79 terms

MTA 98-366 Networking Fundamentals

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Terms in this set (...)

You have a key network administrator leave a company. Therefore, what does the company depend on to continue to use the network?
a) the user's password
b) Active Directory
c) master network switch
d) network documentation
d) network documentation

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining a LAN
Explanation: To understand your LAN better, it helps to write down what its structure is—in other words, to document it. Network documentation is any information that helps describe, define, and otherwise explain how the network computers are connected physically and logically.
What is the most common central device used today to connect computers to a network?
a) hub
b) switch
c) SOHO router
d) VPN router
b) switch

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining a LAN
Explanation: Hubs are considered legacy devices and have been replaced by switches. Switches allow multiple computers to connect together. The advantage of a switch over a hub is that it can handle several conversations at the same time.
What is the most common adapter or connector used to connect a computer to a wired network?
a) RG6
b) RG58
c) RJ45
d) RJ8
c) RJ45

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining a LAN
Explanation: RJ-45, which is associated with Ethernet networks, is the most common wired adapter by default and is found on virtually every computer these days.
Which of the following does a switch use for increased performance?
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) sliding duplex
c) full duplex

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Defining a LAN
Explanation: A switch switches very fast between multiple connections, which allow multiple computers to communicate at the same time. As a result, each client can send and receive at the same time (full duplex), which gives better performance.
What do you use to isolate a group of computers within your organization?
a) WLAN
b) WAN
c) VLAN
d) Internet
c) VLAN

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Types of LANs
Explanation: A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as though they were connected together as normal on one switch, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN is implemented to segment a network, reduce collisions, organize the network, boost performance, and increase security.
What do you use to create VLANs
a) router
b) switch
c) firewall
d) proxy server
b) switch

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Types of LANs
Explanation: Switches usually control the VLAN. Like subnetting, a VLAN compartmentalizes a network and can isolate traffic.
7. What zone is used to publish external websites for an organization?
a) intranet
b) extranet
c) internetwork
d) DMZ
d) DMZ

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Getting to Know Perimeter Networks
Explanation: A perimeter network (also known as a demilitarized zone or DMZ) is a small network that is set up separately from a company's private LAN and the Internet. It is called a perimeter network because it is usually on the edge of the LAN,
Which topology is the most redundant and the most expensive?
a) star
b) ring
c) mesh
d) bus
c) mesh

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Network Topologies
Explanation: A network topology defines the physical connections of hosts in a computer network. With the mesh topology, every computer connects to every other computer. No central connecting device is needed. Since every computer connects to every other computer, it requires the most cabling, which increases the cost.
What standard describes CSMA/CD?
a) 801.2
b) 802.3
c) 802.5
d) 802.11
b) 802.3

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Defining Ethernet Standards
Explanation: IEEE 802.3 defines carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD). Because computers on a default Ethernet LAN all share the same channel, CSMA/CD governs the way computers coexist with limited collisions.
What mechanism do wireless networks use to access the network?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) token passing
d) polling
b) CSMA/CA

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining Ethernet Standards
Explanation: If an organization uses wireless Ethernet, carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used.
What model promises the most processing power?
a) centralized computing
b) distributive computing
c) switching computing
d) dumb computing
b) distributive computing

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying the Differences between Client/Server and Peer-to-Peer Distributed Networks
Explanation: During the days of the mainframe, all devices that connected to the one super computer were known as terminals (or dumb terminals). Today's computing is known as distributive computing and is used for both client/server and peer-to-peer networks. This means that every device or workstation has its own processing power.
Which model users a central database for authentication?
a) peer-to-peer
b) workgroup
c) client/server
d) distributive
c) client/server

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Client/Server Model
Explanation: The client/server model is an architecture that distributes applications between servers such as Windows Server 2008 and client computers such as Windows 7 or Windows Vista machines. It also distributes the necessary processing power. This is extremely common in today's LANs and with most applications an average user would utilize when connecting to the Internet.
What type of server does Active Director run on?
a) file server
b) print server
c) database server
d) network controller
d) network controller

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Client/Server Model
Explanation: A controlling server, such as a Microsoft domain controller, is in charge of user accounts, computer accounts, network time, and the general well-being of an entire domain of computers and users.
Which model has each host have their own security database?
a) peer-to-peer
b) client/server
c) distributive
d) sliding
a) peer-to-peer

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Peer-to-Peer Model
Explanation: Peer-to-peer networking means that each computer is treated as an equal—meaning, each computer has an equal ability to serve and to access data, just like any other computer on the network. Each computer also has its own security database.
What type of communication is sent to a single designated host?
a) unicast
b) broadcast
c) multicast
d) anycast
a) unicast

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining Data Transfer on a LAN
Explanation: Unicast describes the situation in which information is sent to one host only. This reduces network traffic greatly, and helps with packet loss and duplicates.
. What is used to uniquely identify a host on a TCP/IP network?
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) bit pattern
d) router name
a) IP address

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Configuring Internet Protocol
Explanation: An IP address is the cornerstone of networking because it defines the computer or host you are working on. Today, every computer and many other devices have such an address. An IP address allows each computer to send and receive information in an orderly and efficient manner.
A _________ is a single computer or device that connects to a TCP/IP network.
host

Difficulty: medium

Section Reference: Configuring Internet Protocol
Explanation: IP addresses are usually applied to your network adapter, but they can also be applied to other devices like switches, routers, and so on. A device or computer that has an IP address is a host.
What is the central device used in wireless LANs?
wireless access point

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying Types of LANs
Explanation: The wireless access point (WAP) acts as the central connecting device for the network. Today, such networks can consist of many types of devices other than traditional PCs, including smart phones, PDAs, tablet computers, and microcomputers.
What is the difference between a switch and a hub?
A hub allows only one device to communicate to another device at a time. If two devices try to communicate at the same time, a collision will result. A switch allows multiple conversations to occur at the same time. In addition, a switch also supports full-duplex, which means that a computer or host can send and receive at the same time.

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining a LAN
Explanation: Because a hub is considered a legacy item, purchasing a new one today is difficult. Also, a hub communicates in half duplex, whereas switches support full duplex.
What command do you use to test the TCP/IP stack on a computer?
ping localhost (or ping 127.0.0.1 or ping loopback)

Section Reference: Defining a LAN
Explanation: You can ping your own computer using the loopback address, also known as the local loopback. When pinging this address, no network traffic is incurred; because the network adapter is really just looping the ping back to the OS, it never places any packets on to the network. Therefore, this is a solid way to test whether TCP/IP is installed correctly to a network adapter, even if you aren't physically connected to a network.
What model is used to describe how data communication occurs between hosts?
a) server-centric model
b) workgroup model
c) peer-to-peer model
d) OSI reference model
d) OSI reference model

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding OSI Basics
Explanation: The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model is used to define how data communication occurs on computer networks. This model is divided into layers, each of which provides services to the layers above and below. These layers are associated with protocols and devices.
Which layer in the OSI model do MAC addresses and switches use?
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Network
d) Transport
b) Data Link

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: The Data Link layer establishes, maintains, and decides how transfer is accomplished over the Physical layer. Devices that exist on the Data Link layer are network interface cards and bridges. This layer also ensures error-free transmission over the Physical layer under LAN transmissions.
Which layer in the OSI model covers routing between networks?
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Network
d) Transport
c) Network

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: The Network layer is dedicated to routing and switching information to different networks, LANs, or internetworks.
Which layer in the OSI model is used to verify that data was delivered without error?
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Network
d) Transport
c) Network

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: The Network layer ensures error-free transmission between hosts through logical addressing. Therefore, it manages the transmission of messages through layers 1 through 3.
Which layer in the OSI model covers HTTP, FTP, and RDC?
a) Physical
b) Session
c) Application
d) Presentation
c) Application

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: The Application layer is where message creation—and, therefore, packet creation—begins. Database access is on this level. End-user protocols such as FTP, SMTP, TELNET, and RAS work at this layer.
Which layer of the OSI model is used to create a connection so that a host can transfer files?
a) Physical
b) Session
c) Application
d) Presentation
b) Session

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: The Session layer governs the establishment, termination, and synchronization of sessions within the OS over the network and between hosts.
Which layer of the OSI model includes VLANs?
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Network
d) Transport
b) Data Link

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Layer 2 Switching
Explanation: Layer 2 switching can also allow for a virtual LAN (VLAN) to be implemented. A VLAN is implemented to segment the network, reduce collisions, organize the network, boost performance, and—hopefully—increase security.
Which protocol do you use as the transport protocol for a video application?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) FTP
d) RDC
b) UDP

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Defining the Upper OSI Layers
Explanation: User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless protocol with little overhead and increased performance over TCP. Streaming media enables us to watch or listen in real time. So, if a packet is lost, we don't really care, because that time frame of the video or music has already passed. Of course, if the packet loss becomes too severe, the streaming media becomes incomprehensible.
Which port categories include inbound ports of HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and DNS?
a) well-known ports
b) registered ports
c) dynamic ports
d) private ports
a) well-known ports

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining the Upper OSI Layers
Explanation: Well-known ports are used when another computer wants to connect to a service or application running on your computer. These ports range from 0 to 1023 and define commonly used protocols such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and DNS.
What layer in the OSI model is responsible for logging on and off?
a) Physical
b) Session
c) Application
d) Presentation
b) Session

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: The Session layer governs the establishment, termination, and synchronization of sessions within the OS over the network and between hosts. When you log on, you are creating a session while on the network.
What layer in the OSI model is used to encrypt data?
a) Physical
b) Session
c) Application
d) Presentation
d) Presentation

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Reviewing the OSI Layers
Explanation: The Presentation layer covers both compression and encryption.
Which layer in the OSI model includes the cable and network adapters?
a) Physical
b) Session
c) Application
d) Presentation
a) Physical

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Reviewing the OSI Layers
Explanation: Layer 1 covers cables, adapters, hubs, and patch-down panels.
How many layers does the TCP/IP model have?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
b) 4

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the TCP/IP Model
Explanation: The TCP/IP (or TCP) model is similar to the OSI model. It is often used by software manufacturers who are not as concerned with how information is sent over physical media, or how the data link is actually made. This model is composed of only four layers.
Which layer in the OSI model is included in the TCP/IP model?
a) Physical
b) Data Link
c) Transport
d) Application
c) Transport

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the TPC/IP Model
Explanation: In the TCP/IP model, the OSI Physical layer is skipped altogether, and the Application layer comprises the OSI application, presentation, and session layers. The Transport layer is the only one from the OSI model that also appears in the TCP/IP model.
Which protocol is used to translate IP addresses to MAC addresses?
a) RARP
b) ARP
c) DNS
d) WINS
b) ARP

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Layer 2 Switching
Explanation: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to convert IP addresses to MAC addresses, which are the physical addresses found on a network card.
What ports are defined above 49,152?
a) well-known ports
b) registered ports
c) dynamic ports
d) sliding ports
c) dynamic ports

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Upper OSI Layers
Explanation: Dynamic ports, also known as private ports, can be used by applications, but they cannot be registered by vendors. Dynamic ports are from port 49152 to 65535.
A layer 3 switch is similar to a __________.
Answer: router

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Layer 3 Switching
Explanation: Switches reside on the network layer. A layer 3 switch varies from a layer 2 switch in that it determines paths for data using logical addressing (IP addresses) instead of physical addressing (MAC addresses). Layer 3 switches are similar to routers.
TCP/IP and IPX/SPX are known as _________ stacks.
Answer: protocol

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: Sometimes a protocol suite such as TCP/IP is referred to as a protocol stack.
What is the advantage of UDP over TCP?
Answer: UDP has less overhead, which allows for faster performance.

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: The Upper OSI Layers
Explanation: Two common TCP/IP protocols used on the Transport layer include the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which is a connection-oriented protocol, and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP), which is connectionless.
What are the seven layers found in the OSI model, in order?
Answer: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Layers in the OSI Model
Explanation: Defining how the computers are connected together, as well as how they actually transmit data, is important. The OSI model layers provide that definition.
What is the most common cable used today?
a) UTP
b) STP
c) Coaxial
d) Fiber
a) UTP

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) is the cable most commonly used in local area networks. It's relatively easy to work with, flexible, efficient, and fast.
If you are making a crossover cable and one end is 568A, what should the other end be?
a) 568A
b) 568B
c) 568C
d) BOGB
b) 568B

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Crossover cable is used to connect like devices to each other—for example, a computer to another computer, or a switch to another switch. With the crossover cable, the patch cable is wired with the 568B standard on one side and the 568A standard on the other.
. If you want to connect a computer directly to another computer without using a switch, you use a __________.
a) straight-through cable
b) crossover cable
c) laplink cable
d) rollover cable
b) crossover cable

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: A crossover cable is used to connect like devices to directly each other.
You need to connect a twisted-pair cable to the back of a patch panel. What tool should you use?
a) punch-down tool
b) zip tool
c) wire wedge
d) soldering iron
a) punch-down tool

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: The tools necessary to make the connections between patch panels and RJ45 jacks include a cutting tool, a wire stripper, a punch-down tool, and a continuity tester.
. What is the minimum category of twisted-pair cable you need to support 100 Mbps?
a) Category 3
b) Category 5
c) Category 5e
d) Category 6
b) Category 5

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Twisted-pair cables are categorized according to the frequency at which they transmit signals and their data transfer rate or speed. To support 100 Mbps, you need to use a minimum of category 5. The maximum length is 100 m.
When you pick up your wireless phone, your computer drops network connectivity. What could be the cause of the problem?
a) EMI
b) RFI
c) network adapter failure
d) cable failure
b) RFI

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Wireless adapters/networks use 2.4 or 5.0 GHz, which is the same frequency that wireless phones use. Therefore, if both operate at the same time, you have radio frequency interference (RFI).
You are setting up a network within a warehouse using Category 6 UTP. However, parts of the network are down because of the heavy machinery used. What cable type should you use?
a) STP
b) coaxial
c) fiber
d) plenum-rated
c) fiber

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Electromagnetic interference (EMI) is a disturbance that can affect electrical circuits, devices, and cables due to electromagnetic conduction and possibly radiation. To overcome this, you should use fiber cabling, which uses light instead of electrical signals.
What do you call it when electrical signals jump to another set of wires?
a) EMI
b) RFI
c) crosstalk
d) jumpitis
c) crosstalk

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: A common type of interference is crosstalk, in which the signal that is transmitted on one copper wire or pair of wires creates an undesired effect on another wire or pair of wires.
What type of cable should be used as part of a fire code for a building?
a) STP
b) PVC
c) heat protected
d) plenum-rated
d) plenum-rated

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Cables that are installed inside walls or above drop ceilings where they cannot be accessed by sprinkler systems in the case of a fire should be plenum-rated or low-smoke rated. Plenum-rated cables have a Teflon coating that makes them more impervious to fire.
Which of the following is not a fiber connector?
a) FC
b) LC
c) RJ-45
d) MT-RJ
c) RJ-45

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Fiber connectors include FC, LC, MT-RJ, SC, and ST. RJ-45 is used for UTP cables.
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber?
a) Single-mode fiber supports longer distances than multimode fiber.
b) Single-mode fiber has increased bandwidth than multimode fiber.
c) Single-mode supports only a ring topology.
d) Single mode allows multiplexing of electrical and light signals.
a) Single-mode fiber supports longer distances than multimode fiber.

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: With single-mode fiber, you send one signal. As a result, the single mode can communicate over multi-mode.
What is the maximum speed supported by 802.11b?
a) 1 Mbps
b) 10 Mbps
c) 11 Mbps
d) 54 Mbps
c) 11 Mbps

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Wireless Networking Standards
Explanation: 802.11b runs at 2.4 GHz and supports up to 11 Mbps.
What is the maximum speed supported by 802.11g?
a) 1 Mbps
b) 10 Mbps
c) 11 Mbps
d) 54 Mbps
d) 54 Mbps

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Wireless Networking Standards
Explanation: 802.11g runs at 2.4 GHz and supports up to 54 Mbps.
What of the following is not a characteristic of 802.11n?
a) frame aggregation
b) channel bonding
c) RFI protection
d) MIMO
c) RFI protection

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Wireless Networking Standards
Explanation: 802.11n is superior to older WLAN standards in the following ways: Multiple-Input Multiple-Output (MIMO), frame aggregation, and channel bonding.
Which is the most secure encryption used in wireless networks?
a) WEP
b) WPA
c) WPA2
d) 802.1x
c) WPA2

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Wireless Networking Standards
Explanation: Several types of encryption are available for wireless networks, but the most secure is WPA2 when used with AES.
What is used to identify a wireless network?
a) network ID
b) frequency identifier
c) wireless password
d) SSID
d) SSID

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying Wireless Networking Standards
Explanation: When utilizing infrastructure mode, the base unit (normally a WAP) will be configured with a service set identifier (SSID). This then becomes the name of the wireless network and it is broadcast over the airwaves. Thus, when clients want to connect to the WAP, they can identify it by the SSID.
To test a cable, you would use a _____________.
Answer: continuity tester

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: To make the connections between patch panels and RJ45 jacks you need a cutting tool, a wire stripper, a punch-down tool, and a testing device known as a continuity tester, which tests all connection pins one by one.
organizations, using ___________ authentication for wireless networks is recommended.
Answer: 802.1X

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: One way to secure a wireless connection is to use IEEE 802.1X,a port-based network access control (PNAC). This provides strong authentication to devices that need to connect to the WLAN; it can also be used for regular wired LANs.
When a signal degrades as it runs through a wire, you have ________.
Answer: attenuation

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying and Working with Twisted-Pair Cable
Explanation: Generally, you can run twisted-pair cables 100 meters before the signal degrades to such a point that it cannot be interpreted by the destination host. This is known as attenuation. If a cable needs to be run farther, you can use a signal repeater, a hub, or switch. Otherwise, fiber-optic cable is the solution because you can run it much farther than twisted-pair cable.
What mode users a wireless access point?
Answer: infrastructure mode
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Infrastructure
Explanation: Infrastructure mode occurs when wireless clients connect to and are authenticated by a wireless access point, which can be expanded by creating a wireless distribution system—a group of WAPs interconnected wirelessly.
What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network?
a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.255.255.255
b) 255.255.0.0

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: The IPv4 classification system is known as the classful network architecture and is broken down into five sections. Class B has a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.
You have a host with the address of 180.24.45.120. To what class would this be address be assigned?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
b) Class B

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: Class B begins with 128-191.
For IPv4, what class is used for multicasting?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
d) Class D

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: Class D is used for what is known as multicasting—transmitting data to multiple computers (or routers).
What is the maximum number of hosts you can use for each subnet that belongs to a class C address?
a) 128
b) 254
c) 256
d) 65,534
b) 254

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: A class C has 8 bits left for hosts. Therefore, 2^8 is equal to 256. But since you cannot use all 0s (network address) and all 1s (broadcast address), a class C will only support up to 254 hosts.
What type of address is 202.23.2.255?
a) multicast address
b) broadcast address
c) unicast address
d) anycast address
b) broadcast address

Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: The broadcast address is used to communicate with all hosts on the network. It is defined as all host bits are 0 (0000 0000).
What type of address is used to send a single set of packets to multiple hosts?
a) multicast address
b) broadcast address
c) unicast address
d) anycast address
a) multicast address

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: Multicasting addresses are used to transmit data to multiple computers (or routers).
Which of the following is not a private address?
a) 10.4.24.24
b) 172.16.36.45
c) 192.168.34.3
d) 200.23.34.120
d) 200.23.34.120

Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: Private IP addresses are hidden from the Internet and any other networks. They are usually behind an IP proxy or firewall device. Several ranges of private IP addresses have been reserved by the IANA. Private address are 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 to 172.16.255.255 and 172.31.255.255 and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255.
8. What type of address is 169.254.32.23?
a) APIPA
b) multicast address
c) anycast address
d) broadcast address
a) APIPA

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: Microsoft developed one type of private range for use on small peer-to-peer Windows networks. This private range, called Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), uses a single Class B network number: 169.254.0.0.
You have a computer that cannot connect to a server. When you look at the IP configuration, the host has an address of 169.32.54.2. What is the problem?
a) The host cannot find a DHCP server.
b) The host is set to multicast.
c) The host is currently broadcasting.
d) The host cannot find a domain controller.
a) The host cannot find a DHCP server.

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference:
Explanation: If a Windows client cannot get an IP address from a DHCP server and has not been configured statically, it auto-assigns an APIPA number on the network.
What defines the nearest router for a host?
a) subnet mask
b) default gateway
c) DNS server
d) WINS server
b) default gateway

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Default Gateways and DNS Servers
Explanation: The default gateway is the first IP address of the device that a client computer will look for when attempting to gain access outside the local network. This device could be a router, server, or other similar device; it is the device that grants access to the Internet or other networks.
What server is used to translate host names to IP addresses?
a) DNS
b) WINS
c) HOSTS
d) DHCP
a) DNS

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Default Gateways and DNS Servers
Explanation: The DNS server address is the IP address of the device or server that resolves DNS addresses to IP addresses.
What is used to remap private addresses to public addresses and back?
a) DNS
b) DHCP
c) WINS
d) NAT
d) NAT

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Network Address Translation
Explanation: Network address translation (NAT) is the process of modifying an IP address while it is in transit across a router, computer, or similar device. This is usually so one larger address space (private) can be remapped to another address space, or perhaps remapped to a single public IP address.
What do you call a smaller network that is part of a larger network?
a) host
b) broadcast domain
c) cluster
d) subnet
d) subnet

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Subnetting
Explanation: Subnetting is the act of dividing a network into smaller logical subnetworks or subnets.
You have a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What would the CIDR notation be?
a) /16
b) /20
c) /24
d) /28
b) /20

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
Explanation: One example of CIDR would be the IP network number 192.168.0.0/16. The /16 means that the subnet mask has 16 masked bits (or 1s), making 255.255.0.0. Usually, that would be a default Class B subnet mask, but because we are using it with what used to be a Class C network number, the whole address becomes classless.
. How many bits is an IPv6 address?
a) 32
b) 48
c) 64
d) 128
d) 128

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding IPv6
Explanation: The top reason to use IPv6 is address space. IPv6 is a 128-bit system, whereas its still-dominant predecessor IPv4 is only a 32-bit system. While IPv4 can have approximately 4 billion IP addresses in the whole system, IPv6 can have 340 undecillion addresses.
What type of address is 2001:4212:0000:34DB:0000:0000:0000:4231?
a) MAC address
b) IPv4
c) IPv6
d) anycast address
c) IPv6

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding IPv6
Explanation: IPv6 addresses are also hexadecimal in format and divided into eight groups of four numbers each, with each group separated by a colon.
A __________ address is assigned by a DHCP server.
Answer: dynamic

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: Most commonly, computers are set up to obtain an IP address (and other IP information) automatically. In this example of a dynamic IP address, the computer broadcasts out to the network in an attempt to find a DHCP server, whether it's a four-port SOHO router, DHCP server, or other appliance. The server then replies with the required information.
What is the loopback IP address?
Answer: 127.0.0.1

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Categorizing IPv4 Addresses
Explanation: The range for Class A is 0-127. However, the 127 network number isn't used by hosts as a logical IP address. Instead, this network is used for loopback IP addresses, which allow for testing.
What IPv6 address incorporates IPv4?
Answer: IPv4-mapped addresses

Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Defining the Dual IP Stack
Explanation: IPv4-mapped addresses have the first 80 bits set to 0 (note the double colon), the next 16 set to 1 (shown as ffff), and the last 32 bits populated by the IPv4 address. These addresses look like IPv6 addresses, other than the last 32 bits, which are written in the customary dot-decimal notation. For example, ::ffff:192.0.2.128 represents the IPv4 address 192.0.2.128.