T or F - The second letter of the two-letter group at the beginning of a target number is assigned from battalion level to company level?
What is an Essential Fire Support Task?
Task for fire support to accomplish that is required to support a combined arms operation.
T or F - Because of the size of the effects pattern for ICM, deviation shifts of less than 50m and range corrections of less than 100m should not be made.
An observer can estimate distance to an exploding round by using the flash to bang method. He does this by multiplying the speed of sound by the number of seconds it takes the sound of detonation to reach him. The speed of sound is _____ meters per second?
Which type of smoke mission would be used to mask friendly movement?
T or F - Targets included in a group may not be attacked individually?
When locating a target using Shift from a Known Point method the observer is:
Describing the target location in relation to a point of known location
When additional accuracy is required, the observer should try to obtain a ____ target location.
8 digit grid
Some of the keys to acquiring an accurate target location are:
Self-locating to within 100 meters every time you move. Ensuring a planned target is always a recognizable point on the ground.
The observer announces the difference in the vertical shift if it is greater than ___ meters.
The formula used to compute the angular deviation between the OT line and the known point is:
The mil-relation formula
To determine the OT factor the observer must divide distance to the target by:
The five methods of determining direction are :
Estimating, scaling from a map, using a compass, measuring from a reference point and using other measuring devices
Using the flash to bang method of determining distance to the target, you count 11 seconds from the flash to the bang. What is the estimated distance?
You know that the side view of a BMP is 6.8 meters and you measure it as being 2 mils in your binoculars. What is the estimated distance to the BMP?
If you are estimating the distance using a wood line and you can see the tree trunks, main branches are distinguishable, foliage appears as a smooth surface and the outline of foliage of separate trees are distinguishable, the estimated distance is ______.
You know that the front view of a T-72 tank is 3.6 and you measure it as being 4 mils in your binoculars, what is the estimated distance to the tank?
The first thing you draw on the terrain sketch is:
Where should you write the name, date, and location on the terrain sketch?
Bottom right corner
T or F - Description, Direction, Distance, Altitude, Grid are the five items used to label a T on a terrain sketch.
T or F - The observer should continually update his terrain sketch.
The radial arm of an OF fan extends to a measurement of _______ meters.
There are ___ radial arms that are 100 mils apart on an OF fan.
Using the hand measurement of angular deviation, 3 fingers represent ____ mils.
How many elements to the call-for-fire are there?
You are engaging mortars in defilade and wish to shoot high angle. In which element would you request high angle?
Method of engagement
You are adjusting a time round and the spotting is a graze. What is your automatic correction after already having a previous airburst?
You are doing a precision registration and have your 2 rounds over and 2 rounds short. the last round fired was nearest to the registration point, what is your refinement?
No range refinement
You are conducting the time portion of an impact and time registration and spot one airburst and 3 graze bursts. What is your correction?
When conducting a mortar registration and the observer breaks the 50 meter bracket, what is his next correction?
Refinement, record a registration point, EOM
How many methods are there for determining speed of a moving target?
You are conducting an adjustment of a Final Protective Fire and the firing unit has just fired the first volley. Which round do you use to begin the adjustment?
The flank piece impacting closest to the FPF line
The planning size (width and depth) of an FPF of a 105 mm 6 gun battery is ____ meters by ___ meters.
You are conducting an illumination mission and your illumination round burns out 20 above the ground and your OT factor is 3, what is your correction?
If during the FFE phase of a CFF, your rounds are inaccurate and sufficient, what are the Observer's actions?
Refinement, end mission and surveillance
Name the three portions of the CFF Warning Order.
Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location.
The AH-64 is capable of firing ___.
2.75 inch FFAR, 30mm cannon, and Hellfire missiles
The armed OH-58D can carry what type of machine guns?
What is line eight of the nine line brief format to request CAS?
Location of Friendly unit's
In order for the air craft to attack the ground, the observer must announce:
The AC-130 H model is armed with:
1 x 40mm gun, 2 x 20 mm guns, and 1 x 105 mm howitzer
The Initial Point (IP) is the :
Point at which the aircraft starts its timed run at the target
Once the aircraft is within communication range, the fighter transmits a ____ to the observer controller.
Fighter check-in brief
A naval gunfire call for fire is sent in ______ transmissions.
When sending your 9 line CAS Briefing, friendly location is sent how?
Cardinal direction and distance in meters from the target to the nearest friendly
When transmitting line 4 of the 9 line CAS Briefing, it is sent in _____.
Feet above MSL 3-09.30, p 10-53
This command is sent to the observer by the ship to report the last salvo was fired with incorrected data.
What is a trigger?
A trigger is a physical location (point, object, or terrain feature) or event or action that is used in determining when to initiate fires.
A ___ is a line between two converging forces, No fires ( direct or indirect) or their effects across the line are allowed without coordination with the affected force.
RFL 3-09.30, p 1-20
T or F - Boundaries are considered permissive and restrictive fire support. Coordination measures.
A ___ is an area in which any weapon system can fire conventional or improved munitions without additional coordination.
FFA 3-09.30 p 1-19
A coordinated fire line (CFL) is established by a ___.
Both a and c. Brigade or higher headquarters & Maneuver battalion operating individually
A _______ is an area into which no fires or their effects may be delivered except on a mission-by-mission basis after coordination with the establishing headquarters.
NFA 3-09.30, p 1-21
The two types of airspace coordination areas are ____ and _____.
Informal / Formal
Clearance of fires is the process of what?
Approving or obtaining approval for attacking targets with indirect fires
A ____ is a concise, easy planning tool, which shows the many factors of a complicated fire support plan and it helps the FSO and the commander understand how the fire plan supports and scheme of maneuver.
Fire support execution matrix
The maximum rate of fire for 60mm mortars is ____ rounds per minute for ___ minutes.
The maximum range for a M119 105mm howitzer is ____ meters.
T or F - The basic fire support tasks are the follows: support forces in contact, support the concept of operations, synchronize fir support, and sustain fire support operations.
T or F - The mission of Fire Support is the collective and coordinated employment of the fires of armed aircraft, land- and sea-based indirect fire systems, and electronic warfare (EW) systems against ground targets to support land combat operations.
A ____ is a target that appears during combat and against which fires have not been planned, it can be reached by ground, naval or aircraft fire.
Target of Opportunity
A linear target symbol indicates that the target is more than ___ meters but less than ___ meters.
T or F - A program is the predetermined sequential attack of targets of a similar nature. It may be executed on call, at a specific time or when a particular event occurs.
T or F - Fire support coordination measures are designed to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and at the same time provide safeguards for friendly forces.
T or F - One of the three control measures for CAS missions is the initial point. The initial point is the point that the aircraft makes his initial contact with the observer.
The two types of precision mission's are ____ and ____.
Precision Registration & destruction
What is the preferred artillery munition when attacking tanks?
What is the max range in meters for the M119 Howitzer firing RAP?
What is the max range in meters for the M198 Howitzer ifring RAP M549A1?
What is the max range in meters for the M224 / 60mm mortar firing HE?
What is the max range in meters for the M252 / 81mm Mortar firing HE?
What is the max range in meters for the M120 / 120 MM mortar firing HE?
Name the two methods of crater analysis for low angle (artillery) fire?
Fuze Furrow, Side Spray Method
The maximum range for detecting for the Q36 is __ for artillery and mortars and ___ for rockets in kilometers.
12 / 24
What DA Form is used to record a standard shelling and bomb report?
The Q-36 is optimized to locate which type weapons systems?
Mortars 3-09.30, p 1-34
How many mils can the Q36 search at one time?
Name the 15 Subsequent Corrections.
OT Direction, Danger Close, Trajectory, Method of Fire, Distribution, Projectile, Fuze, Volume, Deviation Correction, Height of Burst Correction, Target Description, Method of Control, Splash, Repeat.
T or F - With regards to techniques for sharing targeting data between Co/Bn/Bde FSEs, quick fire planning differs from deliberate fire planning in that during deliberate fire planning a majority of required targeting data is passed "top down" while during quick fire planning this targeting data is usually accomplished by "bottom up" techniques?
Define fire support planning
Fire Support Planning - is the continual process of analyzing, allocating, and scheduling fire support.
OT is a factor is computed using the ___ and therefore he observer must divide distance to the target by ___ before multiplying times his deviation spotting in mils to move rounds onto adjusting point:
Mil-relation formula, 1000
T or F - The sustained rate of fire for 105mm howitzer is three (3) rounds per minute.
Capabilities of 120mm mortar system include a max rate of fire of ___, sustained rate of fire of __ and a maximum range of __.
15rds for first 4 minutes; 4rds per min; 7,200 meters.
What is the standard FPF depth for the following weapons systems? 60mm, 81mm, 120mm, & 105mm.
60mm/30m - 81mm/50m - 120mm/75m - 105mm/35m
T or F - A weapon system can typically handle more than one FPF at a time?
Name the five methods of target location.
Polar Plot, Laser Polar, Grid, Laser Grid, Shift from Known Point
A call for fire (CFF) is a concise message prepared by the observer. It contains all information needed by the FDC to determine the method of target attack; a standard call for fire is conducted in how many transmissions? What are the elements of a CFF?
3; they are observed ID, warning order, target location, target description, method of engagement, and method of fire & control
Which of the following is not a principle of fire support?
Use the most destructive means available
List the three essential elements that must be addressed when developing a "Task" for your fires paragraph? Write an example of a doctrinally correct "Task".
Objective, Formation, Function, "Disrupt the ability of enemy observers to place accurate IDF on breaching element"
What is the memory aid used when developing your "method" for a standard fires paragraph?
Priority, Allocation, and Restrictions
What basic question does the "Method" portion of a fires paragraph answer?
How the Task & Purpose will be accomplished
T or F - The "Effect" portion of a standard fires paragraph attempts to quantify the successful accomplishment of the task and provides the basis for the assess function in D3A.
Describe the difference between a Concept of Fires and a Scheme of Fires.
Concept of fires is a logical sequence of EFSTs, integrated with scheme of maneuver to achieve cdr's intent; Scheme of Fires is a detailed and logical sequence of targets and FS events used to find and attack HPT in time and space,
A tactical task is a clearly defined measurable activity accomplished by individuals and organizations which contributes to the accomplishment of encompassing missions: the following is not a tactical task;
Contain, Delay, Raid
What are the standard offensive operations?
MTC, Attack, Exploitation, Pursuit
Which is not a form of maneuver?
T or F Fire planning for a deliberate attack typically adheres to the top-down with bottom-up refinement methodology.
Triggers are an essential part of fire plan development for offensive operations; what is the basic computational formula (math step) for triggering the initiation and shifting of fires?
[processing time (s)+transmission time (s)+TOF(s)]=total msn time x enemy speed (m/s)
During offensive operations, FSOs/FSNCOs should be prepared to plan fires ISO breaching operations using SOSR-A; what does the acronym SOSR-A mean?
Suppress, Obscure, Secure
What is the purpose of suppression fires in SOSR-A?
Protect forces moving to breach, reducing obstacles, isolate the breach, soften initial foothold
Which are considerations for the FSO/FSNCO during planning for breaching operations?
Use of Scouts/Observers and other ISR platforms to set conditions and identify penetration, suppression, and obscuration. Plan for target handoff between units. Plan for on-call fires. Plan for Shifting in priority of fires between support and assault forces. Plan for smoke to obscure movement of friendly forces. Protection of friendly forces waiting to move through breach lane. Plan for deception fires.
Preparation fires can be used for what purpose?
Obscure friendly movements, destroy enemy security forces, deceive the enemy as to the location of the main effort. Weaken or neutralize enemy reserves. Attrite enemy indirect fire assets and prevent enemy repositioning of reinforcements.
Name three of the four purposes for using smoke as an observer?
Obscuration, Screening, Deception, Signaling
What are the two delivery techniques for the use of smoke?
Quick smoke, Immediate Smoke
Which of the following are factors influencing the effectiveness of smoke?
Weather, Atmospheric stability, Wind speed, and wind direction
T or F - Immediate smoke is typically employed against a small area while quick smoke is typically employed against a larger area requiring the observer to inform his firing unit of the target length, the target attitude, the wind direction, and the length of time the smoke is required.
When adjusting a quick smoke mission onto a targeted location, what round is used in your initial adjustment phase? When do you switch adjusting rounds?
HE, 200m bracket
During a movement-to-contact, FSOs/FSNCOs should consider planning fires;
On critical points along the axis of advance (CPs, Flanks, Key terrain)
Name the three types of defensive operations.
Area, Mobile, Retrograde
Considerations for planning defensive fires include the following:
Plan FS early and throughout the entire defensive sector. Plan counter reconnaissance fires. Plan fires in support of engagement areas (Eas). Plan offensive fires.
T or F - While in the defense, FSOs/FSNCOs should plan for redundant observers to trigger or execute essential fires task
Tor F - While in the defense; it is acceptable to position BN/CO mortars forward initially to allow for deeper engagements of enemy forces.
Where is illumination typically plan in defensive operations? Why?
Normally indirect fires would be used to reinforce which type of wire obstacles?
Tactical and Supplementary
T or F - Fire support assets are generally more responsive in supporting defensive operations when they are centrally controlled
The planning size (width and depth) of an FPF of a 120 mm 4 gun mortar platoon is ____ meters by ___ meters.
What fuze setting should be used while adjusting your FPF? Why?
Delay; Safety of troops
While adjusting your 105mm FPF (manual FDC, platoon 4 gun), you notice in the first volley that Gun #1 and Gun #3 within the sheaf impacted closest to your planned FPF line which gun do you adjust first?
T or F - When planning an FPF, the FSO/FSNCO should ensure the indirect FPF is fully integrated with his maneuver commander's direct fire weapons plan with consideration for final protective line, primary direction of fire, grazing fire and mostly likely/most dangerous avenue of approach for the enemy.
T or F - "Attached" means that those individuals/teams/units are placed under control of a different HQ for the purpose of tactical operations on a temporary basis; this HQ commands and controls, but does not provide logistics, admin, or personnel support.
What is SEAD (acronym) and purpose for SEAD?
Suppress, Enemy, Air Defense; Cover ingress and egress prior to AC reaching threat until out of threat fan
What are the two methods an FSO/FSNCO will use to execute SEAD?
On-Call and time.
"Method" describes how a task will be accomplished by assigning responsibility to observers and delivery assets, as well as, providing amplifying information or restrictions. Typically the method is described by covering three categories, what are they?
Priority, Allocation, and Restrictions.
T or F - The FSO will determine the firing unit(s) to attack and the method of attack for each target using the target list work sheet, overlays and commander's guidance.
A priority target is annotated on the target list work sheet by placing the words "FA PRI TGT" or "Mortar PRI TGT" in the remarks column. What else should be specified in remarks block of a target list worksheet?
Shell/fuze combinations and number of volleys
What are the standard three products required of all fire support plans?
FSEM, Overlay, TLW
On a Target List Work Sheet, work columns are used for what?
Prescribe method of fire; for example preparation, counter preparation, groups, series, and programs.
On a schedule of fires worksheet the time block contains the actual scheduling data for each target within a schedule to depict duration of fire; usually labeled in 1 minute intervals. A dot on your schedule of fires worksheet represents what?
Time of Impact
T or F - Two or more targets on which simultaneous fires are desired is known as a "SERIES".
FSCMs are designed to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and provide safeguards for friendly forces. What are the two types of FSCMs?
T or F - An "RFL" is a line established between converging friendly forces that prohibits fires, or their effects, across the line without coordination with the affected force.
An area with specific restrictions in which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination wit the establishing headquarters is called what?
Restricted Fire Area (RFA)
What are the TWO types of Close Air Support (CAS) requests?
Immediate and Preplanned
What are 3 out of 4 Field Artillery Standard Tactical Missions?
Direct Support, General Support, General Support Reinforcing
The roles of the Field Artillery are Close Support and Attack in Depth and _____ ?
The Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL) may be established by ____ ?
An Informal ACA is MOST often used and is preferred. It can be established by a Task Force Commander or Higher Level HQ's and normally IS NOT depicted on charts and maps. It can be established by using ___, ____, or ___ or any combination of these separations.
Lateral, Altitude or Time
While conducting the impact portion of a Registration, what are the automatic refinement corrections for the following? If the registration point is nearest to the round(s) first fired _____ , if the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds _____ , if the registration point in nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket ____.
No refinement, Add or Drop 10, Add or Drop 20
In what Element of the Call For Fire does DANGER CLOSE belong?
Method of engagement
During a Shift From a Known Point Call For Fire the range shift (add or drop) is expressed to the nearest ____ meters and the vertical shift (up or down) is expressed to the nearest ___ meters?
When Adjusting an FPF while using a manual FDC, after the first rounds have impacted, which gun is adjusted first?
Closest Flank Gun
NORMAL Mission reaction times for Priority Targets?
30 to 60 seconds (plus Time of Flight)
NORMAL Mission reaction times for On-Call Targets?
90 to 180 seconds (plus Time of Flight)
NORMAL Mission reaction times for Targets of Opportunity?
150 to 180 seconds (plus Time of Flight)
In a Shift From a Known Point fire mission, WHO needs to know the Observer's location?
The following are some field expedient methods when determining direction?
Shadow Tip Method
T or F - The RAAMS round is fired by the 105 mm Howitzer, and the Anti-Armor mines are based ejected over the Target. After a short delay to allow for the mine to free fall, impact and roll, the magnetically fused mines arm themselves.
The MAXIMUM Range of the AN/PVS-6 MELIOS is?
What are the Danger Close distances for the following Fire Support assets; Mortars __, Naval Gunfire (5inch or smaller) ___, and Artillery __?
600, 750, 600
What is the equation used to Measure Distance using the Flash to Bang?
Elapsed Time between Impact and Sound x 350 = Distance
Using the Hand Measurement of Angular Deviation, what are the following measurements: Whole Hand extended ___, Four Fingers ____, two fingers _____, meters?
300, 125, 70
What is the 1000-meter grid square identifier for Fort Lewis?
What is the Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM) grid for the Yakima Training Center?
Define - Program
The predetermined attack of Targets of a similar nature.
Define - Priority Target
A target on which the delivery of fires takes Precedence over all other fires.
Define - Restrictive Fire Area
An area with specific restrictions and in which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without the coordination through the establishing HGs.
Define - Scheduled Target
A Planned Target on which fire is to be delivered at a specific time.
Define - Series
A number of Targets and/or groups planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a Maneuver Operation.
Define - On-Call Targets
A Planned Target other than a Scheduled Target on which fire is to be delivered when requested.
How many Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCM) are there?
There are EIGHT standard tactical missions of the Field Artillery?
What is the proper definition of GRID NORTH?
North that is established by using the vertical grid lines on a map
The AN/TPQ-36 Fire Finder Radar System is most accurate when used against?
Name the FOUR (4) Characteristics of Smoke?
Obscuring, Screening, Deception, Signaling
How many Cardinal Directions are there?
Which characteristic defines this statement using smoke, "A smoke curtain used on the battlefield between enemy observation points and friendly units to mask maneuvers"?
The MELIOS can determine Ranges from?
50 meters to 9995 meters
What is the MAXIMUM Range of the AN/TPQ-36 Fire Finder Radar System?
Using RAAMS Projectile (Ml78 or M174), How many Anti-armor mines are in each projectile?
Using ADAMS Projectile (M692 or M731), How many Anti-personnel mines are in each projectile?
Of the SEVEN (7) Fire Support Coordination Measures, Which THREE are PERMISSIVE MEASURES?
Coordinated Fire Line, Fire Support coordination Line, and Free Fire Area
Targets acquired within a restrictive Fire Area may be attacked immediately if?
The restraints announced by the establishing headquarters are not violated.
What is the MAXIMUM Range of the AN/TPQ-37 Fire Finder Radar System?
The MTO for a Copperhead mission includes all the following info:
Unit Firing, Number of rounds, Time of Flight
What is the MAXIMUM Range of the M249 SAW?
What is the MAXIMUM Range of a 105mm Howitzer?
HE - 11,500; RAP - 19,500
What is the MAXIMUM Range of a AN/TVQ-2 GNLLD (DISMOUNTED)?
What is the MAXIMUM Range of the AN/TAS-4B Night Sight (DISMOUNTED)?
3 Transmissions in a basic Call for Fire?
Observer ID and Warning Order - Target Location - Target Description, Method of Engagement, and Method of Fire and Control