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265 terms

Nutrition!

STUDY
PLAY
Features of a chronic disease include all of the following except
it produces sharp pains
characteristics of an actute disease include all of the following EXCEPT
it progresses slowly
All of the following are results of making poor food choices EXCEPT
over the long term, they will not affect lifespan in some people
A child who developed a strong dislike of noodle soup after consuming some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related
negative association
A parent who offers a child a favorite snack as a reward for good behavior is displaying a food behavior know as
positive association
Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that show biological activity in the body are commonly known as
phytochemicals
An essential nutrient is one that cannot be
made in sufficient quantities by the body
Which of the following is an organic nutrient
oxygen
which of the following cannot add fat to the body
inorganic nutrients
Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient
vitamin C
How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter of water) C
1kilocalorie
Gram for gram which of the following provides the most energy
Fats
Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalorie and in
kilojoules
A normal half cup vegetable serving weighs approximately how many grams
100
A diet provides a total of 2200 kcalories of which 40% of the ENERGY in from fat and 20% from protein. How many grams of carbs are contained in the diet
220
which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients
energy is released
How many vitamins are know to be required in the diet of a human being
13
which of the following is a feature of the minerals are nutrients
some become dissolved in body fluids
How many minerals are known to be required in the diet of human beings
16
The study of how a person's genes interact with nutrients is termed
nutritional genomics
What is the meaning of a double-blind experiment
neither the subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group
In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called the
hypothesis
What is the benefit of using controls in an experiment
the subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested
What is the benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment
chance variation is ruled out
A clinical trial must involve
human beings as subjects
overeating and gaining body weight is an example of a
positive correlation
All of the following sets of values are included in the Dietary Reference Intake except
LUT
In which of the following are ample amounts of carbs almost always found?
plant foods
All of the following are sources of dietary carbs EXCEPT
fish
What type of nutrient is starch?
complex carb
How many carbon atoms are found in the most common dietary monosaccaride
6
The types of atoms found in glucose molecule include all the following BUT
nitrogen
which of the following is known as fruit sugar or levulose
fructose
What is the sweetest tasting simple carb in the diet
fructose
What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together
condensation
which of the following is a byproduct of condensation of two molecules of monosaccarides
water
What is the composition of sucrose
one glucose and one fructose unit
What is the compostition of maltose
two glucose units
which of the following is a component of all 3 dietary disaccharides
glucose
what is the composition of lactose
one glucose and one galactose unit
which of the following sugars is NOT found in plants
lactose
what is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose units
glycogen
glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?
muscle and liver
what are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin
fiber
which of the following is an example of the difference between in chemical bonds in starch and those in cellulose
cellulose bonds are NOT hydrolyzed by human enzymes
Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestine
bacteria
which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fibers?
they are classified according to solubility in water
With the few exceptions all of the following characteristics are shaed by water-soluble and water-insouble fibers EXCEPT
neither has an appreciable effect on glucose absorption
Which of the following fibers is water insoluble
cellulose
Which of the following has the LEAST amount of fiber
rice
Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the
mouth
Which of the following enzymes does NOT act on simple sugars
amylase
What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbs
small intestine
the enzumes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the
small intestine
what is the primary organ that converts fructose to glucose following absorption
small intestine
a perori diganosed with milk allergy would be sensitive to the milk's
protien
for most of the world's population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase
declines by 90-95%
Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance
African American
if you were to exercise continuosly, about how long would glycogen stores last?
a few hours
what is the min daily amount of dietary carbs necessary to spare body protein from excessive breakdown
50-100 g
the process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose is termed
gluconeogenesis
what is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration
pancreas
what is the normal range (mg/dL) for blood glucose?
70-110
when blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stord glucose
glucagon
which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in the blood glucose
blook glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucogen
When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentation
epinephrine
a person with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 129 mg/dL would be classified as
diabetic
a person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready to eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is
high
which of the following is a feature of diabetes
dietary management should focus on total carb intake rather than the type of carbs consumed
what term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed after indegestion how high blood glucose rises as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to
glycemic response
which of the following is a feature of diabetes
many people with type 2 diabetes are obese
what is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages?
high fructose corn syrup
which of the following is best known to result from regular ingestion of sugar
dental caries
all of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame except
menthanol group
which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar alcohols?
they provide kcalories
when consumed in excess, whic of the following is most likely to cause runny poo
soRbitol
which of the following is know to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease
high fiber intake
which of the following is not a feature of high fiber foods?
Provide more energy per gram than processed foods
according to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the day's total energy intake should be furnished by carbs
45-65
according to the american dieteic association what is the daily value for fiber when expressed in g per 1000 kcal
11.5
what is the DRI for fiber for a person consuming 2500 kcalories
35 g
which of the following is a typical response in people following a low carb diet
total weight loss over the year is the same as people on conventional diets
which of the following is not associated with the regular consumption of sugary beverages?
the fructose stimulates excessive release of insulin which suppresses appetite
The smallest amount of a nutrient that is consumed over a prolonged period that maintains a specific function is called the nutrient
requirement
Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to
assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals
Recommended dietary allowances are based on the
estimated average requirments
What is the AMDR for protein
10-35%
What is the upper range of fat intake in the AMDR
35%
What is the AMDR for fat?
20-35%
Which of the following is an anthropmetric measure?
Body weight
Inspection of hair, eyes, skin and posture is part of the nutrition assesment componenet know saw
physcial examination
which of the following would most likely lead to primary nutrient deficiency
inadequate nutrient intake
what type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient?
primary
the most commnon causes of death today in the US include all the following except
tuberculosis
of the ten leading causes of illness and death how many are associate directly with nutrition?
the more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing the disease
the diet planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amount sufficient to maintain health is called
adequacy
which of the following is the most calcium dense?
nonfat milk
nutrient dense refers to foods that
provide more nutrients relative to kcalorie
an empty kcalorie food is one that contains
energy and little or no protein, vitamins, and minerals
providing enough but not an excess of food is called
moderation
a diet planning principle that provides all the nutrients. fibers, sufficent to maintain health is
adequacy
which of the following is the most calcium dense
nonfat milk
nutrient dense refers to food s that
provide more nutrients relative to kcalories
an empty kcalor is one that contains
energy and little or no protein vitaminsor minerals
providing enough but no an excess of a food is a diet plannin principle known as
moderation
the consumption of 200 kcalories per day is sufficient to meet the needs of
sedentary women
what two major nutrients are supplies by the fruit and vegtables
vitmanins A and C
all of the following are legumes except
potatoes
legumes are used as meat alternatives for all the following except
they can be graded prime choice and select
appromimatly how many kcalores more per day are need by an average college student who is active compared with her inactive counter part
400-500
general features of legumes include al of the following except
they are high in fat
which of the following foods provides discretionary kcalories for the person on a weights reduction diet
canned pears in syrup
which of the following foods kcalories would be considered as part of ones discretionary kcaloie allowance
jam
which of the following is NOT descriptive of MyPyramid
a broad based figure that conveys the message that grains should be abundant form the foundation of a healthy diet
whole grain flour contains all parts of the grain with excpetion of the
husk
refinded grain products contain only the
endo sperm
the addition of calcium to some organe juice products by food manufactureres is most properly termed nutrient
fortification
what nutrient makes up most of the endosperm section of grains such as wheat and rice
starch
which of the following breads has the highest fiber content?
whole grain
which of the following is a characteristic of enriched grain products
they have all of the added nutrients listed on the label
approximately what minimum percentage of all grains consumed by a person should be whole grains
50
which of the following is an enrichment nutrient for grains
folate
The "More Matters" food campaign promotes increased consumption of
fruits and vegtables
the most highly fortified foods on the market are
breakfast cereals
textured vegetable protein is usually made from
soybean
which of the following terms is used to describe a cut of meat havin a low fat content
round
a meat described as "prime cut" meants that
is is higher in fat than other cuts of meat
according to food labeling laws acceptbale synonyms for nonfat milk include all of the following except
reduced- fat milk
which of the following is a feature of US laws governing information on food labels
nutrition labeling is NOT required on foods produced by small businesses or products produced and sold in the same establishment
according to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals MUST be listed on the package label as percent Daily Value
calcium and iron
approximately how many milliliters constitufe a fluid ounce?
30
approximately how many grams are in an ounce?
30
according to nutrition labeling laws, the amounts of what two vitamins MUST be listed on the package label as percent Daily Values
vitamin A and C
food labels express the nutrient content in relation to a set of standard values known as
Daily Values
population groups such as sedentary older men, sedentary younger women, and active older women have a daily energy need (kcal) of approximately
2000
which of the following is a feature of the daily values found on food labels
they assist people in determining whether a food contains little or a lot of a nutrient
which of the following represents the highest level of significant scientific agreement
this product contains whole gains which have been proven to reduce the risk of heart disease and certain cancers
which of the following is a feature of the FDA's regulations of food label health claims?
there are four grades of health claim quality: A, B, C and D
according to US food labeling regulations, clear and convincing evidence has been found for all of the following health claims regarding nutrition and disease EXCEPT
sugar and diabetes
which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegitarian
milk products and plant foods only
which of the following ingredients found on food label is a source of protein
tofu
all of the following are documented benefits for people following a vegetarian diet EXCEPT
lower rates of anemia
in vegetarians the RDA is higher for
iron
for the most part all of the following are advantages of vegetarian diet except
vitamin B(12) intake is higher
which of the following is a feature of vitamin B (12) nutrition in vegetarian?
the vitamin B(12) in fermented soy prodcuts may be present in inactive form
what is the lumen of the GI tract?
the inner space
which of the following describes the antamony of the GI tract
a flexible muscular tube
where is the epiglottis located?
throat
what structure functions to prevents entrance of foods into the trachea
epiglottis
which of the following is a characteristic of the appendix
it stores lymph cells
what is the bolus
portion of food swallowed at one time
what is teh function of the pyloric sphincter
prevents the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach
what structure controls the passage of materials from the small intestine to the large intestine
ileocecal valve
into what region of the intestinal tract does the stomach empty
duodeunum
after swallowing in what order does food pass through the regions of the GI tract?
stomach duodenum jejunum ileum colon
which of the following is a feature of peristalsis
it consits of wavelike muscular contrations resulting from alternate ightening and relazing of cicular muscles and lonitudianl muscles
what is meant by the term motility in reference to the GI tract
the ability of the GI tract muscles to move
which of the following is a feature of the muscular actions of digestion
segmentation in the intestines allows periodic squeezing alon its length resulting in momentary reversal of the movement of intestinal contents
what is reflux
backward flow of chyme
what type of enzymes are responsible for hydrolyzing the protiens of food
proteases
what is the function of mucus in the stomach
protects stomach cells from gastric juices
what is a function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
creates an optimum acidity
why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach
salivary enzumes do not work in an acid enviornment
what is the fate of any enzymes that a present in the foods we eat?
hydrolyzed in the GI tract
important functions of hydrochloric acid in digestion/absorption include all the following EXCEPT
it activates pancreatic lipase
which of the following body organs does not secrete digestive enzymes
liver
the process by which bile acts on fat so enzymes can attack the fat is known as
emulsification
a solution with a pH of 7 is how many more alkaline than one with a pH of 6
10
the purpose of bicarbonate in digestive process is to
raise the pH of chyme
which of the following would NOT be acted upon by pancreatic juice secreted into the intestinal tract?
fiber
which of the following is not a component of pancreatic juice
bile
what is the function of the gallbladder
stores bile
which of the following is not a typical component of stools
starch
what is the function of bile
emulsifies fats
what is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine
villi
which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli
transport of nutrient molecules
which of the following are found on the microvilli and function to break apart small nutreints into the final products of digestion
enzymes
absorption of nutrients by intestinal cells occurs by all of the following mechanisms except
transmigration
when nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system what organ is first to receive them
liver
which of the following products of digestion is not normally released directly into the bloodstream
fats
what vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart
hepatic vein
exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials takes place across the walls of small vessels called
capillaries
which of the following is a feature of the lymphatic system
it carries fats away from the intestines
what are lacteals
intestinal lymphatic vessel
the intestinal flora are comprised primarily of
bacteria
what is the primary role of the normal, thriving intestinal bacterial population
helps prevent infectious bacteria from attacking the system
which of the following is known to be produced by small intestinal bacteria
vitamins
the maintenance of thebody's constant internal conditions is guided by the principle known as
homeostasis
what two systems coordinate all digestive/absorption processes
nervous and endocrine
which of the following regulated the pH of the stomach
gastrin
which of the following substances functions to control the release of hyrochloric acid to prevent excessive acidity
gastrin
which of the following stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice
secretin
the chief functions of cholecystokinin include all of the following except
triggering release of gastrin
the presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release
cholecystokinin
what is zymogen
an inactive enzyme precursor
choking occurs when a piece of food become firmly lodged in the
trachea
what organ is affected by colitis
large intestine
in general which of the following is associated with the fewest adverse effects from the treatment of constimpation in adults
ingestion of prunes
what is the primary cause for belching
swallowing air
all of the following are commnon causes of heartburn EXCEPT
eating too slowly
the primary treatment for ulcer caused by the presence of H. pulori is
ANTIBIOTICS
All of the following are features of stomach acid except
its potentially destructive action on stomach cells is prevented by the presence of bile
what element is found in proteins but not in carbs and fats
nitrogen
which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another
the side group
which of the following elements is found in certain amino acid
sulfur
how many different kinds of amino acids make up proteins
20
all of the following are contained in an amino acid except
an aldehyde group
what is the simplest amino acid
glycine
which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid
it must be supplied by the diet
what type of reaction is required to bring 2 molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water
condensation
when two amino acids are chemicall joined together the resulting structure is called a
dipeptide
what is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein
order of amino acids in the peptide chain
which of the following would be classified as a polypeptide
20 amino acids bonded together
which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin
it is constructed of 4 polypeptide chains
what is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of protein chain
denaturation
afte a hamburger is eaten in what organ is the hydrolysis of its proteins initiated
stomach
what is the name of the inactive form of the protein-splitting enzyme in the stomach
pepsinogen
what digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid
pepsin
protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as
proteases
what is the chief function of pepsin
cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptide
pepsinogen is also know an a
zymogen
which of the following statement is not characteristic of enzymes
they are involved in synthesis reactions
approximately how many different proteins are present in the human body
30,000
which of the following describes a processing protein synthesis
the code to make a protein is carried by a strand messenger RNA
which of the following is a characteristic of protein synthesis
messenger RNA is constructed from DNA template to carry instructions
the process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DAN template is called
transcription
what is a ribosome
a structure upon which proteins are assembled
what protein is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in would healing
collagen
all of the following describes associations between protein nutrition and body' water balance except
excessive protein losses by the kidney may lead to dehydration
tissue swelling that results from water accumulating between cells is known as
edema
what function does a buffer perform?
helps maintain a constant pH
how does sodium a potassium travel into and out of cells?
there are transport proteins within the cell membrane that pick up and release the minerals across the membrane
what is opsin
a light sensitive protein
the body's usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize
anitbodies
which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood
fibrin
which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization?
nitrogen balance
which of the following defines protein turnover
the sum of protein synthesis and degradation
what amnio acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonn and vitamin niacin
tryptophan
what is the fate of excess dietary protein
after absorption the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded
when amino acids are deaminated the immediate products are ammonia and often a
keto acid
protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests
adequate levels of carbs and fats
a person who is starving is losing
glycogen, protein, and fat
which of the following is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carb diet
increased thirst
which of the following compounds does not contain nitrogen
cholesterol
in the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group
excreted as urea
a prominent result of transamination reactions is the synthesis of
nonessential amino acids
what primary factor governs the quality of a food protein
essential amino acid content
what is "limiting amino acid in protein
an essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis t otake place
if the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action
protein synthesis will be limited
acute protein energy malnutrition in children is characterized by
low weight for height
marasmus occurs most commonly in children of ages
1-5 months
which of the following would you not expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor
increased physical activity
which of the following is a feature of malnutrition?
dysentary is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion
kwashiorkor develops in children
2 1/2-5
what is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops protein deficency
inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export
excess amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk of
heart disease
all of the following are known to raise hemocysteine levels EXCEPT
excess arginine intake
which of the following describes a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease
elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking and drinking
what is the RDA for protein for a 48 kg woman
38 g
what is the range of daily protein intake in g/kg recommended for athletes
1.2-1.7
which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein
dietary carbs and fat intakes are adequate
which of the following a a feature of whey protein
it as waste produce of cheese production
the study of how environemental factos influence the expression of genes without altering DNA is known ad
epigenetics
approximately what percentage of a persons genes are similar to that of an unrelated person?
99.9
dietary restiriction of phenylaline combined with adequate tyrosine is the treatment with people born with?
PKU