107 terms

Anatomy and Physiology Ch 5

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Blood cell formation is called __________.
hematopoiesis
__________ are giant cells that destroy bone.
Osteoclasts
Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called __________ bones.
short
The disease in children whose diets lack calcium or vitamin D, where the bones fail to calcify, is called __________.
rickets
A round or oval hole through a bone, which contains blood vessels and/or nerves, is called a __________.
foramen
A large rounded projection on a bone is called a __________.
tuberosity
A fracture where the bone breaks cleanly but does not penetrate the skin is termed a __________ fracture.
simple or closed
An increase in bone diameter is called __________ growth.
appositional
The only freely movable bone in the skull is the __________.
mandible
The part of the ethmoid bone that contains holey areas with fibers that carry impulses from the olfactory receptors of the nose to the brain is the __________.
cribriform plate
The external acoustic (auditory) meatus is found on the __________ bone.
temporal
The heel bone is called the __________.
calcaneus
The head of the humerus fits into the __________ of the scapula.
glenoid cavity
The disease in which uric acid accumulates in the blood and may be deposited as needle-shaped crystals in the soft tissues of joints is called __________.
gout
The elbow joint is an example of a __________ joint in which movement occurs in only one plane.
hinge
The most important minerals stored in bones are:
A)

calcium and iron
B)

sodium and phosphorus
C)

sodium and potassium
D)

calcium and phosphorus
E)

calcium and potassium
D)

calcium and phosphorus
Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct:
A)

wrist and ankle bones - long bones
B)

arm and leg bones - short bones
C)

skull bones - flat bones
D)

coxal bones - irregular bones
E)

cranium - sesamoid bones
D)

coxal bones - irregular bones
Which of the following bone categories is composed of two layers of compact bone sandwiching a layer of spongy bone between them:
A)

compact bone
B)

irregular bone
C)

flat bone
D)

long bone
E)

sesamoid bone
C)

flat bone
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue fibers called:
A)

Volkmann's canals
B)

a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage
C)

Sharpey's fibers
D)

endochondral bone
E)

articular cartilage
C)

Sharpey's fibers
In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to:
A)

store adipose tissue
B)

form blood cells
C)

store calcium and phosphorus
D)

cause lengthwise growth in long bones
E)

decrease friction at joint surfaces
A)

store adipose tissue
The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:
A)

bone is dead
B)

bone length is no longer increasing
C)

bone diameter is increasing
D)

bone diameter is decreasing
E)

bone length is increasing
E)

bone length is increasing
Osteons are characteristic of __________.
A)

articular cartilage
B)

spongy bone
C)

compact bone
D)

yellow marrow
E)

Sharpey's fibers
C)

compact bone
The bone cells within lacunae receive nourishment from blood vessels through passageways called:
A)

Haversian canals
B)

perforating canals
C)

lamellae
D)

medullary cavities
E)

canaliculi
E)

canaliculi
A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a:
A)

sinus
B)

meatus
C)

fossa
D)

foramen
E)

groove
C)

fossa
A round or oval opening through a bone is a:
A)

facet
B)

fossa
C)

foramen
D)

fissure
E)

trochanter
C)

foramen
Which of these are bone-forming cells:
A)

osteocytes
B)

canaliculi
C)

osteoclasts
D)

osteoblasts
E)

lamellae
D)

osteoblasts
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains:
A)

cartilage and lamellae
B)

osteoclasts and osteoblasts
C)

yellow marrow and Sharpey's fibers
D)

blood vessels and nerve fibers
E)

red marrow
D)

blood vessels and nerve fibers
The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called:
A)

lacunae
B)

Volkmann's canals
C)

Haversian canals
D)

trabeculae
E)

lamellae
A)

lacunae
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo:
A)

elastic connective tissue
B)

dense fibrous connective tissue
C)

fibrocartilage
D)

hyaline cartilage
E)

loose fibrous connective tissue
D)

hyaline cartilage
Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous membranes:
A)

the parietal bone
B)

the radius
C)

the humerus
D)

the femur
E)

the tibia
A)

the parietal bone
The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are):
A)

sex hormones
B)

growth hormone
C)

stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
D)

parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E)

calcium level of the blood
C)

stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages:
1. bony callus formation 3. fibrocartilage callus formation
2. bone remodeling 4. hematoma formation
A)

4, 3, 2, 1
B)

4, 3, 1, 2
C)

1, 2, 3, 4
D)

1, 3, 4, 2
E)

1, 3, 2, 4
B)

4, 3, 1, 2
What type of cell does parathyroid hormone (PTH) activate:
A)

osteocyte
B)

osteoblast
C)

osteoclast
D)

periosteum
E)

lacunae
C)

osteoclast
A compound fracture can be described as when:
A)

the bone is crushed
B)

the broken bone ends are forced into each other
C)

the broken bone is exposed to the outside
D)

the bone is broken into many fragments
E)

adjacent bones fracture simultaneously
C)

the broken bone is exposed to the outside
A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a:
A)

compound fracture
B)

simple fracture
C)

comminuted fracture
D)

compression fracture
E)

greenstick fracture
C)

comminuted fracture
A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n):
A)

impacted fracture
B)

spiral fracture
C)

depressed fracture
D)

greenstick fracture
E)

open fracture
D)

greenstick fracture
A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n):
A)

impacted fracture
B)

compression fracture
C)

spiral fracture
D)

depressed fracture
E)

simple fracture
B)

compression fracture
The axial skeleton contains:
1. skull
2. arms and legs
3. ribs and sternum
4. vertebrae
5. pelvic girdles
A)

1, 3, 4, 5
B)

1, 3, 4
C)

2, 5
D)

2, 3, 4, 5
E)

1, 2, 3, 5
B)

1, 3, 4
The suture found between the parietal and temporal bone is the:
A)

squamous suture
B)

lambdoid suture
C)

sagittal suture
D)

coronal suture
E)

both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture
A)

squamous suture
All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone:
A)

palatine
B)

lacrimal
C)

vomer
D)

maxillae
E)

zygomatic
C)

vomer
The middle nasal conchae are part of the:
A)

maxillae
B)

sphenoid bone
C)

nasal bone
D)

vomer bone
E)

ethmoid bone
E)

ethmoid bone
Which of these bones is NOT associated with the foot:
A)

talus
B)

calcaneus
C)

metatarsals
D)

tarsals
E)

metacarpals
E)

metacarpals
The hyoid bone is unique because:
A)

it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
B)

it has an unusual shape
C)

it is covered with mucosa
D)

it has no specific function
E)

it largely consists of cartilage
A)

it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
The sella turcica is part of the __________ bone.
A)

parietal
B)

ethmoid
C)

sphenoid
D)

temporal
E)

frontal
C)

sphenoid
There are __________ vertebrae in the neck region.
A)

five thoracic
B)

seven lumbar
C)

seven cervical
D)

twelve thoracic
E)

five lumbar
C)

seven cervical
Transverse foramina are found in the:
A)

sacrum
B)

coccyx
C)

thoracic vertebrae
D)

lumbar vertebrae
E)

cervical vertebrae
E)

cervical vertebrae
The atlas is the:
A)

last lumbar vertebra
B)

first thoracic vertebra
C)

part of the sacrum
D)

second cervical vertebra
E)

first cervical vertebra
E)

first cervical vertebra
Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior:
A)

floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
B)

floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
C)

true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
D)

true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
E)

false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
C)

true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the:
A)

ischium, ilium, coccyx
B)

pubis, ischium, ilium
C)

manubrium, body, xiphoid process
D)

jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint
E)

true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process
C)

manubrium, body, xiphoid process
The greater trochanter is located on the:
A)

radius
B)

humerus
C)

fibula
D)

tibia
E)

femur
E)

femur
The tailbone is the:
A)

ischium
B)

sacrum
C)

pubis
D)

coccyx
E)

patella
D)

coccyx
Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis:
A)

the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller
B)

the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
C)

the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less
D)

the female iliac bones are less flared
E)

the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker
B)

the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
A structure found on the femur is the:
A)

anterior crest
B)

trochlea
C)

lateral malleolus
D)

intercondylar fossa
E)

medial malleolus
D)

intercondylar fossa
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are __________, whereas articulations permitting no movement are called __________.
A)

amphiarthroses; synarthroses
B)

synarthroses; amphiarthroses
C)

diarthroses; amphiarthroses
D)

amphiarthroses; diarthroses
E)

diarthroses; synarthroses
A)

amphiarthroses; synarthroses
Fingers and toes are referred to as:
A)

tarsals
B)

metacarpals
C)

phalanges
D)

metatarsals
E)

carpals
C)

phalanges
Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg:
A)

femur
B)

patella
C)

fibula
D)

metatarsals
E)

tibia
B)

patella
Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception.
A)

humerus
B)

radius
C)

scapula
D)

fibula
E)

clavicle
D)

fibula
Bone formation can be referred to as:
A)

osteoporosis
B)

rickets
C)

ossification
D)

gout
E)

osteoarthritis
C)

ossification
Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.
True
The diaphysis of a long bone is composed of spongy bone.
False
All flat bones are formed from hyaline cartilage.
False
Osteoblasts respond to the parathyroid hormone (PTH).
False
The master gland of the body (pituitary gland) is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica.
False
Ribs numbered 11 and 12 are true ribs because they have no anterior attachments.
False
The zygomatic bones form the cheekbones.
True
The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra.
False
Most of the stress on the vertebral column occurs on the sturdiest vertebrae in the sacral region.
False
In anatomical position, the lateral lower leg bone is the fibula.
True
There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.
True
Spinal curvatures that are present at birth are called primary curvatures (the cervical and lumbar curvatures) and those that develop later are secondary curvatures (the thoracic and sacral curvatures).
False
The heaviest, strongest bone in the body is the femur.
True
Fontanels allow for growth of the brain.
True
An incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts (common in children)
greenstick
Fracture where bone fragments into many pieces
compression
Fracture in which broken bone ends are forced into each other
impacted
Type of fracture in which bone is crushed
compression
Type of fracture in which the broken bone portion is pressed inward
depressed
Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix
osteoclasts
Layers of calcification that are found in bone
lamellae
Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone
canaliculi
Cells that can build bony matrix
osteoblasts
Area where bone growth takes place
epiphyseal plate
Wrist joint
plane joint
Shoulder joint
ball-and-socket joint
Elbow joint
hinge joint
Knuckle joints
condyloid jont
Joint between atlas and axis
pivot joint
Patella
short and sesamoid bone
Femur
Long bone
Carpals
Short bones
Ulna
Long Bone
Atlas
Irregular bone
Sternum
Flat bone
Fibula
Long bone
Coxal bone
Irregular bone
True ribs
flat bones
Parietal bones
Flat bones
Explain the five functions of the skeletal system.
1. Support—the skeletal system forms the body's internal structural framework. The bones of the legs act as pillars to support the body trunk when we stand, and the rib cage supports the thoracic wall.
2. Movement—the skeletal muscles, attached to bones by tendons, use the bones as levers to move the body and its parts.
3. Protection—bones, such as the skull, thorax, and pelvis, protect the enclosed soft body organs.
4. Storage—fat is stored in the internal cavities of bones. Bones also serve as a storehouse for minerals, the most important being calcium and phosphorus.
5. Hematopoiesis—blood cell formation occurs within the red marrow of certain bones.
List and discuss the structures of a long bone.
1. Diaphysis—the shaft of the long bone: a) it is made of compact bone; b) it is covered by a fibrous connective tissue membrane, the periosteum. The periosteum is securely held to the compact bone beneath by connective tissue fibers called perforating or Sharpey's fibers; c) it contains a hollow cavity called the medullary cavity that stores adipose tissue as yellow marrow, and is the site of hematopoiesis (red blood cell formation) in infants when it contains red marrow.
2. Epiphyses—somewhat rounded ends of the long bone: each epiphysis has an outer layer of compact bone covering an inner core of spongy bone. The external surface is covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage, instead of a periosteum, called articular cartilage. This provides for a smooth, gliding joint.
3. Epiphyseal line/plate—the junction between the epiphyses and the diaphysis. During growth years is made of hyaline cartilage and is called the epiphyseal plate. It causes the lengthwise growth of the bone. By the end of puberty, long bones stop lengthening when the plate has been replaced by bone. It now appears as a thin bony ridge and is called the epiphyseal line.
List and explain the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.
Step 1 is hematoma formation. A hematoma, or bloodfilled swelling, forms when bone breaks and blood vessels rupture. Bone cells are deprived of nutrition and die.
Step 2 is fibrocartilaginous callus formation. The site of damage experiences growth of new capillaries into the clotted blood and disposal of dead tissue by phagocytes. Connective tissue cells of various types form a mass of repair tissue called fibrocartilage callus. This fibrocartilage callus contains several elements: some cartilage matrix, some bony matrix, and collagen fibers. This fibrocartilage callus acts to splint the broken bone, closing the gap.
Step 3 is bony callus formation. As more osteoblasts and osteoclasts migrate into the area and multiply, fibrocartilage is gradually replaced by a callus of spongy bone (the bony callus).
Step 4 is bone remodeling. Over the next few months, bony callus is remodeled in response to the mechanical stresses placed on it, so that it forms a strong, permanent patch at the fracture site.
Discuss the two factors that cause bone remodeling throughout life.
1. Calcium levels in the bloodstream determine when bone is to be broken down. When calcium levels in the bloodstream drop below normal, the parathyroid glands produce and release parathyroid hormone (PTH) into the blood. PTH activates osteoclasts (giant bone-destroying cells in bone) to break down bone and release calcium into the blood. Conversely, when calcium levels in the bloodstream are too high, osteoblasts (bone-forming cells in bone) are activated and calcium is deposited in bone matrix as hard calcium salts.
2. Stresses of muscle pull and gravity acting on the skeleton determine where bone matrix is to be broken down or formed so that the skeleton can remain strong for as long as possible. Long bones grow in length and in thickness as the body increases in size and as a result of the activity of bulky muscles. At these sites, osteoblasts (bone-forming cells) lay down new matrix and become trapped within it. Once they are trapped, they become osteocytes or true bone cells.
Define fontanel and discuss its functions. Identify the four fontanels in the infant and cite their locations.
Fontanels are fibrous membranes connecting the cranial bones of the infant skull.
They serve two functions: they allow the fetal skull to be compressed slightly during childbirth and they allow the infant brain to grow during the later part of pregnancy and early infancy. The four fontanels are:
1. Anterior fontanel—this is the largest fontanel and is located between the pareital bones and the frontal bone. It is diamond-shaped.
2. Mastoid fontanel—superior to the posterior part of the temporal bone on a lateral view of the cranium.
3. Posterior fontanel—smaller, triangular fontanel located posteriorly on the lateral view of the cranium.
4. Sphenoidal fontanel—superior to the anterior part of the temporal bone on the lateral view of the cranium.
List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis.
The female pelvis:
a. has a larger and more circular inlet.
b. is shallower than the male pelvis.
c. has lighter and thinner bones.
d. has a shorter and less curved sacrum.
e. has a more rounded pubic arch.
f. has shorter ischial spines that are also farther apart.
If 6-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate and why is it significant to this situation?
The epiphyseal plate is a flat plate of hyaline cartilage seen in young growing bone. Epiphyseal plates cause the lengthwise growth of long bone. Since this child is still growing and has not completed puberty, she may expect impaired growth in that one epiphyseal plate. Lucky for Sarah, there is an epiphyseal plate located at both the distal and proximal ends of the femur. The healthy distal plate can continue to grow.
Differentiate the roles of osteoclasts, osteoblasts, and osteocytes in bone.
1. Osteoclasts are giant bone-destroying cells that break down bone matrix and release calcium ions into the blood. They are activiated by a hormone called parathyroid hormone (PTH).
2. Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells. They add bone tissue to growing bones.
3. Osteocytes are mature bone cells. In their former lives, they were osteoblasts that laid down bone matrix, but became trapped in it.
Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in the body.
1. Unlike all other vertebra, atlas (C1) has no body. Axis (C2) has a large process called the dens or odontoid process.
2. The structural differences of these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head from side to side to indicate "no." The joint between these two vertebrae is a pivot joint.
Differentiate among the three types of joints based on structural and functional classification. Provide examples of each type of joint.
1. Synarthroses are immovable joints. These joints are structurally classified as fibrous joints since the bones are united by fibrous tissue. Skull sutures are one example of a fibrous joint.
2. Amphiarthroses are slightly movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as cartilaginous joints since the bone ends are connected by cartilage. The pubic symphysis and intervertebral joints are two examples.
3. Diathroses are freely movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as synovial joints since the articulating bone ends are separated by a joint cavity containing synovial fluid. There are many examples of synovial joints, including the elbow, knee, and shoulder.