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Biology 2232 Exam 2
Terms in this set (408)
A muscle is made up of individual muscle cells. Those cells are made up of ___, which are made up of ___.
The functional unit of skeletal muscle; They are the smallest part of skeletal muscle that contracts
Made up of alternating light and dark bands, called I and A bands
The _ band contains thin filaments
The proteins: actin, troponin, and tropomyosin
What three things are the thin filaments made up of?
Looks like a double stranded pearl necklace where each pearl is an actin molecule
A regulatory protein within the thin filament which has three components. Each of these components can bind to something different. One binds to actin, one binds to tropomyosin and helps keep it on place on actin, and the third binds to calcium.
A regulatory protein which spirals around actin and stiffens it
Troponin and Tropomyosin
___ and ___ block the interaction between actin and myosin
The _ bands contain mainly thick filaments
What kind of filaments are made up of the protein myosin?
Has a rod like tail and two globular heads
In this type of filament, there are about two hundred myosin molecules with their heads sticking off in all different directions
In muscle contraction, muscles get __ and pull on bones
The smallest part of the muscle to get shorter is the
If we want to know what happens in contraction, we need to look at 1 __ and then put millions of them together and we will see how the whole muscle gets shorter and pulls on the bone
The myosin heads of the thick filaments bind to actin on the thin filaments and then slide the thin filaments in toward the center of the sarcomere, causing the sarcomere to shorten. This contraction does not happen all the time because troponin and tropomyosin are in the way - they are covering the place on actin that myosin has to bind to.
The process of contraction:
AP gets to axonal terminal --> causes calcium to enter the axonal terminal --> causes release of acetylcholine --> acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors on the muscle cell --> opens chemically gated sodium channels on the muscle cell --> causes an AP to occur on the sarcolemma of the muscle cell --> AP is propagated along the sarcolemm and down the T tubules --> causes the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae of the SR into the cytoplasm of the muscle cell --> calcium binds to troponin and causes it to change shape --> moves troponin and tropomyosin out of the way so the myosin heads can bind to actin --> get crossbridging between the myosin heads and actin --> myosin head pivots --> pulls on actin ,sliding it toward the center of the sarcomere --> then ATP binds to the myosin head and it is released from actin --> now myosin is back to a high energy state and ready to start over
Excitation-Contraction Coupling and the Mechanism of Contraction
During muscle contraction, what cause calcium to be taken back into the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
calcium and ATP are present (i.e. action potentials are coming down the sarcolemma)
Muscle contraction will continue as long as...
Once calcium is removed from the cytoplasm, the ___ blockade is reestablished and myosin can't bind to actin so the contraction stops.
because the thin filaments slide, they DO NOT change length (i.e. they don't shorten)
Why is it called the Sliding Filament Theory of Contraction?
The thin filaments do not shorten, but the __ shorten.
The sarcomeres shorten as the distance between successive ___ decreases, causing the myofibril to shorten and the whole cell to shorten.
Single contraction and relaxation
A muscle's response to a single action potential
Sustained contraction, no relaxation
muscle cells; stimulation
Moment to moment changes in force production depends on the number of ___ activated and the frequency of ___.
With an increased frequency of stimulation, there is more/less calcium released into the cytoplasm
Changes in maximum capacity are due to the number of ___ formed within the muscle.
When you work out a muscle, it gets bigger because each muscle cell is getting bigger and contains more thick and thin filaments, hence more ___, causing the muscle to be stronger.
This is the cell's form of energy and it is needed for contraction to energize the crossbridges, to detach myosin from actin, and for the calcium pumps.
1 .Creatine Phosphate
2. Aerobic Metabolism
3. Anaerobic Metabolism
Three ways ATP can be formed:
An extremely quick way to make ATP, but you only have enough to make a few seconds worth of ATP.
This is how you make the ATP at the beginning of muscle contractions
This is the way to make ATP using oxygen. It occurs in the mitochondria and yields 36 ATP per molecule of glucose.
A very efficient way to make ATP but it is a slow process
This is the way muscles make ATP when they have to go for a long time (i.e. running a marathon)
This is the way to make ATP quickly, but it is inefficient, yielding only 2 ATP per molecule of glucose and causing the formation of lactic acid.
This method to create ATP does not require oxygen initially but it results in an oxygen debt.
This is the way muscles make ATP when they need it fast and for a short time (e.g. a sprinter)
Occurs when you do anaerobic metabolism. You then owe the body some oxygen to oxidize the lactic acid that builds up
Use ___ metabolism for long term muscle activity and ___ metabolism for short, quick muscle activity.
Slow Twitch Oxidative Fibers
Muscle Fiber IA
Fast Twitch Oxidative Fibers
Muscle Fiber IIA
Fast Twitch Glycolytic
Muscle Fiber IIB
Slow Twitch Oxidative Fibers (IA)
These muscle fibers act slower, use oxygen, and are resistant to fatigue. They have lots of mitochondria and blood vessels.
Fast Twitch Oxidative Fibers (IIA)
These muscle fibers use oxygen and act faster. They have an intermediate capacity to fatigue.
Fast Twitch Glycolytic Fibers (IIB)
These muscle fibers don't use much oxygen, act fast, and fatigue rapidly. They have few mitochondria and little blood vessels.
Larger (more thick and thin filaments)
Fast Twitch Glycolytic fibers are (larger/smaller) diameter cells than oxidative and are stronger.
1. Pyramidal System
2. Extrapyramidal System
Two major components of motor control
Motor Control system that comes from the cerebral cortex
Motor Control system that comes from the brainstem
This system decussates [i.e. the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body]
Fine motor control, especially of the distal muscles of the hand
Primary role of the Pyramidal System
1. Sensorimotor Cortex (frontal lobe)
2. Pyramidal Tracts (in spinal cord)
Two basic components of the Pyramidal System
Controls proximal muscles of limbs and muscles of trunk for upright posture, balance, walking
Primary role of the Extrapyramidal System
1. Extapyramidal nuclei in the brainstem
2. Extrapyramidal tracts in spinal cord
Two basic components of Extrapyramidal System
The main coordinator of movement
2. vestibular apparatus in the ears
2. joints and tendons
The cerebellum receives information from three sensory sources:
Makes sure you step up just the right amount for a particular stair (i.e. overshoot)
Tremor of Intent
If there is a lesion in the cerebellum, you will get overshoot in movements, leading to a ___
Tremor of Intent
When you shake when you are trying to do something
Gets information from the cerebrum and from muscles
Works together with the cerebrum to carry out movements.
Basal Ganglia inhibits ___, that is, keeps muscles quiet when they are not supposed to be moving
Disease that has a lesion to the basal ganglia
Decreased movements, slow movements, and a tremor at rest
Cerebellum and Basal Ganglia
Two Big Components of Extrapyramidal Systems
Plans movements, also language control (Broca's area is here)
Primary Motor Cortex
Controls fine movements, especially involving lips, tongue, throat, fingers, hand
Sends information from motor cortex through the spinal cord
Lower Motor Neuron
The neurons that take the information to the muscle
Upper Motor Neuron
brain or descending pathways like pyramidal or extrapyramidal tracts
Upper Motor Neuron
If there is a lesion in an ___, then the person would experience increased motor tone, spasticity, rigidity, and increased reflexes
Used to detect a problem with balance
A (positive/negative) Rhomberg test consists of the person swaying a lot and losing balance when you tell them to stand still, with eyes closed
A positive Rhomberg test indicates a __ or __ problem
When someone has a positive Rhomberg test, you want to find to find out where their actual problem is, so you need to assess the...
In order to maintain balance, the cerebellum must get information from at least __ of the 3 places it normally gets information from: eyes, vestibular apparatus in the ears, and proprioceptors.
Therefore, if there is a positive Rhomberg test, there is either a problem with proprioceptors or the vestibular system, or the ___ is not getting informatin from those two places.
When someone has a problem with their ___ , their balance is so bad that you cannot even perform a Rhomberg test (if you tell them to close their eyes they would fall over)
Both the nervous system and the endocrine system serve to control other systems in the body - but the ultimate controller is the ___ system
What system controls the endocrine system?
Endocrine glands (do/do not) have a duct
Exocrine glands (do/do not) have a duct
These glands secrete hormones into the blood
Ex: thyroid gland, ovaries, testes, pituitary gland
These glands excrete substances through a duct onto the body surface or into a body cavity
Ex: salivary glands or sweat glands
These are secreted into the blood by an endocrine gland and then they are carried by the blood to a distant site where they exert their action
Before a hormone can exert its action, it first binds to a receptor on the ___
the cell that the hormone effects and that cell has receptors for that hormone
ex: thyroid hormone, estrogen, growth hormone
These exert their effects on cells near their secretion site. Examples would be nerve growth factor, PDGF, and nitric oxide
These are secreted into the extracellular fluid and act on the cell that secreted it. Example would be prostaglandins.
proteins, steroids, amino acids, etc.
Hormones can be any chemical type, such as:
Amino Acid Based hormones can/cannot enter cells.
Amino Acid Based hormone's target cells have receptors on the ___
second messengers (like cAMP, DAG, or Inositol Triphosphate)
In order for Amino Acid Based hormones to get the message to the interior of the cell, they need to use ___.
These hormones are made from cholesterol and are lipid soluble
Because steroids can easily enter cells they have receptors __ the cell.
New Protein Synthesis
Steroid hormones act by directly activating the DNA and causing ___ within the target cell
Testosterone enters skeletal muscle cells and causes them to make more actin and myosin and so the muscles get bigger and stronger
Example of New Protein Synthesis
1. anterior pituitary
2. posterior pituitary
The pituitary gland is one gland but it is made up of two separate parts:
Posterior Pituitary Gland
AKA the neural lobe of the pitutiary gland
The posterior pituitary (is/is not) a part of the hypothalamus of the brain
1. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone)
The neural lobe (posterior pituitary) secretes two hormones
What controls the pituitary gland?
The hypothalamus controls the posterior pituitary gland through...
hormones, called releasing factors or inhibiting factors
The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary gland through...
Hypophyseal Portal Vein
A direct blood vessel communication between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland
anterior pituitary gland
The hormones from the hypothalamus which control the anterior pituitary are released into the hypophyseal portal vein and go directly to the...
releasing factors or inhibiting factors
The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary, telling it when to release its hormones and when to stop releasing its hormones. The hypothalamus exerts this control using chemicals known as...
[prolactin and growth hormone]
The anterior pituitary controls other endocrine glands. It secretes 4 hormones:
The body's energy expenditure
Basal Metabolic Rate
The metabolic rate when rested (not sleeping), comfortable, and fasted for 12 hours
Basal Metabolic Rate
The energy the body needs just to exist
age, gender, body surface area, growth, activity, body temperature, stress
Factors that influence metabolic rate
A younger person has a __ metabolic rate than older person
Males have a __ metabolic rate than females
more surface area = __ metabolic rate
less activity, __ metabolic rate
higher temperature, __ metabolic rate
Stress increases/decrease metabolic rate
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
These are both neurotransmitters (of sympathetic nervous system) and hormones (when released by the adrenal medulla into the blood) and they increase metabolic rate
These are the main hormonal influence on metabolic rate
Thyroid hormones __ metabolic rate
Thyroid hormones are needed for normal __ and __ growth during fetal development and childhood
This trace mineral is needed by the body to make thyroid hormone. It is a component of thyroid hormone
The anterior pituitary secretes TSH which tells the thyroid to secrete thyroid hormones. The hypothalamus secretes TRH to tell the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. As thyroid hormone levels rise, they exert a negative feedback inhibition on both TRH and TSH and so cause a decrease in TRH and TSH and therefore a decrease in thyroid hormone.
Iodine Deficiency Induced Goiter
Since iodine is needed to make thyroid hormone, an iodine deficiency will result in a decreased production of thyroid hormone (hypothyroidism). With less thyroid hormone, there will be no inhibition of TRH and TSH. So, the hypothalamus will secrete a lot of TRH which tells the anterior pituitary to secrete a lot of TSH. The high TSH levels will tell the thyroid gland to secrete its hormones and the thyroid gland tries to do so and gets larger (goiter) as it accumulates the precursor to thyroid hormone. BUT because the thyroid doesn't have the raw materials it needs to make thyroid hormone, it can't make the thyroid hormone and so thyroid hormone levels are low (hypo)
Will cause a low basal metabolic rate, low heart rate, lethargy, constipation (digestive tract activity is slow), obesity. Everything is slow and sluggish
Hypothyroidism in a child [typical symptoms plus mental retardation and dwarfism]
A severe form of hypothyroidism in an adult; Also have a form of edema in the face, causing a sad look
Will cause a basal metabolic rate, weight loss, tachycardia, mental hyperactivity with insomnia, increased body heat production with sweating and exophthalmia. Everything is hyper.
Anterior Pituitary --> ACTH --> Adrenal Cortex* --> Cortisol
The source of cortisol
Cortisol is a ___, meaning that it affects the metabolism of glucose
increasing [assures body has energy it needs to deal with stress]
Cortisol helps the body deal with chronic stress by __ blood glucose levels, __ blood amino acid levels, and __ blood fatty acid levels.
Cortisol causes protein ___ to supply the amino acids from there to the blood so those amino acids can be used for energy.
The reason why when you are under chronic stress and cortisol levels are high, you are likely to get sick
Stress causes the hypothalamus to secrete __. As cortisol levels rise, they exert a __ feedback on the anterior pituitary to cause less ACTH to be released and therefore less cortisol.
Source of epinephrine/norepinephrine
This is like a sympathetic ganglia and so these hormones are released during acute stress, or "fight or flight" situations
The sympathetic nervous system stimulates the adrental medulla to release epinephrine and norepinephrine into the blood. These hormones act to ___ heart rate, blood pressure, etc.
stimulate growth of muscles and bones
General role of growth hormone
During puberty, testosterone and estrogen will cause __ GH levels, which will cause the bones and muscles to grow and then cause epiphyseal closure in the bones aka growth spurt
Growth hormone stimulates ___, especially in muscle
GH causes __ blood glucose levels
adolescence; childhood; adults
GH levels are highest in ___, next highest in __ and lowest in __.
sleep (why kids sleep so much when they're growing)
GHRH levels are highest during
What from the hypothalamus inhibits GH release?
A decrease in GH in children will cause what?
An increase in GH in children will cause what?
An increase in GH in adults will cause what?
bones [whenever you have extra calcium in the body, it will be put into bones. if you are low in calcium, the body will remove the calcium from the bones]
Where is calcium stored?
What is the source of calcitonin
What is released when there are increased blood calcium levels?
Calcitonin acts to __ blood calcium levels by causing the calcium to be deposited into bones.
Source of Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
What is released when there are decreased blood calcium levels?
1. causes calcium to be removed from bone
2. causes calcium to be reabsorbed at the kidney
3. causes calcium to be absorbed from the food you eat
3 ways PTH acts to increase blood calcium levels
What stimulates intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate? (works together with PTH)
The main fuel that the brain uses for energy
First see aggressive, erratic behavior and then will see decreased brain function
Long term high blood glucose levels will damage blood vessels, leading to kidney failure, blindness, poor blood flow, atherosclerosis, strokes, heart attacks. It also damages nerves leading to peripheral neuropathies.
Anterior Pituitary Gland
Source of GH
GH increases/decreases blood glucose levels
The alpha cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
What is the source of glucagon?
Glucagon is released where there are __ blood glucose levels
Glucagon acts to __ blood glucose levels by causing the liver to release stored glucose and also to make new glucose
Comes from the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
The source of Insulin
high [after a meal]
Insulin is released when there are __ blood glucose levels
Insulin acts to __ blood glucose levels by causing the glucose to enter cells and allowing the cells to metabolize the glucose
With diabetes mellitus, there is ___.
In diabetes mellitus, the high sugar in the blood spills out in the urine and so you have glucosuria. The glucose in the urine acts as an osmotic diuretic, which means that it pulls water out with it. This causes increased urination which then causes excessive ___
Type 1 and Type II
What are the two types of diabetes mellitus?
Type I Diabetes
Type of diabetes usually seen in children
Type I Diabetes
There is an autoimmune destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Therefore, these people do not make insulin.
Type I Diabetes
Treatment = insulin injections are given subcutaneously
Type II Diabetes
Type of diabetes usually seen in overweight adults who are older than 40
Type II Diabetes
The target cells for insulin become less responsive to insulin and may also get receptor downregulation, where there is a decreased number of receptors for insulin on the target cells. These ppl do not necessarily have less insulin but their cells are not responding to insulin.
Type II Diabetes
Treatment = diet and exercise; then try oral hypoglycemic agents, the insulin injections
Prolactin and Oxytocin
What are the two hormones involved in lactation?
Source of prolactin
Inhibits menstruation in females and causes impotence in males
Stimulates milk production
PRH, TRH, and Oxytocin cause __ release
What is the inhibitory factor that decreases prolactin release?
Excess prolactin will inhibit TRH which will then cause less thyroid hormone production and hypothyroidism. Also, with hypothyroidism where there is low thyroid hormone, there won't be feedback inhibition from thyroid hormone on TRH and so there will be high TRH levels, which will cause excess prolactin secretion. The resultant high prolactin will cause cessation of menses in females and impotence in males
Consequences of TRH's dual roles in thyroid and prolactin regulation and the relationship to infertility
Posterior pituitary gland
Source of oxytocin
contractions of uterus
Oxytocin causes __ during childbirth
Oxytocin causes milk ___.
What is the main stimulus for the release of oxytocin?
Oxytocin release can become a conditioned reflex so that anything associated with suckling (i.e. crying baby) can then cause oxytocin secretion and milk release from the breasts
Blood carries oxygen and carbon dioxide
What is the cardiovascular system's role in gas transport?
Glucose, amino acids, etc. are carried in the plasma
What is the cardiovascular system's role in nutrient transport?
by white blood cells
What is the cardiovascular system's role in immune role?
blood carries heat around in the body
What is the cardiovascular system's role in thermoregulation?
The cardiac cycle involves all the events that occur during one __
No, it runs continuously as long as the person is alive
Is there a beginning/end to the cardiac cycle?
time where the heart is filling with blood
time where the heart is contracting and pumping the blood out
involves the right side of the heart pumping blood to the lungs
it is a short, low pressure circulation
Involves the left side of the heart pumping blood to the body
A long, high pressure circulation
Left (because used for systemic circulation)
The (right/left) ventricle is thicker and stronger
The contracting phase
contraction of the atria
contraction of the ventricles
The relaxation or filling phase
The atria are relaxed and are filling with blood
The ventricles are relaxed and are filling
Middle of diastole
Since there is no beginning and no end to the cardiac cycle, you must pick a place to start. Where is a good place to start?
How long does the total cardaic cycle take?
0.3 seconds vs. 0.5 seconds
How long does the systole and diastole cycles take?
During mid to late diastole when pressure in the heart is low. Blood passively enters into the atria through the AV valves and into the ventricles.
S1 (lub) and S2 (dub)
During the cardiac cycle, what are the two heart sounds heart?
Technically four sounds caused by each of the 4 valves of the heart, but you only heart two sounds. The 2 AV valves make what sound?
The two SV valves make what sound?
The S1 (lub) is heard during __
AV valvues (mitral and tricuspid)
S1 is due to the closure of the ___
The S2 (dub) is heard during __.
This sound is due to the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic)
Abnormal heart sounds that may be due to valve problems
cardiac conduction system
Within the heart, just beneath the endocardium, is found the ___
Cardiac Conduction System
This system consists of electrically excitable cells which will cause the heart to beat, even if all other nerves to the heart are cut
someone is electrocuted or hit by lightening
The cardiac conduction system can be disrupted when...
Sinoatrial Node (SA node)
Found in the right atrium and it is the pacemaker of the heart.
It sets the pace of the heart by spontaneously generating action potentials
These transmit the action potentials from the SA node to the AV node
Atriventricular (AV) Node
This is found at the junction between the atria and the ventricles and it delays the impulse (APs) from a fraction of a second and allows the atria to contract before the ventricles get the message. This ensures that the atria contract first and put all the blood into the ventricles before the ventricles contract.
Right and Left Bundle Branches
Carries the action potentials into the interventricular septum
Allow all of the cells of the ventricles to get the action potential message at virtually the same time. This allows all the cells of the ventricles to contract together to get a good squeeze or pumping of the ventricle.
All of the components of the cardiac conduction system are able to __ action potentials.
The ECG detects the electrical events occurring at the heart, measured at the ___
Due to atrial depolarization
Due to ventricular depolarization
Due to ventricular repolarization
measured from the beginning of P to the beginning of R
Represents the electrical events occurring in the whole conduction system (from SA node to Purkinje Fibers). So, if it is longer than normal, then that tells you that there is a problem within the conduction system.
Measured from the end of S to the beginning of T. It is usually flat. If it is elevated, that indicates ischemia (low blood flow) to the heart muscle
Deep Q Wave
If seen, the person may have previously had a heart attack
Normal Sinus Rhythm
See normal P, QRS, and T waves. The rate is 60 to 100 times per minute.
Respiratory Sinus Arrythmia
This is a normal situation, seen in some people. See normal P, QRS, and T waves but the heart rate varies with respiration. [increases with inspiration and decrease with expiration]
Slower than normal (less than 60 times per minute). See normal P, QRS, and T waves. This can be due to parasympathetic stimulation, hypothyroidism or physical conditioning
Faster than normal (more than 100 times per minute). See normal P, QRS, and T waves. This can be due to sympathetic stimulation or fever.
First Degree AV Nodal Block
The AV node is having difficulty getting the APs on through to the rest of the conduction system. See prolong PR intervals
Second Degree AV Nodal Block
There is even more difficulty than in first degree. See prolonged PR intervals and see some P waves that are not followed by QRS complexes (those APs are not getting through to the ventricles at all)
Third Degree AV Nodal Block
Even more serious. See many Ps without QRS complexes after them
An area of the heart muscle that becomes irritable - that is, it starts to have APs on its own, usually as a result of injury or ischemia. Tends to have APs at a very fast rate
A rhythm caused by an ectopic focus. That is, an area of the atria or the ventricles start having APs at a very fast rate and so set the pace for the heart.
an ectopic rhythm
Ventricular Tachycardia is an example of...
The action potentials are initiated in the ventricles and are occurring at a very rapid rate. This is a very serious situation because you are working the heart very hard and also, the heart is not getting its own oxygen and blood supply.The heart does not have time to fill and so it is beating very fast yet not pumping out much blood.
Wide, bizarre QRS complexes and no P waves
Erratic, uncoordinated contraction of the ventricles where each segment of the ventricle is contracting independently of every other segment
There is no blood being pumped out. The heart looks like a "wriggling bag of worms"
The ECG looks like a mess - there are no P, QRS, or T waves. Needs defibrillation right away
Volume of blood put out by the heart each minute
Homeostatic mechanisms (through the autonomic nervous system)
What is cardiac output controlled by?
CO = HR x SV
Cardiac output formula
beats per minute
the volume of blood put out with each beat
Parasympathetic Nervous System
Causes a decreased heart rate and so it decreases cardiac output
Sympathetic Nervous System
Causes increased heart rate and increased stroke volume, so it increases cardiac output
Blood pressure occurs when blood flow is opposed by __
BP = CO x TPR
BP = HR x SV x TPR
Blood Pressure formulas
Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)
The resistance offered to the flow of blood. Determined by the diameter of the blood vessels, the length of the blood vessels, and the thickness of the blood
Systolic blood pressure
Pressure in the arteries during systole
Systolic blood pressure
This is when the arteries contain the most blood and so it is the highest pressure in the arteries.
Systolic blood pressure
The top number on your blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
Pressure in the arteries during diastole
Diastolic blood pressure
This is when the arteries contain the least amount of blood and it is the lowest pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
The bottom number on your blood pressure
Mean Arterial Pressure
The pressure driving blood into the tissues during the cardiac cycle. This is the one maintained by homeostasis
This is equal to the systolic minus the diastolic pressure. It is felt as a pulsation in the arteries with each heartbeat.
These are pressure receptors which detect the BP and send information to the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata.
The medulla oblongata responds to information received from baroreceptors by sending instructions via the ___ (parasympathetic) or the sympathetic nerves to the heart to keep the BP within normal range.
Carotid arteries; Aortic arch
The baroreceptors are found in the ___ and the ___.
1. Increases heart rate
2. Increases stroke volume
3. Causes vasoconstriction [will increase TPR]
When BP is low, the body responds in 3 ways to get the BP back up to normal:
Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)
Vasoconstriction increases ___, which in turn increases BP
Responses to increase BP occur due to ___ stimulation from the heart and blood vessels.
Responses to decrease BP occur due to ___ stimulation to the heart.
Response to an increased BP
Involves a decrease in heart rate and vasodilation
Vasodilation increases/decreases TPR
Vasoconstriction increases/decreases TPR
aka you are moving
During dynamic exercise, ___ nervous system will be activated
In dynamic exercise, cardiac output (increases/decreases) due to increased heart rate and stroke volume.
During dynamic exercise, peripheral (vasodilation/vasoconstriction) occurs to increase total peripheral resistance.
During dynamic exercise, this will happen to the muscles to provide blood to those working muscles
Because the local vasodilation offsets the increase in cardiac output.
Why will there NOT be a dramatic increase in blood pressure during dynamic exercise?
If more muscles are working during dynamic exercise, then there will be ___ to all those muscles and so BP will be raised even less (or decreased).
Dynamic exercise (is/is not) hard on the heart
In static exercise, cardiac output __ and peripheral constriction occurs, increasing TPR
In static exercise, blood vessels are ___.
In this type of exercise, the blood vessels are pinched shut and it increases TPR and does not allow much blood with oxygen to get to these muscles. Therefore, the muscles fatigue easily and you can't do the activity for very long.
During static exercise blood pressures goes __ a lot
During dynamic exercise, stroke volume goes __ and resting heart rate goes __.
If stroke volume goes up, heart rate will go __ to keep cardiac output at normal.
Dynamic exercise is good/bad for the heart
Static exercise __ heart wall thickness and __ the volume of the heart chambers.
During static exercise, the resting heart rate goes __
Static exercise is good/bad for the heart
red bone marrow
Blood cells develop in the ___
about 2 million
How many RBCs are produced every second?
Red bone marrow
Hemocytoblast --> Reticulocyte (young RBC) occurs where?
in the bloodstream
Transformation to eythrocyte (RBC) occurs where?
Blood cell formation
Red blood cell formation
White Blood Cells
Function in phagocytosis, immunity, protection. Ex: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes
Play a role in blood clotting
Red Blood Cells
Function in oxygen transport
Biconcave Disk Shape
What shape are RBCs?
Biconcave Disk Shape
Allows for high surface to volume ratio so oxygen and carbon dioxide can diffuse rapidly to and from the interior of the RBC
This is a hormone made by the kidney that stimulates RBC production.
Erythropoietin is released whenever __ is low (i.e. lung disease, heart disease, anemia, or high altitudes)
The lifespan of a red blood cell is __ days
small blood vessels
As RBCs approach the end of their life span, they become stiff and rigid and get stuck in ___ and are removed from the blood
small capillaries of liver and spleen
Where are RBCs removed from the blood?
When RBCs get stuck in capillaries of liver and spleen, they are destroyed by ___ cells
If the bilirubin accumulates, then the person will turn __
This can happen when RBCs are being broken down too fast or if the bile can't get into the small intestine or with liver failure
On RBC membranes; These are like "cell nametags"
These are recognized by cells of the immune system so the immune system knows which RBC are "self" and which are "non-self"
Present in the plasma of the blood. These are antibodies against whatever antigens you do not have.
These allow you to destroy cells containing "non-self" antigens
Consists of the antigens A and B and the antibodies against A or B. A and B antigens are codominant. The antibodies are preformed (meaning that you have them even if you have never been exposed to foreign blood).
Whatever __ you have is what blood type you are
You have __ against whatever antigens you don't have
Type AB, Type A, Type B, Type O
4 blood types of the ABO system
Has A and B antigens on RBC and no antibodies
Has A antigens on RBC and antibodies against B in plasma
Has B antigens on RBC and antibodies against A in plasma
Has no antigens on RBC and antibodies against A and B
This involves a different antigen on the RBC membrane: Rh antigen
If someone has the antigen, they are Rh (positive/negative) and they will not make the antibodies against Rh
If someone does not have the antigen, they are Rh (positive/negative) and they will make antibodies against Rh.
The main time the Rh system is a problem when you have a Rh (positive/negative) mother with a Rh (positive/negative) baby.
Erythroblastosis Fetalis (aka Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn)
At the time of birth or miscarriage, some of the baby's blood can enter the mother's bloodstream. The mother recognizes the Rh antigens as foreign and fights against those RBC by making antibodies against Rh. The next time that woman gets pregnant with a Rh+ baby, her antibodies will enter that baby's bloodstream and destroy the baby's RBC. If that baby lives to be born, it will be very anemic and need a complete blood transfusion at birth.
RhoGAM injections given to Rh- mothers during pregnancy
How is Erythroblastosis Fetalis prevented?
The stoppage of bleeding
2. Platelet Plug Formation
3. Blood Clotting
Hemostasis consists of three processes:
When the damaged blood vessel spasms down
Vasospasm is caused by a __ of the blood vessel and __ that is released by the damaged blood vessel.
It decreases blood loss from that vessel
What is the significance of vasospasm for hemostasis?
You get (more/less) vasospasm with increased damage to the vessel.
Damaged to blood vessel -- collagen from deeper layers of the blood vessel is exposed -- platelets adhere to those sticky collagen fibers -- platelets release ADP and Thromboxane A2 and also the damaged endothelial cells release von Willebrand's factor -- more platelets come to the area -- formation of a platelet plug that plugs up the hole.
Steps in Development of Platelet Plug Formation
Prostacyclin (PGI2) and Nitric Oxide (NO)
During platelet plug formation, the nearby undamaged endothelial cells inhibit platelet adherence by releasing __ and __. This makes sure that the plug doesn't expand onto the undamaged endothelium.
the intrinsic pathway and extrinsic pathway
There are two pathways along which a clot is formed:
Calcium; Clotting factors
Both pathways along which a clot is formed require ___ and involve ___.
Are indicated by roman numerals and they are made by the liver. Circulate in the plasma in inactive form.
___ is a coenzyme that helps the enzymes in the liver make the clotting factors.
When a person is in liver failure, they will not be able to make those ___ and they will bleed excessively.
Rat poison (Warfarin) and Coumadin (blood thinner)
___ and ___ both act to prevent the liver from making clotting factors.
EDTA and Citrate are both ___ and they function to prevent clotting by chelating calcium.
When EDTA and Citrate bind up the calcium in the blood so it is not present to cause clotting, so the blood does not clot
The intrinsic pathway of clotting will form a clot in ___
Intrinsic pathway of clotting
This pathway is initiated when there is damage only to the lining of blood vessel wall.
Intrinsic pathway of clotting
This pathway uses the clotting proteins XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, Thrombin and Fibrin
The extrinsic pathway of clotting will form a clot in ___
Extrinsic pathway of clotting
This pathway is initiated when there is damage to the blood vessel and tissue around it
Extrinsic pathway of clotting
This pathway uses the clotting factors VII, X, Thrombin and Fibrin AND also use Tissue Thrombosplastin
Remember, ___ is the clot.
___ is the enzyme right before the clot.
Whenever you have thrombin, it can form a ___.
Involves polymerization of the fibrin to form a meshwork, which traps blood cells within the clot
Occurs, causing the cut edges of the vessel to be brought closer together (giving you a smaller hole to repair)
PDGF (platelet derived growth factor)
Platelets receive ___, which stimulates healing of the blood vessel wall.
TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
Once healing has occurred, ___ is released from those healed endothelial cells and it activates plasminogen.
Plasminogen becomes ___ when it is active and this will then digest the clot.
Becomes an embolus
The reason why you don't want the clot around when you don't need it anymore. A piece of the clot breaks off and starts traveling in the blood stream.
Part of blood clot that can get stuck in small blood vessels, causing strokes, heart attacks, and pulmonary emboli
With (over/under)-aggressive clot formation, you can also get strokes, heart attacks, and pulmonary emboli.
cholesterol deposits in the arteries
The ___ of the blood vessel will stimulate platelet plug formation and then clots will form.
This will also cause clots to form because the pooling of blood will activate clotting factors
This works to prevent clot formation by inhibiting thromboxane A2 formation (and therefore inhibiting the formation of the platelet plug)
1. Antithrombin III
2. Heparin-Like Molecules on Endothelial Cells
The body has 2 substances which limit clot growth
Present in the plasma; It bind thrombin and inactivates it (doesn't let thrombin form clots elsewhere)
Heparin-Like Molecules on Endothelial Cells
Increases the activity of antithrombin III
The blood backing up as the semilunar valves close
The "dubb" sound that we hear upon auscultation (listening with a stethoscope) of the heart at the end of ventricular systole is caused by:
Vascular resistance decreases with which of the following:
loss of weight
Higher than normal Thyroid hormone levels
Which of the following could be associated with Hyperthyroidism?
high levels of T3/T4 (thyroid hormone)
Low levels of TRH
symptoms of hyperthyroidism
Which of the following would be consistent with hyperthyroidism due to a functional tumor of the anterior pituitary (functional = the tumor is secreting the hormone TSH without regard for feedback)
Creates oxygen debt
Which of the following is consistent with anaerobic metabolism?
T/F AMP is a molecule present in muscle cells which can give a phosphate to an ADP to make ATP
This cell has no nucleus, a biconcave shape, and functions in gas transport.
T/F The heme portion of hemoglobin is broken down to amino acids, which are recycled
T/F Bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate:
Slow Twitch Oxidative Fibers
Which of the following muscle fiber types would be the most fatigue resistant?
Binding of ________ to troponin permits cross-bridge _____________ between actin and myosin.
T/F More blood enters the ventricles during passive filling vs. active filling.
Which side of the heart is concerned with pulmonary circulation?
increases blood glucose
The cerebellum uses visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive information to maintain balance. It can maintain balance with any two of these senses, but not with only one. A positive Romberg sign is swaying upon closing the eyes.
An individual is unable to take the Romberg test because of swaying while the eyes are open. Which one of the following occurring alone can explain this?
stores hypothalamic hormones
The posterior pituitary...
An individual exhibits a positive Romberg sign. Their doctor asks them to indicate which way (up or down) the doctor has moved the patient's big toe. They answer correctly only four out of ten times. These signs suggest which of the following?
Which part of the EKG wave represents ventricular repolarization?
all of the above
A hormone may be...
inactivated by its target cell.
activated by its target cell.
inactivated by nontarget cells.
all of the above
T/F Basal Metabolic Rate is the amount of energy you need to stay alive and complete all of your daily activities.
All of the above choices are correct
The basal ganglia:
-Receive input from the muscles and the cerebrum
-Inhibits motor tone preventing inappropriate movements (keeps -Muscles quiet when they are not supposed to be moving)
Is responsible for a tremor at rest if there is a lesion or injury to the basal ganglia
-All of the above choices are correct
White blood cells and platelets
The buffy coat consists of:
a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates.
"Motor unit" refers to
All of the above
Which of the following is an example of a paracrine secretion?
-nerve growth factor
-platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
-All of the above
Lipid soluble hormones
Hormones that enter the plasma membrane and cause genetic transcription to carry out its effects are:
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