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Terms in this set (353)
What is the minimum battery voltage? Is that with the PBS On or Off.
o 25.5 volts
o PBS OFF
What lights should be illuminated during the preflight?
o None. Contact maintenance if any light is illuminated, unless specifically directed by an MEL.
What protections do you have in Normal Law?
o High Speed
o High Angle of Attack (AOA alpha protection)
o Load Factor Limitation (+2.5/-1.0)
o Pitch Attitude (30° UP/15 DN)
o Bank Angle (67)
5 What is the difference between a green CB and a black CB?
o Green CBs are monitored by the FWS. If a green CB is out for more than 1 minute, then an ECAM will be generated.
o Black CBs are not directly monitored by the FWS. In this case the component protected by a black CB is monitored directly by the FWS.
How do you charge the batteries if the voltage is below 25.5? How long does it take?
o Select EXT power ON; Place BAT PBs ON; Check ECAM ELEC page that contactors are closed and batteries charging.
o 20 minutes
What is the significance of CBs with red caps?
o WTB CBs. We never reset these CBs.
What is the function of the Audio Switching Panel?
o If a failure of a pilots ACP occurs, the third ACP on the overhead panel can be selected and the pilot can make all ACP selections from the overhead panel.
- ECAM MEMO "AUDIO 3 XFRD" is displayed
When do you use engine anti-ice?
o When OAT (Ground)/TAT (Flight) 10° C or below with visible moisture present
o Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below-40 C SAT)
How does the flight crew command an evacuation?
o Make a PA announcement ("EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE")
o Do not use Command (EVAC) pb
When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it re-charged?
With the Yellow system electric pump
Explain the Allegiant CB reset policy.
o Do not reset a tripped CB in flight.
o On the ground: only reset a CB under the direction of maintenance. Only attempt 1 reset.
o NOTE: Captain can exercise emergency authority and reset a CB, if necessary, for the safe continuation of the flight. Always allowa 5-minute cooling period and ensure a logbook write-up has been completed.
What does a FAULT light in a battery pb indicate?
o Charging current for the corresponding battery is outside normal limits.
With the FAULT light illuminated in the battery pb is the battery contactor open or closed?
When is a full alignment required?
o Before the first flight of the day, or
o When there is a crew change, or
o When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS Coverage is poor on the expected route, or
o When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 h.
o When flight is expected to be conducted in class Il navigation.
With the battery PBs selected what busses are powered (assumes batteries are the only power source)?
o HOT BATTERY BUS 1 and 2 are always powered.
o DC BATTERY BUS
What does ELAC stand for?
o Elevator Aileron Computer
What powers the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic system pressure generated by the RAT
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel?
O Any failure of GPWS basic modes
How do you perform the CVR test?
o RCDR GND CTL pb-sw ............................................................................ ON
- In order to perform the test, ensure that the PARK BRK is on.
o LOUDSPEAKER VOLUME knob .......................... OFF (BOTH SIDES)
o ACP INT/RAD sw (CAPT and F/O ........................................ SET to INT
o INTERPHONE VOLUME RECEPTION KNOB (CAPT and F/O) ....
- Turn down the volume to the minimum.
o CVR TEST pb ......................................................... PRESS AND MAINTAIN
o The CVR test is successful when an audio test signal is heard through the loudspeakers and the
o CVR TEST pb is pressed and maintained.
o Depending on the CVR model, the audio test signal is:
- A continuous tone, or
- A short tone, or
- A short tone and a beep every 4 s, or
- Two short tones and a beep every 4 s
When do the cabin oxygen mask doors automatically open?
o When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
How do you call a mechanic?
o Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.
What do you see when the APU Master Switch?
o Blue light in pb
o APU page appears and the when fully open, FLAP OPEN appears
What is the proper position of the NO SMOKING switch?
What does the DITCHING pb do?
o Closes all valves below the waterline:
C-Cargo Compartment Isolation Valves
A-Avionics ventilation (inlet/extract valves)
R Ram air inlet
P- Pack flow control valves
0-Outflow valve (if in AUTO)
What is the correct position for the NAV light switch?
Position 1 for odd days; Position 2 for even days
What computers monitor and control the pneumatic system?
o 2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
o It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority.
What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
How do we check the battery voltage and charging system?
o Select the ECAM ELEC page.
o Place BAT 1 and BAT 2 PBs to OFF.
o Check that the battery voltage is above 25.5 volts.
o Place BAT 1 and BAT 2 PBs to AUTO.
o Check that both battery charge currents drops below 60 amps within 10 sec.
o Deselect the ECAM ELEC page.
What computers feed data to the six display units?
3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
What is the function of the 2 Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU)?
O Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
o A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
o FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
With BLOWER and EXTRACT PBs in AUTO how does the system typically operate?
o Ground -system is in OPEN configuration
o Flight-system is in CLOSED configuration
o Intermediate -Closed, except Extract Valve is partially open
When does normal pressurization occur?
c. Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?
o No-you must have at least one
What is the normal in-flight fuel management scheme?
o Use center tank first, then the wing tanks.
What is installed on the engine nacelle, core, and pylons for fire detection?
o Fire detection loops
Can you manually deploy the masks?
Yes. Lift the guard and press the MASK MAN ON pb.
Can the pilot control the outflow valve?
Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch
Why is it important to not leave the NO SMOKING switch in the ON position?
Because in the ON position the EXIT signs are illuminated continuously and the battery packs for the cabin emergency lighting cannot charge.
What is the difference between the blue ON light in the start switch and the green AVAIL light?
The blue ON light appears during the start sequence, the green AVAIL light means APU is on speed and start is complete, and APU is available for electric and air.
Are the 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?
o No, they are separate bulbs.
When does the RAT automatically deploy?
o Inflight with a loss of power to AC Bus 1 and 2
What is the purpose of the GND CTL pb? Why do we select it on during preflight?
o Allows the pilot to activate the CVR when the logic has automatically deactivated it. It is G4's policy to record all checklists during preflight.
Does a FAULT light in the SYS PB affect the TERRAIN mode?
How many ELACS on the Airbus?
When is a quick alignment acceptable?
O A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5 NM (see MCDU POSITION MONITOR page).
If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
What is the exception to the rule for engine anti-ice usage?
o During climb and cruise when the temperature is below-40° C SAT
How do you call the forward flight attendant?
o Press the FWD button
o Two lights come on in pink on the related area of the CALLS panel
o CAPT CALL appears on the FWD F/A indication panel
o A green light illuminates
o A high-low chime sounds through the forward cabin loudspeaker
Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed?
o Battery cut-off logic prevents complete discharge when the aircraft is on the ground and unpowered.
What would the large red arrowheads indicate?
o Pitch attitude of +30°, or -15
How many fuel pumps are installed?
o 2 in each inner wing tank
o 2 in center tank
o 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps are off
How many Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?
What redundancy does the FADEC have?
o Dual channel redundancy - one channel is active while the other is standby.
What does each of the DMCS normally supply?
o DMC 1- Captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU
o DMC 2- F/O PFD, ND, lower ECAM DU
o DMC 3- Backup
What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?
By what means is the parking brake activated when you turn ON the Parking Brake switch?
How does the High Speed Protection operate?
o If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch up input to limit aircraft speed.
With both BLOWER and EXTRACT PBs in OVRD, what are the positions the INLET and EXTRACT valves?
- INLET valve CLOSED
- EXTRACT valve OPEN
What happens if one loop fails?
With the APU BLEED ON and the ENG BLEED switches ON with engines running, what is the position of the engine bleed valves?
What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pb?
The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE hydraulic system.
How would you regain control after loss of control authority?
o The last pilot to press the pb on the sidestick will have authority.
o An aural "Priority Left" or "Priority Right" will sound.
What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?
What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pb indicate?
o Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
How many auto pressure controllers?
o 2, only one controller operates at a time and automatic transfer occurs:
- 70s after each landing
- If the operating system fails
What is the logic of the EMER EXIT lights in the ARM position?
o The overhead emergency lights automatically illuminate with a loss of normal aircraft electrical power.
With the APU running and supplying bleed air, how do you shut it down?
o APU BLEED pb OFF
o APU MASTER SW pb OFF
o APU will cool down (60-120 seconds) and then shut down
When would you press the FLAP MODE pb?
o To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3
What happens when you press the EMER pb?
o Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels
o EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels
o High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?
o The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent either automatically manually.
What is the CVR and DFDR automatic activation logic?
o For 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft, or after last engine shutdown. o After first engine start
o Anytime in flight
What is the source of power during RAT deployment and approximately how long does it take?
The aircraft batteries are the sole source of electrical power for the AC and DC Essential Buses until the EMER GEN is online, which takes between 5-10 seconds.
What are the functions of the ELAC?
o Control of the elevators, ailerons, and the trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS).
o The ELACS compute the need for roll spoiler movement (which is sent to the SECS), and rudder yaw movement (which is sent to the FACS).
How is a quick align performed?
o Turn each IR selector OFF and back ON (must occur within 5 seconds for each IR)
o Align on REF
How is the PACK FLOW switch set during cockpit preparation?
- LO: If the number of occupants is below 138
- HI: For abnormally hot and humid conditions
- NORM: For all other normal operating cases
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
o DC BUS 1
When the wing tank fuel pumps run?
o Continuously when in the ON position (lights out).
How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
o A diagonal line will be displayed in the respective DUs (CRT Aircraft) or
o "INVALID DATA" message is displayed on respective DUs (LCD aircraft)
Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?
Can the pilot override High Speed Protection pitch-up? O No
Is it required to depress the brake pedals while setting the Parking Brake?
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
o The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.
What is the power source for the FADEC?
o The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value.
o If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power.
What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and you place the Landing Gear lever to DOWN?
o Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots.
After you input the destination and ILS information into the MCDU, what do you check for?
o After the ILS pb is pressed, green light.
o ILS frequency and course on PFD
o ILS identifier once identified
o LOC and GS scales displayed on PFD
What does the flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?
o Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority.
What fan is OFF in the above situation?
o BLOWER fan OFF
o EXTRACT fan ON
What happens if both fire loops fail?
O If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a FIRE warning will occur.
To start the APU the:
a. BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON
What happens when the F/A's initiate an emergency call?
o On the EMER pb-sw: The amber CALL light flashes
o The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPS
o 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit.
o System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
How do you manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
o All lights OFF
o Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
o When the main landing gear strut is not compressed.
What would cause an amber PACK FAULT light to illuminate?
o Pack Overheat or
o Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve
What method is used to supply passenger cabin supplemental oxygen?
How do you record the F/A's PAs?
O ACP 3 PA VOL knob out, set volume at or above medium range
What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?
o "Too Low Flaps" inhibited for a landing with flaps less than 3.
What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pb indicate?
o The EMER GEN is not supplying power to AC and DC Essential busses.
In the event a single ELAC should fail, what would happen?
o The remaining ELAC is capable of providing complete control of the ailerons, elevators, and THS
When you turn the mode Selectors to NAV, what are you looking for on the panel?
o The ALIGN light illuminates steady
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see on the pb?
Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
o ECAM PARKING BRK memo
o Triple indicator brake pressure
What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pb indicate?
At least 1 generator load is above 100 % rated output.
What controls and manages all braking functions?
o The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
When the Center Tank Pump MODE Select pushbutton is in the AUTO mode (lights out), what is the logic for center tank pump operation?
o With fuel in the center tank the pumps will:
- Perform a momentary self-test after engine start.
- The pumps stop operating after slat extension and resume operation after slat retraction.
- The pumps are automatically shut off a few minutes after the center tank empties.
- They will also shut off momentarily to make room in the wing tanks for IDG cooling return fuel.
What flap/slat configurations corrrespond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
o CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps.
o CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only.
When will the FADEC abort a start?
o Hot start, Hung start
o Stalled start
o No light up
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
o The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display.
What is Alpha Max?
o The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale
What does the MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in red mean?
You are in Mechanical Backup.
6. A/THR in white means that the A/THR is:
What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the sidesticks?
o The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
o An aural "Dual Input" will sound
o Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate
How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?
o 1 Engine
o 1 PTU
How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?
Is Air Conditioning ever introduced into the Avionics Compartment?
Yes-In the SMOKE configuration or Abnormal configuration
How does the GALLEY pb work in AUTO?
o Sheds main galley if inflight with only one generator running
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
o It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment.
What does SEC stand for?
o Spoiler Elevator Computer
If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?
How do cabin occupants activate oxygen flow to their masks?
o Pull the mask toward the seat.
. How do you command an emergency evacuation?
o Make a PA ("EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE")
An amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pb indicates?
o An APU auto shutdown has occurred.
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
The right dome light with the switch in DIM or BRT
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
Can you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?
What does the amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb indicate?
o Bleed leak
What does the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicate?
o Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.
What is center tank fuel pump logic when in MAN mode?
o The pumps operate continuously when they are selected ON with electrical power available.
o No auto shutoff logic
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF?
o Lose NWS
o Braking is powered by the Yellow system
o Anti-skid is deactivated
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
o When the angle of attack exceeds a PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed a max even with full aft sidestick deflection.
When will the Automatic Retraction System operate?
o During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew intervention required?
No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information?
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the SD to either ND.
When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?
o Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch
What does USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM in amber mean?
o You are in Direct Law
What is the function of the LOC pb?
o Arms, engages, or disengages the LOC mode
What does a FAULT light on the BLOWER pb indicate?
o SMOKE Warning is activated
o Computer failure
o Low Blower pressure
o Duct overheat
What does an amber DISCH light mean?
o The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure.
4. The APU is supplied from the:
a. Left fuel feed line
How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?
o 1 Electric
o 1 RAT
What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL FAULT light?
o Failure of the AUTO mode
o Center tank contains more than 550LBS and either main tank has less than 11,000LBS.
What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate?
o The respective IR is in the Align mode.
How many SECS are installed?
Will there be any other indications of avionics smoke on the overhead panel?
o FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER PBs on the VENTILATION panel
How long does the PAX oxygen last?
o Approximately 15 minutes
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb mean?
An APU bleed leak
The LDG ELEV selector in the AUTO position does what?
o The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to construct an optimized pressurization schedule.
What happens if you turn the switch on the ground?
o The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test
What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG BLEED PB?
o Engine bleed temperature or pressure limit exceeded
o Switch/Valve Position disagreement
o Bleed Leak detected
What is the max continuous load rating of the engine and APU generators?
running o 90 KVA
List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed.
o Silences the aural fire warning
o Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
o Closes the hydraulic fire valve
o Closes the LP fuel and engine fuel return valves
o Deactivates the engine generator
o Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW system?
o 1 Engine
o 1 Electric
o 1 PTU
o 1 Hand pump
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?
o Bleed demands
o Approach Configuration
o High engine or IDG temperatures
What Computer normally Commands the operation of the elevators and the horizontal stabilizer?
C. ELAC 2
What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged?
What is Alpha Lock?
This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed.
What is Alpha Floor Protection?
When the AOA exceeds a specific threshold (somewhere between Va PROT and Va MAX) the A/THR is automatically activated and commands TOGA thrust, regardless of TL position.
If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched to OFF what would occur?
The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the lower display.
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
o Normal brakes - Green
o Alternate brakes - Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green = signs?
o Pitch: +30° up/-15° down
o Roll: +/- 67
What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with the adjacent white dot indicate?
o FMGS Managed guidance is in use
What does a FAULT light on the EXTRACT pb indicate?
o SMOKE Warning is activated
o Computer failure
o Low Extract pressure
What does it mean when the IR lights are extinguished?
o Alignment has been completed.
What is the primary responsibility of the SECS?
o Spoiler Control. Each SEC controls one or two pairs of spoilers.
What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pb to OFF? When is this procedure used?
o Generator 1 is isolated from the electrical system network and is only providing power to one fuel pump in each wing fuel tank.
o Smoke Procedures
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
o In a single high-pressure cylinder
Can you use APU bleed air inflight?
o Use of APU Bleed with Wing Anti-Ice is prohibited.
When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?
o After the first engine is started
o If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the MAINTENANCE panel has been pressed with no engine running
What part of the wing is heated?
o Outboard 3 slats
What happens when the Ram Air pb is pressed?
o This pb is used to open the emergency ram air inlet. In the normal position (lights out), the emergency ram air inlet is closed. When the guard is lifted, and the pb depressed, "ON" illuminates blue, and the ram air inlet opens. "RAM AIR ON" is displayed in green on the memo display. Once the cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi, the outflow valve will automatically open (if the cabin MODE SEL pb is in AUTO). The emergency ram air inlet and the outflow valve will not open if ditching has been selected.
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb indicate?
o A fault is detected by the GCU or the pb is selected ON, but the associated engine is not operating.
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks?
When the inner tank quantity reaches a predetermined low level (approx. 1650LBS)
Where does the pressurization system obtain the landing elevation from?
o FMGC Database
7. In the case of dual FMGC failure selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:
b. RMP 1 and 2 only
How many igniters fire during a Normal automatic ground start sequence?
o One igniter with the other serving as a backup
o The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start.
Describe the ENGINE FIRE test.
o CRC sounds and the MASTER WARN lights illuminate.
o On the overhead FIRE panel: ENG FIRE pb illuminates red, SQUIB lights illuminate white, and the DISCH lights illuminate amber.
o On the ENG panel: FIRE light illuminates red.
o On the lower ECAM: ENG page is displayed
o E/WD displays a red engine fire warning and a blue checklist.
What is the RUD TRIM button used for?
o To reset the rudder trim to 0°
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
o The ailerons droop 5 deg
Alpha Floor Protection is a function of what system?
o A/THR o Requires operative A/THR system to operate.
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?
o Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view.
What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes? and
How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?
o Amber Xs at the pitch (30° UP/15° DN) and bank (67°) limits
o Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale
How is Selected guidance engaged?
o Pull the appropriate selector knob.
With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel are there any other indications?
Yes- The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb
What is normal system hydraulic pressure?
What does a flashing white align light mean?
o IR alignment fault (aircraft moved during alignment)
o No present position entered within 10 minutes of NAV selection
Difference of 1° LAT/LONG between shutdown and entered position
What does a FAULT light in an SEC pb mean? What is lost?
o The SEC is inoperative
o The spoiler panels associated with the failed SEC are inoperative.
Is there a way to manually deploy the RAT?
o Yes, the guarded MAN ON pb
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF pb? What would you notice on the DOOr ECAM.
o It opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen.
o The OXY indication changes from amber to green.
When out of the AUTO position, what is different?
The pressurization system uses the manually selected landing elevation.
Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti-ice?
What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is in AUTO?
o When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-Bleed valve is OPEN.
o When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-Bleed valve is CLOSED.
When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light illuminated?
o Prior to engine start
If only one inner tank reaches that low level, what happens to the other transfer valve?
o All 4 transfer valves open.
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?
The engine generators and APU generator are rated at ______ kVA
What do you check on the SD pages during preflight?
o On the DOOR SD page: OXY ...........................................................................CHECK PRESSURE
o On the HYD SD page: RESERVOIR FLUID LEVEL...............CHECK IN NORMAL RANGE
o On the ENG SD page: ENG OIL QUANTITY..................................................CHECK NORMAL
o RCL .................................................................................................................................. PRESS 3 seconds
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?
o Thrust -TOGA
o FMA A. FLOOR
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
o Flaps FULL
How many igniters fire on Manual or In-flight starts?
Both A and B
Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw dampening or turn coordination functions?
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a RTO?
o Airspeed > 72KTS
o Thrust Levers at IDLE
o Ground spoiler extension
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
o The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.
How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs?
o Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
o The FADEC provides passive survey during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
o Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available, except when on ground, and the start EGT limit is exceeded before 50 % N2
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
o Automatically at the next refueling operation.
What does steady illumination of the amber IRU FAULT light indicate?
o A fault affects the respective IR.
Both ELACS fail, can any of the SECS provide backup and of what functions?
o SECS 1 and 2 can provide backup pitch control of the elevators and THS. Aileron control is lost and the ailerons streamline. Roll is accomplished with just the spoilers.
Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb?
No-maintenance function only
How do you deactivate the crew oxygen mask microphone after use?
Close the left door and press the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET switch.
What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE pb indicate?
o Position of the anti-icing control valve is not in the required position.
o Low pressure is detected.
What is the function of the HOT AIR pb?
o The hot air valve controls the supply of hot air to all of the trim air valves which maintain the selected temperature in each zone.
o Valve position is controlled by the HOT AlR pb. The valve automatically closes in the event of a fault.
What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
o The GCU has detected a fault.
Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE pressure?
o No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pb.
List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pb is pressed
o Silences the aural fire warning
o Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
o Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump
o Deactivates the APU generator
o Closes the APU bleed valve and the crossfeed valve
What is denoted by the Blue Triangle? Magenta Dagger? Green Diamond? Yellow Line?
o Blue Triangle Selected heading/track
o Magenta Dagger- Localizer selection
o Green Diamond - Aircraft Track
o Yellow Line-Aircraft actual heading
How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
o Approximately 7 full applications
What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist when the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?
o The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration.
o A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly.
o "TO CONFIG NORMAL" is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct.
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
o Engine flameout detection
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
The spoiler automatically retracts
What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear Extension Handle?
o Removes Green hydraulic pressure
o Opens gear doors
o Releases the uplocks
Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator?
c. AC ESS bus/ AC ESS SHED bus
What occurs during Alpha Floor Protection after speed increases above VLS?
FMA changes to TOGA LK
Will the RAT deploy on the ground id manually deployed?
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?
o Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2 in the preferential order of respective engine, EXT power, APU GEN, opposing engine GEN.
What does flashing illumination of the amber IRU FAULT light indicate?
o Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion).
What does FAC mean?
o Flight Augmentation Computer
Where do you find the minimum flight crew 02 values?
o FCOM LIM-OXY
What does the amber HOT AIR FAULT light indicate?
o Duct overheat. The Hot Air valve closes automatically.
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-lce valves fail if electrical power is lost?
o Wing-valves CLOSE
o Engine -valves OPEN
What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP pb indicate?
o Low fuel delivery pressure
The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:
C. Engine generators, external power, APU
What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pb?
o CRC sounds
o MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
o APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
o SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
o ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off)?
What is the active range of the A/THR?
o Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
o Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?
o Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.
How do you regain normal A/THR?
o Move TL to the TOGA detent
o Press the Instinctive Disconnect Button
o Return TL to the CLB detent
o Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR
If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should you do?
o Obtain ground clearance, then turn ON the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator.
If the wing tank pumps fail, is gravity feeding possible?
What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference part.
How many FACS are installed?
Which exterior aircraft components utilize electrical heating?
o Cockpit windshields and sliding side windows
o AOA, TAT, pitot probes, and static ports.
o Waste water drain masts
How does the system optimize the temperature in each of the three zones?
o Trim Air Valves
- To maintain the selected zone temperature, the trim air valves under control of the zone regulator, add hot air, if necessary, to the air flowing from the mixing unit.
- This allows for air temperatures to be controlled independently in each zone.
What is the logic with the BUS TIE in the OFF position?
o The only power source that can be applied to AC Bus 1 and 2 is their respective engine driven generator. EXT power, APU GEN, and opposing GEN cannot power the network.
What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff when brake fans were ON?
o 150° C
When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO?
o With a difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW pressure
o Self-test between first and second engine start
Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator?
c. AC ESS bus
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in ground?
o Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge.
What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/THR is active?
o The CL detent
What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?
o Nose wheel steering is lost
o Anti-skid is deactivated
o Yellow hydraulic system would supply the brakes
When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
o From lift-off through 100FT RA on approach.
What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves?
o The pack flow control valve will close automatically.
Can the center tank gravity feed?
What is the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic in AUTO (lights out)?
o When the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb is placed in the AUTO (lights out) position, the probes and windows are heated automatically on the ground provided one engine is running or when the aircraft is in flight. NOTE: TAT probes are not heated on the ground.
. Does turning the IR to OFF also turn off the ADR?
What does IDG stand for?
o Integrated Drive Generator
What are the functions of the FACS?
o Auto Turn Coordination
o Yaw Dampening
o Rudder Limiting
o Rudder Trim
o Characteristic Speeds
o Flight Envelope and maneuvering computations
o Alpha Floor protection
o Windshear detection
o Low Energy Warning computation ("SPEED SPEED SPEED")
When is the PTU inhibited?
o PTU pb OFF
o First Engine start
o Parking brake is ON and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
o NWS in towing position and parking brake ON
o Cargo door operation
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in flight?
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
o Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
o Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
o The position detent of the thrust lever
. Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate Law?
If an A/THR disconnect switch is pushed and held for more than ______seconds; the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight; including the _______________
c. 15 Seconds- Alpha floor protection
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another?
o Only on the ground using FCOM procedure
Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?
What happens if you select a FAC pb to OFF?
o Deactivates the corresponding yaw dampening and rudder trim functions to that FAC. If the FAC is still operable, it continues to compute all flight envelope functions and maneuvering speeds.
After engine start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
o APU Bleed
What is the function of the IDG?
o Converts variable engine speed to constant speed for optimum generator operation
During a manual start using the ENG MAN START pb on the overhead panel; will the FADEC abort a start in the event of a detected abnormal condition?
What does a FAULT indication in the PTU pb mean?
o Green or Yellow system:
- Reservoir Fluid Low Level
- Reservoir Overheat
- Reservoir Low Air Pressure
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments?
1 bottle, which can be discharged to either compartment.
How do you accomplish the alternate brake check during preflight?
o Set the PARKING BRK to OFF.
o Step on both brake pedals and ensure proper resistance and deflection and check a minimum of 1000 PSI on BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indictor (L & R)
o Release pressure on the brake pedals.
o Set the PARKING BRK to ON. If required use the HYD YELLOW ELEC PUMP to recharge the brake accumulator (if necessary).
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?
o A/THR pb on FCU (not recommended)
o Instinctive Disconnect buttons
o Thrust Levers to IDLE
If you are in Alternate Law, what law would Roll be?
o Direct Law
If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU for a Reservoir Overheat, will the FAULT light go out
o When the overheat condition no longer exists
With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the Captains PFD?
O Airspeed and Altitude information (outside info)
When does the APU fuel pump run?
When the wing or center tank pumps are not on.
Is the IDG oil system separate from the engine oil system?
Which ignition systems are used during a manual start?
c. Both "A" and "B"
How do you perform the brake check during initial taxi?
o Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows and check the brake pressure on the triple indicator is zero, indicating the Green hydraulic system has taken over!
Can you stall the aircraft in Normal Law?
o Not Normal Law, but the aircraft can be stalled in all other laws
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
o Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect button for 15 seconds.
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pb indicate?
o Both channels detect smoke or
o One channel faulty and the other detects smoke
What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?
o Green for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
o Amber/black (alpha PROT) airspeed tape
Will you be able to restore A/THR?
o No, on ground only after both FMGC power up
How long does the agent provide fire suppression?
If a thrust lever is set between two detents, the FADEC selects the rating limit:
b. Corresponding to the higher mode
Can the YELLOW ELEC PUMP run the PTU?
o Yes, which will then pressurize the Green hydraulic system.
What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?
Some fuel is unusable.
What cools IDG oil?
o Fuel/Oil cooler that utilizes fuel flow from the associated engine fuel supply line.
What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information?
o Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?
o Oil pressure low or high oil temperature
What would be missing on the on the Captain's PFD if IR 1 failed or was turned OFF?
o Attitude and navigation information (Inside Info)
What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber Xs?
o You are not in Normal Law
Name some items that run from the GREEN system on the A-320 (N246NV).
o Landing gear
o Normal Brakes
o Slats and flaps
o #1 Thrust reverser
If you want to open the cabin door, while lifting the control handle the white light illuminates. What does it mean?
c. The slide is still armed
What else will you lose?
o Alpha Floor Protection
What would cause you to revert to alternate law?
o Multiple failures of redundant systems.
When would Thrust Lock occur?
o Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed (OR)
o A/THR disconnects due to a failure
17. If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within ________ seconds of each other a _____________ will occur.
d. 5 sec./a FIRE warning
Name some items that run from only the YELLOW system on the A-320 (N246NV).
o Alternate Brakes
o Parking Brake
o Cargo doors
o #2 Thrust reverser
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
To avoid damage to the disconnect mechanism:
- Do disconnect unless the engine is at or above idle RPM and
- IDG pb should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
What action would recover the attitude and navigation information?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector
What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pb indicate (POLL)?
o P-Pump pressure low
o O-Over-temp in reservoir
o L Low air pressure in the reservoir
o L-Low quantity in the reservoir
What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pb in the normal position?
o If AC BUS 1 is lost AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS
What law are you in when perform the flight control check on the ground?
o Normal Law, Ground Mode
On the ground, what occurs if there is an APU fire?
d. Both A and B
How do you get out of Thrust Lock?
o Move thrust levers out of the detent.
o Move thrust levers to match the desired thrust setting.
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?
o Yes, with mechanical Backup
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?
o Auto Start Abort
o Position of FUEL HP shutoff valve abnormal
o Malfunction of the thrust control
In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:
c. Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged
What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb indicate (POLLO)?
o P-Pump pressure low
o O-Over-temp in reservoir
o L-Low air pressure in the reservoir
o L-Low quantity in the reservoir
o 0-Overheat of Pump
What does the AC ESS FEED pb white ALT light indicate?
o The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2
What condition will cause auto flap retraction?
a. Exceed 210 Kts. at Flaps 1
What is the purpose of the hand pump?
O To provide Yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
Battery charging current is outside limits (BAT contactor opens).
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extend to the position of 1+F on the ground?
c. Ailerons deflect downward 5
When would you expect to see the batteries connected to the BATTERY BUS?
o APU start
o Battery charging
o AC BUS 1 and 2 unpowered (>100KTS), and emergency generator not supplying power.
When a low level is first sensed in one of the wing tank inner cells, a signal is sent to open:
c. All four transfer valves, two in each wing
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft?
o EXT PWR
What portion of the wing can be anti-iced?
c. Only the outboard three slats of each wing
What is the significance of green, red, and black circuit breakers on the flight deck?
o Green - Monitored by ECAM system, will generate ECAM if tripped
o Red - Crew cannot reset (ex: Wing Tip Brakes)
o Black-not monitored, no ECAM message generated if tripped
What does the green dot indicate on the speed tape?
b. Best lift-drag ratio
25. The speed trend vector shows anticipated speed in:
d. 10 seconds
If DMC 1 (Display Management Computer) has failed, can the captain recover any display?
Yes, by manually selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS DMC selector knob on the switching panel
27. Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:
c. Below 100 Kts. and above 260 Kts.
What is managed climb speed above 10,000 feet?
d. ECON climb speed
At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
Bleed air normally comes from the _______________________ _______________ of the engine.
b. Intermediate stage
Maximum operating altitude (ft.) with the Slats / Flaps extended:
Max brake temperature ('C) for takeoff:
Maximum continuous load per generator:
c. 90 kVA
Maximum speed (KIAS) for landing gear retraction (Vio retract):
a. 220 Kts.
What are the different types of flight guidance?
c. Managed and selected
36. In the event of a total electrical power loss
a. The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, anti-icing is ensured
Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
b. Green and yellow
38. The engine driven hydraulic pump FAULT light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off except for:
c. An overheat
The brakes pressure indication on the TRIPLE PRESSURE INDICATOR reads which system pressure?
The APU will automatically shut down and its fire extinguisher will automatically discharge in the event of an APU fire:
b. On the ground
41. When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:
c. Runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient
What does a flashing white ALIGN light at the ADIRS panel indicate?
a. IR alignment fault, or no present position after 10 minutes or difference between position shutdown and entered position exceeds 1" of latitude or longitude
When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves:
a. Close automatically
Temperature regulation for the A-320 is controlled by:
a. One zone controller and two pack controllers
The normal brake systems uses ___________________________ hydraulic pressure and the alternate brake system uses hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake accumulator.
If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be available?
If the upper ECAM fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?
b. Engines and Warning page (E/WD)
If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provides anti-icing for both engines?
From which tanks will fuel gravity feed?
c. Outer cell of the wing tanks and inner cell of the wing tanks
50. The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by:
b. DC Bus 1 through a DC tie control relay
Other sets by this creator
A-320 General Subjects/Memory Items/Limitations
Flight Control Laws
Parking Brake/Aft Pedestal/Nose Wheel Steering
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