Chapter 24 - Completing the Audit
Terms in this set (75)
1) Auditors often integrate procedures for presentation and disclosure objectives with:
Tests for planning objectives
Tests for balance-related objectives
2) The auditor's primary concern relative to presentation and disclosure-related objectives is:
1) If a potential loss on a contingent liability is remote, the liability usually is:
A) disclosed in footnotes, but not accrued.
B) neither accrued nor disclosed in footnotes.
C) accrued and indicated in the body of the financial statements.
D) disclosed in the auditor's report but not disclosed on the financial statements.
2) A commitment is best described as:
A) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future.
B) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on company profitability.
C) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on current market conditions.
D) a potential future obligation to an outside party for an as yet to be determined amount.
3) Which of the following groups has the responsibility for identifying and deciding the appropriate accounting treatment for recording or disclosing contingent liabilities?
B) Legal counsel
D) Management and the auditors
4) You are auditing Rodgers and Company. You are aware of a potential loss due to non-compliance with environmental regulations. Management has assessed that there is a 40% chance that a $10M payment could result from the non-compliance. The appropriate financial statement treatment is to:
A) accrue a $4 million liability.
B) disclose a liability and provide a range of outcomes.
C) since there is less than a 50% chance of occurrence, ignore.
D) since there is greater that a remote chance of occurrence, accrue the $10 million.
Which of the following is a contingent liability with which an auditor is particularly concerned?
Notes receivable discounted
6) Audit procedures related to contingent liabilities are initially focused on:
7) With which of the following client personnel would it generally not be appropriate to inquire about commitments or contingent liabilities?
C) Accounts receivable clerk
D) Vice president of sales
Inquiries of management regarding the possibility of unrecorded contingencies will be useful in uncovering:
Management's intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies.
When management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements.
9) Which of the following is not considered a commitment?
A) Agreements to purchase raw materials
B) Pension plans
C) Agreements to lease facilities at set prices
D) Each of the above is a commitment.
10) If an auditor concludes there are contingent liabilities, then he or she must evaluate the:
Materiality of the potential liability.
Nature of the disclosure to be included in the financial statements.
11) One of the primary approaches in dealing with uncertainties in loss contingencies uses a ________ threshold.
12) If the auditor concludes that there are contingent liabilities, he or she must evaluate the significance of the potential liability and the nature of the disclosure needed in the financial statements. Which of the following statements is not true?
A) The potential liability is sufficiently well known in some instances to be included in the financial statements as an actual liability.
B) Disclosure may be unnecessary if the contingency is highly remote or immaterial.
C) A CPA firm often obtains a separate evaluation of the potential liability from its own legal counsel rather than relying on management or management's attorneys.
D) The client's attorneys must remain independent when evaluating the likelihood of losing the lawsuit.
13) When using the probability threshold for contingencies, the likelihood of the occurrence of the event is classified as:
A) not likely, likely, or highly likely.
B) remote, reasonably possible, or probable.
C) slight, moderate, great.
D) remote, likely, possible.
14) When dealing with contingencies:
A) all material contingencies must be disclosed or footnoted.
B) the auditor must exercise considerable professional judgment when evaluating whether the client has applied the appropriate treatment.
C) it is easy for the auditor to uncover contingencies without management's cooperation.
D) the review for contingent liabilities is only performed at the beginning and the end of the audit.
15) Which of the following is not a common audit procedure used to search for contingent liabilities?
A) Examine letters of credit.
B) Examine payroll reports.
C) Review internal revenue agent reports.
D) Analyze legal expense.
16) Contingent liability disclosure in the footnotes of the financial statements would normally be made when:
A) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, but a reasonable estimation as to the amount cannot be made by the client or auditor.
B) a reasonable estimation of the loss can be made, but the outcome is not probable.
C) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, and a reasonable estimation as to the amount can be made.
D) the outcome of the accounting event as well as a reasonable estimation of the loss cannot be made
1) Auditors will generally send a standard inquiry letter to:
A) only those attorneys who have devoted substantial time to client matters during the year.
B) every attorney that the client has been involved with in the current or preceding year, plus any attorney the client engages on occasion.
C) those attorneys whom the client relies on for advice related to substantial legal matters.
D) only the attorney who represents the client in proceeding where the client is defendant.
2) What needs to be included in a letter of inquiry sent to a client's legal counsel?
Any pending threatened litigation with which the attorney has had significant involvement
The amount of legal fees paid by the client to the attorney
3) Auditors, as part of completing the audit, will request the client to send a letter of inquiry to those attorneys the company has been consulting with during the year under audit regarding legal matters of concern to the company. The primary reason the auditor requests this information is to:
A) determine the range of probable loss for asserted claims.
B) corroborate of information supplied by management concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.
C) outside opinion of probability of losses in determining accruals for contingencies.
D) outside opinion of probability of losses in determining the proper footnote disclosure.
4) The standard letter of inquiry to the client's legal counsel should be prepared on:
A) plain paper (no letterhead) and be unsigned.
B) lawyer's stationery and signed by the lawyer.
C) auditor's stationery and signed by an audit partner.
D) client's stationery and signed by a company official.
5) What is one of the main reasons an attorney may refuse to provide auditors with complete information about contingent liabilities?
The attorneys refuse to disclose information they consider confidential.
The attorneys refuse to respond due to a lack of knowledge about matters involving contingent liabilities.
6) An attorney is aware of a violation of a patent agreement that could result in a significant loss to the client if it were known. This is an example of a(n):
B) unasserted claim.
C) pending litigation.
D) subsequent event.
7) Management furnishes the independent auditor with information concerning litigation, claims, and assessments. Which of the following is the auditor's primary means of initiating action to corroborate such information?
A) Request that client lawyers undertake a reconsideration of matters of litigation, claims, and assessments with which they were consulted during the period under examination.
B) Request that client management send a letter of inquiry to those lawyers with whom management consulted concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.
C) Request that client lawyers provide a legal opinion concerning the policies and procedures adopted by management to identify, evaluate, and account for litigation, claims, and assessments.
D) Request that client management engage outside attorneys to suggest wording for the text of a footnote explaining the nature and probable outcome of existing litigation, claims, and assessments.
8) An attorney is responding to an independent auditor as a result of the client's letter of inquiry. The attorney may appropriately limit the response to:
A) asserted claims and litigation.
B) asserted, overtly threatened, or pending claims and litigation.
C) items which have an extremely high probability of being resolved to the client's detriment.
D) matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the form of legal consultation or representation.
1) The auditor has a responsibility to review transactions and activities occurring after the balance sheet date to determine whether anything occurred that might affect the statements being audited. The procedures required to verify these transactions are commonly referred to as the review for:
A) contingent liabilities.
B) subsequent year's transactions.
C) late unusual occurrences.
D) subsequent events.
2) Which type of subsequent event requires consideration by management and evaluation by the auditor?
Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment.
Subsequent events that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure may be required.
3) Whenever subsequent events are used to evaluate the amounts included in the statements, care must be taken to distinguish between conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and those that come into being after the balance sheet date. The subsequent information should not be incorporated directly into the statements if the conditions causing the change in valuation:
A) took place before the balance sheet date.
B) did not take place until after the balance sheet date.
C) occurred both before and after the balance sheet date.
D) are reimbursable through insurance policies.
4) An auditor has the responsibility to actively search for subsequent events that occur subsequent to the:
A) balance sheet date.
B) date of the auditor's report.
C) balance sheet date, but prior to the audit report.
D) date of the management representation letter.
5) Which of the following subsequent events is most likely to result in an adjustment to a company's financial statements?
A) Merger or acquisition activities
B) Bankruptcy (due to deteriorating financial condition) of a customer with an outstanding accounts receivable balance
C) Issuance of common stock
D) An uninsured loss of inventories due to a fire
6) After the balance sheet date, but prior to the issuance of the audit report, the client suffers an uninsured loss of their inventory as a result of a fire. The amount of the loss is material. The auditor should:
A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit.
B) add a paragraph to the audit report.
C) advise the client to disclose the event in the notes to the financial statements.
D) advise the client to delay issuing the financial statements until the economic loss can be determined.
7) The auditor has completed her assessment of subsequent events. The proper accounting for subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements is to:
A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit.
B) disclose in the notes to financial statement the amount of the adjustment.
C) duly note in the audit workpapers that next year's financial statements need to be adjusted.
D) make no adjustment of the financial statements for the year under audit.
8) The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into two categories: (1) procedures integrated as a part of the verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following procedures is in the first category?
A) Inquire of client regarding contingent liabilities.
B) Obtain a letter of representation written by client.
C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate.
D) Review journals and ledgers of year 2 to determine the existence of any transactions related to year 1.
9) The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into two categories: (1) procedures normally integrated as a part of the verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following procedures is in the second category?
A) Correspond with attorneys.
B) Test the collectability of accounts receivable by reviewing subsequent period cash receipts.
C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate.
D) Compare the subsequent-period purchase price of inventory with the recorded cost as a test of lower of cost or market valuation.
10) Which of the following would be a subsequent discovery of facts which would not require a response by the auditor?
A) Discovery of the inclusion of material nonexistent sales
B) Discovery of the failure to write off material obsolete inventory
C) Discovery of the omission of a material footnote
D) Discovery of management's intent to increase selling prices in the future
11) In connection with the annual audit, which of the following is not a "subsequent events" procedure?
A) Prepare any necessary closing journal entries.
B) Examine the minutes of stockholders and directors meetings subsequent to the balance sheet date.
C) Review journals and ledgers.
D) Obtain a letter of representation.
12) An auditor performs interim work at various times throughout the year. The auditor's subsequent events work should be extended to the date of:
A) the auditor's report.
B) a post-dated footnote.
C) the next scheduled interim visit.
D) the final billing for audit services rendered.
13) Which event that occurred after the end of the fiscal year under audit but prior to issuance of the auditor's report would not require disclosure in the financial statements?
A) Sale of a bond or capital stock issue
B) Loss of plant or inventories as a result of fire or flood
C) A significant decline in the market price of the corporation's stock
D) A merger or acquisition
14) Which of the following material events occurring subsequent to the balance sheet date would require an adjustment to the financial statements before they could be issued?
A) Loss of a plant as a result of a flood
B) Sale of long-term debt or capital stock
C) Settlement of litigation in excess of the recorded liability
D) Major purchase of a business that is expected to double the sales volume
15) If the auditor determines that a subsequent event that affects the current period financial statements occurred after fieldwork was completed but before the audit report was issued, what date(s) may the auditor use on the report?
The date of the original last day of fieldwork only.
The date of the subsequent event only.
The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.
16) An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to dual date an audit report is primarily based on the auditor's decision to:
A) extend appropriate audit procedures.
B) assume responsibility for events after the date of the auditor's report.
C) assume responsibility for event from fiscal year end to the date of the audit report.
D) roll the dice and hope for a successful outcome.
17) The auditor's responsibility for "reviewing the subsequent events" of a public company that is about to issue new securities is normally limited to the period of time:
A) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date of the auditor's report.
B) beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with the balance sheet date.
C) beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with the date of the auditor's report.
D) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date the registration statement becomes effective
18) Subsequent events affecting the realization of assets ordinarily will require adjustments of the financial statements under examination because such events typically represent:
A) the culmination of conditions that existed at the balance sheet date.
B) additional new information related to events that were in existence on the balance sheet date.
C) final estimates of losses relating to casualties occurring in the subsequent events period.
D) preliminary estimate of losses relating to new events that occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date.
19) An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to "dual date" the audit report is based upon the auditor's willingness to:
A) extend auditing procedures and assume responsibility for a greater period of time.
B) accept responsibility for subsequent events.
C) permit inclusion of a footnote captioned: event (unaudited) subsequent to the date of the auditor's report.
D) assume responsibility for events subsequent to the issuance of the auditor's report.
20) After an auditor has issued an audit report on a nonpublic entity, there is no obligation to make any further audit tests or inquiries with respect to the audited financial statements covered by that report unless:
A) material adverse events occur after the date of the auditor's report.
B) final determination or resolution was made of a contingency which had been disclosed in the financial statements.
C) final determination or resolution was made on matters which had resulted in a qualification in the auditor's report.
D) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the auditor's report that may have affected the auditor's report.
21) A client has a calendar year-end. Listed below are four events that occurred after December 31. Which one of these subsequent events might result in adjustment of the December 31 financial statements?
A) Sale of a major subsidiary
B) Adoption of accelerated depreciation methods
C) Write-off of a substantial portion of inventory as obsolete
D) Collection of 90% of the accounts receivable existing at December 31
22) The auditor's responsibility with respect to events occurring between the balance sheet date and the end of the audit examination is best expressed by which of the following statements?
A) The auditor is fully responsible for events occurring in the subsequent period and should extend all detailed procedures through the last day of fieldwork.
B) The auditor is responsible for determining that a proper cutoff has been made and performing a general review of events occurring in the subsequent period.
C) The auditor's responsibility is to determine that a proper cutoff has been made and that transactions recorded on or before the balance sheet date actually occurred.
D) The auditor has no responsibility for events occurring in the subsequent period unless these events affect transactions recorded on or before the balance sheet date.
1) The date of the management representation letter received from the client should coincide with which of the following?
A) Date of latest subsequent event disclosed in the notes to the financial statements
B) Date of the auditor's report
C) Balance sheet date
D) Engagement agreement
2) Which of the following procedures and methods are important in assessing a company's ability to continue as a going concern?
Discussions with management regarding potential financial difficulties.
Evaluation of management's plans to avoid bankruptcy.
3) The letter of representation obtained from an audit client should be:
A) dated as of the end of the period under audit.
B) dated as of the audit report date.
C) dated as of any date decided upon by the client and auditor.
D) dated as of the issuance of the financial statement.
4) When should auditors generally assess a client's ability to continue as a going concern?
A) Upon completion of the audit
B) During the planning stages of the audit
C) Throughout the entire audit process
D) During testing and completion phases of the audit
5) Which of the following would the auditor expect to find in the client's management representation letter?
A) Management's recommendations for internal control effectiveness improvements
B) Management's plans for improving product quality
C) Management's compliance with contractual arrangements that impact the financial statements
D) Management's goals for improving earnings per share
6) Auditing standards require that the auditor evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern for at least:
A) one quarter beyond the balance sheet date.
B) one quarter beyond the date of the auditor's report.
C) one year beyond the balance sheet date.
D) one year beyond the date of the auditor's report.
7) Auditing standards require auditors to evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern. One of the most important audit procedures to perform to assess the going concern question is:
A) analytical procedures.
B) confirmations from creditors.
C) statistical sampling procedures.
D) inquiries of client and its legal counsel.
8) Which of the following statements regarding the letter of representation is not correct?
A) It is prepared on the client's letterhead.
B) It is addressed to the CPA firm.
C) It is signed by high-level corporate officials, usually the president and chief financial officer.
D) It is optional, not required, that the auditor obtain such a letter from management.
9) Refusal by a client to prepare and sign the representation letter would require the auditor to issue a:
A) qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
B) adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
C) qualified or an adverse opinion.
D) unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.
10) A client representation letter is:
A) prepared on the CPA's letterhead.
B) addressed to the client.
C) signed by high-level corporate officials.
D) dated as of the balance sheet date.
11) Which of the following is correct regarding supplementary information?
A) The auditor must express an opinion on the supplementary information.
B) When reporting on supplementary information, the auditor uses a different materiality threshold from that used in forming an opinion on the basic financial statements.
C) If the auditor's report on the audited financial statements contains an adverse opinion, the auditor can still issue an unqualified opinion on the supplementary information.
D) The auditor can issue a separate report on the supplementary information; it does not need to be part of the report on the financial statements.
12) Which of the following is not one of the categories of items included in the client letter of representation?
A) Subsequent events
B) Completeness of information
C) Recognition, measurement, and disclosure
13) Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor in identifying conditions and events that may indicate there could be substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern?
A) Review compliance with the terms of debt agreements
B) Confirmation of accounts receivable from principal customers
C) Reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding
D) Confirmation of bank balances
14) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) A letter of representation is documentation of management's acceptance of responsibility for the financial statements and is deemed to be reliable evidence.
B) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the potential incompetence of management.
C) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the lack of independence of the preparers.
D) A letter of representation is documentation of the CPA's acceptance of responsibility for the audit of the financial statement and is deemed to be reliable.
15) Auditing standards require the auditor to ________ other information included in annual reports pertaining directly to the financial statements.
B) express an opinion on
16) An auditor must obtain written client representations that might be signed by all but which of the following?
B) Chief financial officer
C) Vice president of operations
D) Chief executive officer
17) Which of the following is not a reason why the auditor requests that the client provide a letter of representation?
A) Professional auditing standards require the auditor to obtain a letter of representation.
B) It impresses upon management its responsibility for the accuracy of the information in the financial statements.
C) It provides written documentation of the oral responses already received to inquiries of management.
D) It determines the type of opinion the auditor will issue on the financial statements.
18) At the completion of the audit, management is asked to make a written statement that it is not aware of any undisclosed contingent liabilities. This statement would appear in the:
A) management letter.
B) letter of inquiry.
C) letters testamentary.
D) management letter of representation.
1) To make a final evaluation as to whether sufficient appropriate evidence has been accumulated, the auditor will do all of the following except:
A) review the audit documentation for the entire audit to determine whether all material classes of transactions have been adequately tested.
B) make sure that all parts of the audit program have been accurately completed and documented.
C) obtain the management representation letter.
D) decide whether the audit program is adequate.
2) When reviewing the summary of misstatements found in the audit:
A) an adjusting journal entry must be made by the auditor for all material misstatements.
B) auditors must combine individually immaterial misstatements to evaluate whether the combined amount is material.
C) the auditor is not required to consider the impact on the current financial statements of misstatements in the prior year that were not corrected.
D) auditors only need to consider the misstatements that impact the income statement.
1) The auditor is responsible for communicating significant internal control deficiencies to the audit committee, or those charged with governance. This communication:
A) may be oral or written.
B) must be oral.
C) must be written.
D) must be oral via direct communication.
2) Which of the following statements is most correct about an auditor's required communication with management and those charged with corporate governance?
A) The auditor is required to inform those charged with governance about significant errors discovered and subsequently corrected by management.
B) Any significant matter reported to those charged with governance must also be communicated to management.
C) Communication is required before the audit report is issued.
D) Auditor does not have any requirement to communicate with anyone other than the company's senior management.
3) While there is no professional requirement to do so on audit engagements, CPAs frequently issue a formal "management" letter to clients. The primary purpose of this letter is to provide:
A) evidence indicating whether the auditor is reasonably certain that internal accounting control is operating as prescribed.
B) a permanent record of the internal accounting control work performed by the auditor during the course of the engagement.
C) a written record of discussions between auditor and client concerning the auditor's observations and suggestions for improvements.
D) a summary of the auditor's observations that resulted from the auditor's special study of internal control.
4) When communicating with the audit committee and management:
A) only material fraud and illegal acts are required by auditing standards to be communicated.
B) all internal control deficiencies are required by auditing standards to be communicated.
C) the communications should be made in a timely manner to allow those charged with governance to take appropriate actions.
D) all communications with the audit committee and management must be in writing.
5) Auditing standards require the auditor to communicate all management frauds and illegal acts to the audit committee:
A) only if the act is immaterial.
B) only if the act is material.
C) only if the act is highly material.
D) regardless of materiality.
1) The audit firm issues an audit report for its client. The auditor's have NO obligation to make further inquiries with respect to the client's audited financial statements unless:
A) a development occurs that may affect the company's long term viability as a company.
B) final resolution was made on disclosed contingency for which no liability needed to be accrued.
C) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the audit report that, if known, would have impacted the audit opinion.
D) a lawsuit, in which the risk of loss was considered remote, was resolved in the company's favor.
Multiple Choice Questions From CPA Examination
24-21 a. (4) b. (1) c. (2) 24-22 a. (3) b. (3) c. (2) 24-23 a. (3) b. (1) c. (4) 24-24 a. (3) b. (2) c. (3)
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