
c) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive
Mom in Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
Which of the following antibody would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood

a) anti-A
b) anti-B
c) Anti A & B
d) No antibodies
anti-A & B

(Universal Donor - has NO Antigen but can only accept from Type O)
Where in the body is RBC first produced?

a) yok sac
b) Spleen
c) Liver
d) Thymus
yok sac

(Yok Sac - Liver/ spleen/ Thymus - RBM)
What is the blood type is the Universal Acceptor?
Type AB

(Has A & B antigen but No antibodies)
Anemia:

1) inability to produce intrinsic factor in stomach which is needed to absorb Vit B12

2) RMB produce large RBCd/t inadequate Vit B12

3) abnormal shape of RBC that are rod-like shape and gives up O2 into interstitial fluid

4) Autosomal Recessive - RBCs are small & short lived cx'd by reduce rate of synthesis or no synthesis of 1 globin chain

5) destruction of Red Bone Marrow due to radiation results in:

6) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced
1) pernicious anemia

2) megaloblastic anemia

3) sickle-cell anemia

4) Thalassemia

5) aplastic anemia

6) anemia
What blood type is a person if their plasma contains ONLY anti-A agglutinin?

a) A
b) B
c) O
d) AB
B

(Agglutinin = antibody & Agglutinogen = antigen marker)
Where is Renin Secreted?

a) kidneys
b) lungs
c) liver
d) adrenals
kidneys (via juxtaglomerular cells - Angiotensin 1 is converted into 2 via ACE in the lungs)
What is Aldosterone main fxn?
increase blood levels of Na+ and water (and decrease K+ levels = secreted via mineralcorticoids in Zona Glomerulosa cells - stimulated via increased K+ levels or Angiotenin 2)
Where is Thrombopoietin produced? (This hormone stimulates the production of platelets)
liver
What 4 things are need for Erthropoiesis to occur in Red Bone Marrow ?
Iron
Globin
Vit B12
Erythropoietin
Serum is:

a) the same as plasma
b) plasma without the clotting factor
c) the same as lymph
d) formed during the first step in blood clotting
plasma without the clotting factor
Refers to a group of RBM cancers in which abnormal WBC multiply uncontrollably. Thus interferes with production of RBCs, WBCs, & platelets
Leukemia
The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called?

a) pericardium
b) pleura
c) myocardium
d) endocardium
pericardium

(Fibrous layer = Paritial
The apex of the heart is normally pointed:

a) at the midline
b) to the left of midline
c) to the right of midline
d) different for males & females
to the left of midline
WBCs Term:

1) Abnormally low WBCs - cx'd by radiation, shock, chemotherapy

2) An increase in WBCs - cx'd by infection or strenuous exercise
1) Leukopenia

2) Leukocytosis
Blood Clotting uses a Negative Feed back or Positive Feed back
Positive
What type of cell produces Antibodies?

a) plasma cells
b) mast cells
c) basophils
d) moncytes
plasma cells (from lymphocyte B cells)

(Mast cells from basophils and release histamine)
`Which Vitamin is Not found in Vegetables?

a) Vit A
b) Vit B6
c) Vit B12
d) Vit B1
B12 (only found meat products = cheese/ eggs/ meat/ milk)
Which of the following is used to reduce frictions b/w the layers of membranes surrounding the heart?

a) synovial fluid
b) endocardium
c) pleural fluid
d) pericardium fluid
pericardium fluid ( b/w parietal & visceral serous pericardium = pericardial cavity)
What is referred to as the Epicardium?
Visceral serous pericardium (inner layer)
Identify the groove found on the surface of the heart that marks the boundary between the R & L ventricles?

a) coronary sulcus
b) ant interventricular sulcus
c) post interventricular sulcus
d) Coronary sinus
Ant interventricular sulcus

(Coronary sulcus = separates the atria from the ventricles)
Through which structure does blood pass from the R atrium to the right ventricle?

a) Bicuspid valve
b) interventricular septum
c) Mitra valve
d) tricuspid valve
tricuspid valve
What type of tissue comprises the valves of the heart?

a) Dense CT
b) Areolar CT
c) Hyaline Cartilage
d) Cardiac mm tissue
dense CT
Blood leaving the L ventricle passes through which of the following structures?

a) R Atrium
b) Bicuspid valve
c) Aortic semilunar valve
d) Pulmonary semilunar valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Which valve prevents blood flow back into the R ventricle?

a) Tricuspid valve
b) Bicuspid valve
c) pulmonary semilunar valve
d) aortic semilunar valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
Which of the chambers contains Deoxygenated blood?

a) L atrium + L Ventricle
b) L atrium only
c) R Atrium + R ventricle
d) R ventricle only
R atrium + R ventricle
Which of the following bv's is used to distribute Oxygenated blood to the myocardium?

a) coronary aa
b) Coronary vv
c) Vena Cava
d) Myocardial vv
coronary aa
Which of the following types of mm contains the largest number of mitochondria per cell?

a) Skeletal mm
b) smooth mm
c) Cardiac mm
d) all of the above
cardiac mm
Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structure that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart?

a) Bundle of his, purkinje fibers, antrioventricular node

b) sinoartial node, purkinje fibers, AV node, bundle of his

c) purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, Bundle of his

d) SA node, AV Node, Bundle of his, Purkinje fibers
SA node, AV Node, Bundle of his, Purkinje fibers
Pathway of blood flow of the heart starting at Inf Vena Cava:
RA - RV - Pulmonary aa - Pulmonary arterioles (Deoxygenated blood) - Pulmonary capillaries - Pulmonary venules - Pulmonary vv - LA - LV - Ascending Aorta - Aortic Arch - Descending Aorta - Thoracic aorta - Abd Aorta - systemic aa
Which term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises?

a) filling
b) systole
c) repolarization
d) fibrillation
systole
During which of the following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the aa's?

a) atrial diastole
b) ventricular diastole
c) atrial systole
d) ventricular systole
ventricular systole
What are the arteries of the Heart R & L?
Right Coronary aa
Post Interventricular aa
Marginal aa

Left Coronary aa
Ant Interventricular aa
Circumflex
Vegetable and Fish Oil are what type of fat?

a) polyunsaturated
b) Monosaturated
c) Polysaturated
d) Monounsaturated
polyunsaturated (more kinks)
What is the 1st beat you hear when taking BP?
S1 = Ventricular systole (AV contraction)


(S2 = Ventricular Diastole = AV relaxation)
Match correctly:

a) Resting membrane potential is -90mV in Cardiac mm - Threshold reached (-70mV) via SA node & Voltage-gated fast Na+ channels open -Na+ flows into the cell

b) Volage gated slow Ca+ channels open & Ca+ flows in & K+ gates open to flow out but Ca+ balances out K+ outflow

c) Additional voltage-gated K+ opens and outflow of K+ restores the negative resting membrane
a) Depolarization phase
b) Plateau phase
c) repolarization phase
T or F: The Chordae tendineae are taut and papilalry mm's are contracted whe Valves are CLOSED
T
What bv comes off the aorta 1st?
coronary aa (needs to feed myocardium 1st when heart is relaxed)
What is Cardiac outout?
SV (EDV - ESV) x HR

(on avg SV is 70 ml // SV = is the volume ejected per beat from each ventricle)

(CO = is the amount or volume of blood ejected from the ventricles bilaterally each min)
What is True about CO?

a) is the volume of blood ejected from the RV into the pulmonary trunk per min
b) is the volume of blood ejected from the LV into the aorta per min
c) is the product of SV & HT
d) all of the above
All of the above
Pressure in the Aorta is never below?

a) 80 mmHg
b) 120 mmHg
c) 50 mmHg
d) 0 mmHg
80 mmHg
Which term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises?

a) filling
b) systole
c) repolarization
d) distole
systole

(Systole = increase pressure)

(Diastole = increase Volume of blood)
Which of the following would lead to a decrease in HR?

a) Increase norepinephrine
b) increased thyroid hormone release
c) increase potassium levels in plasma
d) increase Calcium in plasma
increase potassium levels in plasma
What is Frank Starling's Law in regards to the heart?
Increase preload (degree of stretch on heart before contraction) = increase contraction (forceful contraction of individual ventricular mm)

(Afterload = pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur = pressure needs to excute 20 mmHg for pulmonary trunk vs 80 mmHg for the Aorta)
Which layer of the arterial wall is responsible for vasoconstricition?

a) tunica interna
b) tunica media
c) tunica externa
d) tunica fascia
tunica media (muscular layer)
The bronchial aa's arise from the:

a) left subclavian aa
b) brachiocephalic trunk
c) R Subclavian aa
d) Thoracic aorta
e) Left common carotid
thoracic aorta
A blockage in the external iliac aa will reduce blood flow to the:

a) common iliac aa
b) femoral aa
c) abdominal aorta
d) ileal aa
femoral aa
In resting individuals, which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed?

a) arteries and arterioles
b) arterioles and capillaries
c) venules and capillaries
d) veins and venules
veins and venules
In order to supply nourishment to the liver tissue, which vessel must deliver blood to the organ?

a) hepatic aa
b) hepatic vv
c) hepatic portal vv
d) sup mesenteric aa
hepatic aa
If a pt is confined to bed and is unable to walk at all, which of the following will be seriously affected?

a) blood flow to the lungs
b) blood flow to the kidneys
c) the circulation returning for the lower body
d) circulation in the jugular vv's
the circulation returning for the lower body
Capillaries are also referred to as

a) exchange vessels
b) vasoconstrictors
c) vasodilators
d) pressure reservoirs
exchange vessels
Which of the following is the most important method of capillary exchange?

a) diffusion
b) facilitated diffusion
c) bulk flow
d) primary active transport
diffusion
Which of the following structures are used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?

a) thoroughfare channels
b) precapillary sphincters
c) postcapillary sphinters
d) venules
precapillary sphincters
Which of the following types of tissue contains continuous capillaries?

a) skeletal mm
b) sm mm
c) CT
d) Lungs
e) all of the above
all of the above (majority are continuous capillaries)
The alternate route of blood flow to a body part through an anastomosis is called?

a) a thoroughfare channel
b) a blood reservoir
c) a detour route
d) collateral circulation
collateral circulation
The Largest driving force for pulling fluid from the interstitial spaces back into the capillaries is:

a) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
b) interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
c) Blood Colloid osmotic pressure
d) Blood hydrostatic pressure
Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP)
The pressure-driven mvmt of fluids and solutes from blood into interstitial fluid is called?

a) reabsorption
b) filtration
c) bulk flow
d) osmosis
osmosis
The volume of blood that circulates through the systemic blood vessels per minute is called

a) stroke volume
b) tidal volume
c) cardiac output
d) total peripheral resistance
cardiac output
Which is NOT a result of increased arterial BP?

a) increased blood volume
b) increases SNS stimulation
c) increased HR
d) increased arteriolar vasodilation
e) increased stroke volume
increased arteriolar vasodilation

(vasodilation decreases BP)
The R common carotid aa branches direction off the:

a) L Common carotid aa
b) L subclavian aa
c) Brachiocephalic trunk
d) R subclavian aa
Brachiocephalic trunk
The Cardiovascular center is located:

a) thoracic cavity
b) Cerebellum
c) Hypothalamus
d) MO
MO
Which of the following Hormones would NOT lead to increased arterial BP?

a) Atrial natriuretic peptide
b) Antidiuretic hormone
c) Aldosterone
d) angiotensin 2
2) Norepinephrine
Atrial natriuretic peptide
The circulatory system aids in the homeostasis of skeletal system by:

a) delivering Ca+
b) delivering Phosphate
c) transporting hormones for bone metabolism
d) transporting hormones for production of RBC
e) all of the above
all of the above
Nutrients from digested food enter the liver via the:

a) hepatic portal circulation
b) hepatic vv
c) abd aorta
d) inf vena cava
e) hepatic aa
hepatic portal circulation (O2 poor and nutrient RICH)
T or F:
Direct pressure from the outside of the neck onto the carotid sinues should stimulate the carotid sinus reflex and slow the HR and lower BP
T
T or F:

Massaging the neck over the carotid sinus might lead to a reduction n BP d/t nn impulses traveling through the Glossopharyngeal CN arriving in the MO
T
The pulmonary trunk divides into:

a) brachiocephalic trunk and L subclavian aa
b) R & L subclavian aa
c) R & L pulmonary aa
d) R & L Pulmonary vv
e) R & L common carotid aa
R & L pulmonary aa (carries Deoxygenated blood to the lungs)
Identify Structures in the picture
A: R Common Carotid aa
B: R Subclavian aa
C: R Brachial aa
D: Radial aa
E: Ulnar aa
F: Superficial Palmar Arch
G: Aorta Arch
Identify the structures in the picture:
A: L External iliac vv
B: L Femoral vv
C: L Great Saphenous vv
D: L Popliteal vv
E: L Small Saphenous vv
F: L Ant Tibial vv
G: L Dorsal Venous Arch

(Inguinal ligament determines border of External Iliac vv =Above to Femoral vv = Below)
Which of the following have have pulsing blood pressure?

a) arterioles
b) capillaries
c) venules
d) veins
arterioles
Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary dz that cx's progressive destruction of alveoli in the lungs leading to a decreased ability to exhale. How does this dz affect the carbon dioxide levels in the blood?

a) they are unaffected
b) it increases
c) it decreases
d) first it increases then it decreases
it increases
Which of the following categories of HTN drugs, lowers blood pressure by blocking formation of angiotensin 2 which results in vasodilation and decreases aldosterone secretions?

a) diuretics
b) ACE inhibitors
c) Beta blockers
d) Ca+ blockers
ACE inhibitors
T or F:

High viscosity affects NFP by increased BHP d/t increase viscosity + increased BCOP + NFP will balance its self out
True
Where is the highest drop in BP?
arterioles
T or F:

Increased BP does Not increase HR
T
What is Systolic BP & Diastolic BP?
Systolic = arterial BP during ventricular contraction

Diastolic = arterial BP during ventricular relaxation
What is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?

a) noce
b) oral cavity
c) pharynx
d) trachea
trachea
Which of the following is NOT part of the conducting zone action?

a) clean air of debris
b) conduct air into the lungs
c) add water to the air
d) warm air
e) all of the above are actions the conducting zone
all of the above are actions of the conducting zone
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