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Certified Professional Coder Coding Test

American Academy of Professional Coder Certified Professional Coder Test for CPC-P 1. Codes and Ethics of Coders 2. Medical Terminology and Anatomy Review (all systems) 3. ICD-9-CM (complete) 4. CPT coding, surgery guidelines, HCPCS, and modifiers 5. Introduction to Integumentary system including ICD-9 and CPT codes 6. Introduction to Musculoskeletal System including ICD-9 and CPT codes 7. Introduction to Respiratory, Hemic, Lymphatic, Mediastinum and Diaphragm including ICD-9 and CPT co…
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Terms in this set (...)

Coding is
the process of translating this written or dictated fmedical record into a series of numeric or alpha-numeric codes
Proper code assignment is determined by
content of the medical record and by the unique rules that governs each code set
what are 3 things that Coder must master
1. anatomy
2. medical terminology
3. must be detail-oriented
Medical coders assign a code to what
1. Each diagnosis
2. service/procedure
3. Supply, using the classification system when applicable
The classification system determines what
the amount health care providers will be reimbursed if the patient is covered by Medicare, Medicaid, or other insurance programs using the system
A coder must evaluate the medical record for
1. completeness and accuracy
2. communicate regularly with physicians and othe health care professional to clarify DX or obtain additonal PT info.
Techicians who speciallize in coding inpatient hospital services are referred as
1. Health information coders
2. medical record coders
3. Coder/abstractors
4. Coding Specialist
What is MS-DRGs and what is it
1. Medicare Severity-Diagnosis Related Groups
2. Determines the amt the hospital will be reimbursed if the PT is covered by Medicare or other insurance programs
What is EHR
Electronic health record
Skill coders may become
consulatants, educators or medical auditors
What is the difference between Hospital and Physican Services
1. Outpatient coding (physician services)- learning CPT, HCPCS, LEVEL II, ICD-9 CM codes Volume 1 and 2
2. Inpatient coding (Hospital services)- Learning CPT, ICD-9 CM codes Volumes 1,2,3 and MS-DRGS
What is APC and who uses it
Ambulatory Payment Classification- outpatient facility coders (physician services
What is the coder role in a physician's office
Extremely important to proper reimbursement and the livelihood of the physican
What is a physican degree of education
4 years of college, 4 years of medical school plus 3 to 5 years of residency.
What is a mid-level providers and who
1. Mid-level providers are know as physician extenders
2. Physician assistants (PA) and Nurse Practitioners (NP)
What are the requirement for a PA and what
1. 26 1/2 month to complete
2. Lincense to practice medicine with physician supervision
NP must have
A Master Degree in Nursing
How many payers in the most simplest form?
2
Private insurance plans and government insurance plans
Commerical carriers are considered what
Private payers that offer both group and individual plans.
Private Payers contracts may
Vary but may include hospitalization, basic and major medical coverage.
What is the most significant government insurer
Medicare
What is Medicare
Federal health insurance program- Administerd by the Center for Medicare &Medicaid Services (CMS)
What is CMS and what does it provide
Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) provides coverage for people over the age of 65, blind, or disabled individuals, people with end -stage renal disease
CMS regulations often serves as ____ word in coding requirement for Medicare and Non-Medicare payers alike
Last
What are the parts of Medicare
Medicare A
Medicare B
Medicare C
Medicare D
What is Medicare Part A
Covers inpatient hospital care, as well as care provided in skilled nursing facilites, hospice care, and home health care
What is Medicare Part B
Covered Medically necessary doctors' services, outpatient care, other medical services (including some preventive service not covered under Medicare Part A
Medicare Part B is considered what
A optional benefit for which the patient must pay a premium and which generally requires a yearly copay
Where is Medicare Part B usually used
Physician offices (Outpatient Facility)
What is Medicare Part C
Combines the benefits of Medicare Part A, Part B, and sometimes Part D.
What is Medicare Part C also called
Medicare Advantage
What is PPO
Preferred Provider Organizations
What is HMO
Health Maintenace Organizations
Which plan covers PPO and HMO
Medicare Part C
What is the CMS-HCC
Center for Medicare & Medicaid Services-Hierarchical condition category
What does the CMS-HCC provide
Risk adjument model provides adjusted payment based on a patient's disease and demographic factors.
If a coder does not include all pertinent diagnoses and co-morbidities, the provider may lose out on what
additional reimbursement for which he/she is entitled.
What is Medicare Part D
Prescription drug coverage program available to all Medicare beneficiaries. Private companies approved by Medicare provide the coverage.
What is Medicaid
A health insurance assistance program for some low income people (especially children and pregnant women) sponsored by federal and state governments
Medicaid administed on
a state-by-state basis and coverage varies- although each of the state programs adheres to certain federal guidelines
When is a physican considered a "participating physician"
When contracted with a insurance carrier whether that be a private insurance company or a governmental.
Participating Providers (Par Providers are required to accept
the allowed payment amount determined by the insurance carrier as the fee for payment and follow all other guidelines stipulated by the contract
The difference between the physican's fee and the insurance carriers allowed amount is
adjusted by the participating provider
Non-participating Providers are
1. providers not contracted with the insurance carriers
2. not required to make the adjustment
What is limiting charge
Limits set on what can be charged for each CPT code, no matter if the physican is Par or Non-Par
What is a medical record
Documentation is the recording of pertinent facts and observation about an individual's health history, including past and present illness, tests, treatments and outcomes
Medical record chronologically
documents patient care to assist in continuity of care between providers, facilitate claims review and payment
Can a Medical record serve as legal document
YES
All services provided to a patient is
supported and documented in the medical record
What is the coders required to with the medical records
to read and understand the documentation in the medical record in order to accurately code the services rendered.
What are some different types of services documented in medical record
Evaluation and management
Operative reports
X-Rays
Evaluation and Management services are provided in what standard format
SOAP
What is SOAP
S- Subjective
O-Objective
A- Asssessment
P-Plan
What is the definition of S of SOAP
subjective- The patient's statment about his or her health, including symptoms
What is the definition of O of SOAP
objective-The provider assesses and documents the patient's illness using observation, palpation, auscultation and percussion. Test and other services performed may be documented here as well
What is the definition of A of SOAP
Assessment-Evaluation and conclusion made by the provider. This is usually where the diagnosis(es) for the services are found
What is the definition of P of SOAP
Plan-Course of Action. Here, the provider will list eh next steps for the patient, whether it is ordering additional test, or taking over the counter medication
What is a operative report
a document the detail of a fprocedure performed on a patient
What will most operative notes have
Header and Body
what are some of things that operative header note might include?
1. Date and time of procedure
2. Name of surgeon, co-surgeon, assistant surgeon
3. Typer of anethesia and anestheiology provider name
4. Pre-operative and post-operative diagnoses
5. Procedures performed
6. Complications
What are some of things that operative body note might include
1. indication for surgery
2. details of the procedure (s)
3. Findings
What is the approximate percentage of an operative report contains words less important to a coder?
20 %
What is the tasked for a coder with an operative report
to break down the information and applying the correct code.
What are the 5 most important Coding Tips for operative reports for a coders
1. Diagnosis code reporting
2. Start with the procedures listed
3. Look for key words
4. Highlight unfamiliar words
5. Read the body
What does the first coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder ?
Diagnosis code reporting- Use the post-operative diagnosis for coding unless there are further defined diagnoses or additional diagnoses found in the body or finding of the operative report.
What does the second coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder?
Start with the procedures listed- For the coder who is new to coding a procedure , one way of quickly starting the research process is by focusing on the procedures listed in the header. Read the note in its entirety to verify the procedures performed. Procedures listed in the header may not be listed correctly and procedures documented with the body of the report may not be listed in the header at all. It will help a coder with a place to start
What does the third coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder?
Look for key words- Key words may include locations ana anatomical structures involved, surgicial approach, procedure method, procedure type, siiz and number and the surgical instruments used during the procedure
What does the fourth coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder?
Highlight unfamiliar words- Words you are not familiar with should be highlighted and researched for understanding
What does the fifth coding tip mean for the operative report for a coder?
Ready the body- All procedure reported should be documented with the body of the report. The body may indicate a procedure was abandoned or complicated, possibly indicating the need for a different procedure code or reporting of a modifier
what is medical necessity relates to
whether a procedure or service is considered appropriate in a given circumstance
Generally what a medically-necessary service is
the least radical service/procedure that allows for effective treatment of the patient's complaint or condition
Under what regulations is medically necessity found under
Title XVIII 1862 (a) (1) of the Social Security Act
What is the National Coverage Determinations Manual
Describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures or technologies can be paid under Medicare
What is the difference between Covered and Non-covered items
1. Covered items-services and procedures are covered only when linked to designated, approved diagnosis
2. Non-covered items are deemed "not reasonable or necessary
Medicare and many insurance plan may deny payment for a service that is
not reasonable or necessary according to the Medicare reimbursement rules.
What is NCD and what does it do
1. National Coverage Determinations
2. Explains when Medicare will pay for items or services
What is LCD and What is it
1. Local Coverage Determinations
2. MAC is responsible for interpreting national policies into regional policies. The LCDs further define what codes are needs and when an item or service will be coved . LCD have jurisdiction only with their regional area
what is MAC
Medical Administrative Contractor
if a NCD does not exist what are CMS guidelines
Where coverage of an item or service is provided for specified indications or circumstances but is not explicitly excluded for others, or where the item or service is not mentioned at all in the CMS Manual System, the Medicare contractor is to make the coverage decision, in consultation with its medical staff and with CMS when appropriate, based on the laws, regulations, ruling and general program instructions.
How often do Practices should check policies to maintain compliance
Quarterly
What does ABN stand for
Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage, or Advance Beneficiary Notice
What is ABN
A standardized form that explains to the patient why medicare may deny the particular service or procedure.
What does ABN protect
The provider's financial interest by creating a paper trail that CMS requires before a provider can bill the patient for payment if Medicare denies coverage for the stated service or procedure
What must the provider must complete (in regards to ABN)
1. Complete one-page form in full
2. giveing the patient an explanation as to why Medicare is likely to refuse vocerage for proposed procedure or service
What are some of the common reason why Medicare may deny a procedure and service
1. Medicare does not pay for the procedure/service for the patient's condition
2. Medicare does not pay for the procedure/service as frequently as proposed
3. Medicare dod not pay for experimental procedure/services
What must the provider present to the patient on the ABN for a proposed procedure or service
Cost Estimate
What is CMS instruction stipulate on Cost estimate
Notifiers must make a good faith effort to insert a reasonalble estimate...the estimate should be within $100 or 25% of the actual costs, whichever is greated.
CMS rules require the provider to present the ABN to patient when
Far enough in advance that the beneficiary or representative have time to consider the options and make an informed choice.
What must be done BEFORE the patient signs the ABN
1. ABN must be verbally recived with beneficiary or his/her represenative
2. Any questions raised during that review must be answered
After the ABN is signed, What are choices the patient has
1. Medicare beneficiary may choose to proceed with procedure/service and assume financial responsiblity. If the patient chooses to proceed, he may request the charge be submitted to Medicare for consideration (with the understanding that it will probably be denied
2. may elect to forego the procedure or service
What must go to the patient and to the provider
1. Copy of completed signed form must be given to beneficiary or representative
2. The provider must retain the original notice on file
what action can the provider take if the patient refuses to sign the ABN
if the patient still request the procedures and services but refuses to sign a properly-presented ABN, the provider should cocument the patient's refusal. The provider and a witness should then sign the form.
When is a ABN never required and WHY
1. Emergency and urgent care situation
2. CMS prohibits given an ABN to a patient who is "under duress," including patient who need Emergency Department service before stabilization
What is HIPAA
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
How many Act are under HIPPA
5
What is the important title concerning the position of a medical coder
Title II-Preventing Health care Fraud and Abuse; Administrative Simplication; Medical Liability Reform
What is Title II of HIPPA known as
Administration Simplification
Administration Simplification speaks to what
the increasing use of technology in the health care industry
Administration Simplification (HIPPA) address the need for
1. National standards for electronic health care tranaction and code sets
2. National unique indentifiers for providers, health plans and employers
3. Privacy and Security of health data
Who is under the covered entity
1. health care providers
2. Health plans
3. Health care Clearinghouse
Who is under the "health care providers covered entity"
1. Doctors
2. Clinics
3. Psychologists
4. Nursing Home
5. Pharmacies
Who is under the "Health plan covered entity
1. Health Insurance Companies
2. HMO
3. Company Health Plans
4. Governement programs that pay for health care, such as Medicare, Medicaid, and the military, and veterans health care programs
The definition of a Health plan in the HIPPA regulations excludes
any policy, plan or program that provides or pays for the cost of excepted benefits
What do Excepted benefits include
1. Coverage only for a ccident, or disability income insurance, or any combination thereof
2. Coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance
3. Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance
4. Worker's compensation or similar insurance
5. Credit-only insurance
6. Coverage for on-site medical clinics
7. Other similar insurance coverage, specified in regulation, under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits
what is included in the Health care clearinghouse covered enitity
Entities that process nonstandard health information they receive from another entity into standard format or vice vesa
Why is there a need for National Standard for Electronic Health care transaction and code set
According to CMS " transactions are electronic excahanges involving transfer of information between two parties for a specific purpose. National standards for electronic health care transaction are designeed to improve the effciency and effectiveness of the health care system by standardizing the formats used for electronic transactions.
What transactions are used in National Standard for Electronic care transaction and code set
1. Health claims and equivalent encounter information
2. Enrollment and disenrollment in a health plan
3. Eligibility for a health plan
4. Health care payment and remittance advice
5. Health plan premium payments
6. Health claim status
7. Referral certification and authorization
8. Coordination of benefits
What are the Code sets that within the transactions, code sets have been designated for standard use?
1. HCPCS
2. CPT
3. CDT
4. ICD-9-CM
5. NDC
What is acroymn HCPCS stand for
Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System
What is acroymn CPT stand for
Current Procedural Terminology
What is acroymn CDT stand for
Common Dental Terminology
When will ICD-10-CM be effective
October 1, 2013
What does the acroymn NDC stand for
National Drug codes
What does the acroymn NPI and who used it
1. National Provider Indentifier
2. indentifier for providers required on the transactions
What does the acroymn EIN and who uses it
1. Employer Indentification Number
2. Issued to employers by the Internal Revenue Services (IRS)
Who enforces HIPAA privacy rule
OCR (Office of Civil Rights)
What does the acroymn OCR stand for
Office of Civil Rights
What does the OCR do
Protects the privacy of individually indentifiable health information;
HIPAA Security Rule
Patient Safety Rule
What is the HIPPA Security Rule according to the OCR
Sets national standards for the security of electronic protected health information and the confidentiality provision of the patient Safety Rule
What is the Patient Safety Rule according to the OCR
Protects indentifiable information being used to analyze patient safety event and improve patient safety
What is the acroymn PHI stand for
Protected health infomation
What does acroymn TPO stand for
Treatment Payment and Health Care Operations
When and who can a covered entity disclose health information to
1. A covered entity may use or disclose protected health infromation for its own treatment,payment or health care operations
2. A covered entity may disclose protected health information for treatment activities of a health care provider
3. A covered entity may disclose protected health information to another covered entity or a health care provider for the payment activities of the entity that recieves the information
4 A covered entity may disclose to another covered entity for health care operation activities of the entity that recieves the infromation, if each entiity either has or had a relationship with the individual who is the subject of the protected health information
5. A covered entity that participates in an organized health care arrangement may disclose protected health information about an individual to another covered entity tath participates in the organized health care arrangement for any health care operations activites of the organized health care arrangement
what is the HIPPA Minimum necessary requirement
Only the minimum necessary protected health information should d to satisfy a particular purpose. if the information is not required to satisfy a particular purpose, it must be withheld.
Under the Privacy rulem the minimum necessary standards does not apply to the following
1. Disclosures to or requests by a health care provider for treatment of purposes
2. Disclosures to the individual who is the subject of the information
3. Uses or disclosures made pursuant to an individual's authorization
4. Uses or disclosures required for compliance with the HIPAA Administrative Simplification Rules
5. Disclosures to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services when disclosure of the information is required under the Privacy Rule for enforcement purposes
6. Uses or disclosures that are required by other laws
What does the acroymn HITECH stand for
Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act
What does the acroymn ARRA stand for
American Recovery and refinvestment act of 2009
HITECH was enacted as part of What
ARRA
What was ARRA and HITECH promote
the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology
Portions of HITECH strengthen HIPAA rules by
addressing the privacy and security concerns assoicated with the electronic transmission of health information
HITECH has how many categories of violation
Four
What are the categories depending on
the covered entity's level of culpability for releasing protected information and minimum and maximum penalties.
HITECH lowers what for what constitutes a voliation but provides what during which any violation not due to willful neglect may be corrected without a penalty
1. Lowers the Bar
2. 30-Day window
HITECH allows patients to do what
1. request an audit trail showing all disclosures of their health information made through an electronic record
2. requires an individual to be notified if there is an unauthorized disclosure or use of his or her health information
What should all physician's office and health care facilities should have and actively use
Compliance plan
What is a compliance plan
a written set of instructions outlining the process for coding and submitting accurate claims and what to do if mistakes are found.
What are several benefits that a compliance plan can offer
1. Faster, more accurate payment of claims
2. Fewer billing mistakes
3. Diminished chances of a payer audit
4. Last chance of running a foul of self-referral and anti-kickback statutes.
Increased accuracy of physician documentation in result of a compliance program actually may assist what
enhancing patient care
What does the acroymn OIG stand for
Office of Inspector General
What does the acroymn HHS
Department of Health & Human Services
What is the OIG
a government agency tasked to protected the integrity of Department of Health & Human Services programs, as well as the health and welfare of the beneficiaries of those programs
What was published in the Federal Register on October 5, 2000
The OIG Compliance Program for Individual and Small Group Physician Practice
What are the Key actions of this programs
1. Conduct internal monitorind and auditing throught the performance of periodic audits
2. implement compliance and pratice standards through the development of written standards and procedures
3. designate a compliance officer or contact (s) to monitor compliance efforts and enforce practice standards
4. Conduct appropriate training and education on practice standards and procedures
5. Respond appropriately to detected violation through the investigation of allegations and the disclosure of incidents to appropriate government entities
6. Develop open lines of communication
7.Enforce diciplinary standards through well-publicized guidelines
What month of each year does the OIG release a work plan outlining its priorities for the fiscal year ahead?
October
Prefixes often (not always) indicate what
Location, Time, number
Indentify the following prefix of location: Ec-, Ecto-
Out; outside
Indentify the following prefix of location: End/o-
in; within
Indentify the following prefix of location : Mes/o
middle
Indentify the following prefix of location : Dextr/o
right
Indentify the following prefix of location: Sinister/o
left
Indentify the following prefix of location : Ab-
away from
Indentify the following prefix of location: Ad-
toward; near
Indentifiy the following prefix of location : Dia-
Through; complete
Indentify the following prefix of location : Per-
Through
Indentify the following prefix of location : Trans-
through; across
Indentify the following prefix of time : Ante-
before; forward
Indentify the following prefix of time : Pre-
Before, in front of
Indentify the following prefix of time : Pro-
Before, in front of
Indentify the following prefix of time :Post-
after, behind
Indentify the following prefix of number : Mon/o
one; single
Indentify the following prefix of number : Bi-
two, twice
Indentify the following prefix of number :Tri-
Three
Indentify the following prefix of number : Quadri-
Four
Indentify the following prefix of number : Poly-
Many, much
What does the term "suffix"mean and where does come from
1. to fasten underneath
2. Latin word subfigure
What are some of the common suffixes for diseases and meaning
1. -itis-inflammation
2. -oma-tumor
3. -pathy- disease of
indentify the following suffix :-gram
a record of data
indentify the following suffix: -graph
instrument for recording data
indentify the following suffix: -graphy
act of recording data
Indentify the following suffix: -meter
Instrument of measuring
Indentify the following suffix: -scope
instrument for viewing or examining
indentify the following suffix: -scopy
examination of
indentify the following suffix: -centesis
puncture, tap
indentify the following suffix: -desis
binding, fusion
indentify the following suffix: -ectomy
excision, surgical removal
indentify the following suffix: -pexy
surgicial fixation
indentify the following suffix: -plasty
plastic repair, plastic surgery, reconstruction
indentify the following suffix: -rraphy
surgical repair, suture
indentify the following suffix: -stomy
surgical creation of an opening
indentify the following suffix: -tome
Instrument for incising (cutting)
indentify the following suffix: -tomy
incision, cutting
Indentify the following suffix: - tripsy
crushing
What is the standard body postion and what is it
1. anatomical position
2. an upright, face-forward position with the arms by the side and palms facing forward. The feet are parallel and slightly apart
What does Anterior or Ventral mean
toward the front of the body
What does Posterior or Dorsal mean
toward the back of the body
What does Medial mean
Towards the midline of the body
What does Lateral mean
Toward the side of the body
What does Proximal mean
nearer to the point of attachment or to the given reference point
what does Distal mean
farther from the point of attachment or from a given reference point
What does Superior (cranial) mean
above; toward the head
What does Inferior (caudal) mean
below; toward the lower end of the spine
what does Superficial (external)
Closer to the surface of the body
What does Deep (internal)
Closer to the center of the body
What does Sagittal plane mean
cuts through the midline of the body from the front to back and divides the body into right and left sections
What does Frontal (coronal) plane mean
cuts at a right angle to the midline cut , from side to side and divides the body into front (anterior) and Back (posterior) sections
What does Transverse (horizontal) plane mean
cuts horizontally through the body and separates the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) sections
The structure of the human body falls into how many categories
4
What are the categories of the human body
1. Cells
2. Tissues
3. Organs
4. Systems
What is a cell
A basic unit of all living things
What are 4 components of a cell and what do they do
1. cell membrane- forms the boundary of the cell
2. cytoplasm- make up the body of the cell
3. Nucleus- the small, round structure in the center of the cell
4. Chromonsomes- located in the nucleus of the cell; they contain genes determining hereditary characteristics
What are 4 types of tissue and what do they do
1. Muscle tissue- produces movement
2. Nerve tissue- conducts impluses to and from the brain
3. Connective tissue - connects and supports various body structures: Adipose (fat) and osseous (bone)
4. Epithelial tissue- found in the skin, lining of the blood vessels, respiratory, intestinal, urinary tracts, and other body systems
What are Organs
two or more kinds of tissue together performing special body functions
What are systems
a group of rogans working together to perform a complex body function
What is cytology
Study of cells including the formation, structure and function of cells
What does the acroymn RNA means and what does it do
1. Ribonucleic acid
2. Contained within the nucleus, is transcribed from DNA by enzymes and plays a crucial role in protein synthesis
What is a gene
Specific segment of base pairs in chromosomes; functional unit of heredity
what is mitosis
Cells divide and multipy to form two cells
How many body cavities does the body have
5
What are the 5 types of body cavities and what is in the space
1. cranial cavity- inside the skull, or cranium, containing the brain
2. Spinal (Vertebral canal)- inside the spinal column containing the spinal cord
3. Thoraci or chest cavity- the space containing the heart, lungs, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, and thymus
4. Abdominal cavity- the space containing the lower portion of the esophagus, the stomach, intestines (excluding the sigmoid colon and rectum) kidneys, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, splean and ureters
5. Pelvic cavity- the space containing the urinary bladder, certain reproductive organs, part of the large intestine, and the rectum
How many types of Membranes are there in the human body
5
what are 5 types of membranes in the human body?
1. Mucous Membrane
2. Serous Membrane
3. Synovial Membrane
4. Meninges
What is the Mucous Membrane Composed of
Epithelium overlaying a layer of connective tissue called Lamina Propria
what is the job of epithelium in mucous membranes
involved in absorption and secretion
Where is Mucous Membrane Lined
Lined the interior walls of the organs and tubes opening to the outside of the body
what is the serous membrane composed of
a layer of simple squamous epithelium overlaying a layer of loose connective tissue.
what does the serous membrane support
internal organs
what does the serous membrane companrtmentalize
the large vavities to hinder spread of infection
what does the serous membrane line
cavities including the thracic cavity and internal organs
what is synovial membrane composed of
connective tissue
what does synovial membrane line
joint cavities
what does synovial membrane do
1. secrete synovial fluid into the joint cavity
2. lubricates the ends of of bones so they move freely
What is meninges composed of
3 connective tissue membrane
where are meninges found
with the dorsal cavity
what are does the meninges do
serve as a protective covering
what does the cutaneous membrane consist of
a thin outer layer of stratified squamous epithelium attached to a thicker underlying layer of connective tissue.
What does the cutaneous membrane forms
the outer covering of the body
what is another for the cutaneous membrane
skin
What is connective tissue
a number of different tissues with common feauture.
What does purpose of connective tissue
They support and connect tissue of the body
What are the four general group of connective tissue
1. connective tissue proper
2. cartilage
3. bone
4. blood
The largest organ system in the body is comprised of what 3 structures
1. skin
2. hair
3. Nail
What is largest organ system called
integumentary system
These structure work together to provide what functions within the body
1. Protection from injury, fluid loss, and microorganism
2. Temperature regulation
3. Fluid balance-excretion
4. Sensation
What 2 layers make up the human skin
1. Dermis
2. Epidermis
The epidermis is composed of what
4 to 5 layers called stratum
The number of stratum varies based on what
where the epidermis is located
Stratum lucidum layer is normally found only on what
1. palms of the hands
2. soles of the feet
What are the 5 strata of the epidermis
1. stratum Corneum
2. Stratum Lucidum
3. Stratum Granulosum
4. Stratum Spinosum
5. Stratum Basale
What is stratum corneum composed of
the horny layers, outermost layer
what is stratum lucidum composed of
clear layer
What is stratum Granulosum composed of
Granular layer of cells
What are 2 types of Granules
1. Keratohyaline granules
2. lamellated granules
What is stratum Spinosum composed of
composed of prickle cells
What is Stratum basale composed of
Deepest of the 5 layers, made of basal cells
Where is the dermis located
under the epidermis
What are the 2 layers of strata of the dermis
1. Stratum Papillare
2. Stratum Reticulare
what is stratum papillare composed of
thin superficial layer interlocked with epidermis
what is stratum reticulare composed of
thick layer of dense, irregular connective tissue
The dermis contains many important structures nourishing and innervating the skin, what are they
1. Vessels carrying blood and lymph
2. Nerves and nerve endings
3. Glands
4. Hair follicles
what lies underneath the dermis
subcutaneous layer
What is another name for subcutaneous layer
hypodermis
subcutaneous layer is not considered
a layer of skin.
Subcutaneous tissue is mostly composed of
fatty or adipose tissue plue some areolar tissue
What is areolar tissue
loose connective tissue consisting of a meshwork of collagen, elastic tissue and reticular fibers.
The hypodermis serves to
1. protect the underlying structures
2. prevent loss of the body heat
3. anchor the skin to the underlying musculature
What is the fibrous connective tissue that is included in this layer
superficial fascia
Define cutaneous
Pertaining to the skin
Define dermatology
the study of the skin
Define dermatologist
Physician specializing in diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
Define Decubitus
Pressure ulcer/bedsore
Define Ecchymosis
Condition in which blood seepss into the skin causing discoloration
Define Hypodermic
Pertaining to under the skin
Define Intradermal
Pertaining to within the skin
Define Jaundice
Yellowness of skin
Define Melanin
Pigment giving color to the skin
Define Melanoma
Pigmented tumor of the skin
Define Pediculosis
Infestation with lice
Define Subcutaneous
Pertaining to below the skin
Define Tinea
Ringworm; a fungal infection of the skin
By which week does a developing fetus has its lifetime supply of hair follicles
22 weeks
On average a human body have how many follicles
5 million
where is greatest concentration of follicles
head
Hair on the scalp grows approximately how much per day and per year
1. .3 to .4 mm/day
2. @ 6 inches per year
what are 2 structures of hair
1. follicle
2. shaft
the shaft is compoosed of keratin in what 3 layers
1. medulla
2 cortex
3. cuticle
Pigment cells are in what layer of the shaft
cortex
What layer give hair its charactertistic color
medulla
What is a fingernail made of
keratin
what does is the purpose of Keratin on the fingernail
1. protective plate
2. counterforce to the finger tip to increase sensory input of touch
Nails grow all the time but the rate of growth slow with
1. age
2. poor circulation
Fingernail grow at an approximate rate
of 3mm per month
Toenails grow what
more slowly
Toenails grow at approximate rate
1 mm per month
What are the 6 specific parts of the nail
1. root
2. nail bed
3. nail plate
4. eponychium (cuticle)
5. perionychium
6. hyponychium
The root lies beneath the skin behind the fingernail and extends several millimeters into the finger is also known as
germinal matrix
the root produces of what of the nail
most of volume
What is the nail and the nail bed and its edges called
lunula
what is another name for the nail bed
sterile matrix
Where does nail bed extend to
the edge of the lunula to the hyponychium
What does the nail bed contain
1. Blood vessels
2. nerves
3. Melanocytes (melanin-producing cells)
Define Alopecia
Loss of hair
Define Follicles
Specialized structures required for hair growth
Define Hair Follicles
Sacs holding the root of hair fibers
Define Hair Papilla
Knoblike indentation at bottom of hair follicle containing the bloody supply to hair root
Define Onchitis
Inflammation of nail matrix
The musculoskeletal system is
a systems of muscles, joints, tendons, ligament
What does the muscloskeletal system provide
movement, form, strength and protection
Bones are composed of what
Rigid connective tissue
Bones provide what functions
1. Form the skeleton
2. Provide the chief means of support for the body
3. Provide the mechanism for motion
4. Protect vital organs
5. Serve as a production factory for blood cells
6. Store calicum, phosphorus, and magnesium salts
What are the seven classifications of bones
1. Long
2. Tubular
3. Short
4. seasmoid
5. Cuboidal
6. Flat
7. irregular
define the classification LONG of bones
bones longer than they are wide and found in the limbs. The bones are named for their elongated shape, not their size.
define the classification TUBULAR of bone
referred to as long bones
define the classification SHORT of bone
Roughly cube shaped bones
define the classification SESAMOID of bone
a short bone formed within tendons; cartilaginous in early life and osseous in adult.
What is the largest Sesamoid bone
Patella
Define the classification CUBOIDAL of bone
referred to as short bones
Define the classification of FLAT of bone
Consists of a layer of spongy bone between two thin layers of compact bones; Cross-section is flat not round.
Flat bones have marrow but lack what
bone marrow cavity
Define Classification Irregular of bone
Bones in the body not fitting into the above classifications mentioned.
Vertebrae are considered what
irregular bones
What is cartilage
a type of flexible connective tisssue
True or Fale Cartilage is nonvascular or has no blood vessels
True
Cartilage is made of
a matrix of chondrocytes, collagen, cells called proteoglycans depending on the type of cartilage
Joint and articulating surfaces provide what
a connection between two or more parts of skeleton
Joints are classified accord to what
the type of connective tissue at the articulating surfaces
What are the 3 types of joints
1. fibrous
2. cartilaginous
3. Synovial
What are the characteristics of synovial joints
1. Articular cartilage that covers the bone ends
2. Joint cavity lined with synovial membrane
3. Joint capsule of fibrous connective tissue that surrounds and provides stability of the joint
4. Accessory ligament that give reinforcement
The human skeleton is divided in which 2 parts
1. Axial
2. Appendicular
What does the axial skeleton consist of
Skull, hyoid/cervical spine, ribs, sternum, vertebrae, sacrum
What does the appendicular skeleton consist of
shoulder girdle, pelvic girdle, extremities
Define Closed fracture
Does not involve a break in the skin
Define Compound fracture
Projects throught the skin with a possibility of infection
Define Comminuted Fracture
Shatter affected part into bony fragments
Define Transverse Fracture
Breaks shaft of a bone across the longitudinal axis
Define Greenstick Fracture
Only one side of the shaft is broken, and other is bent. Common in children
Define Spiral Fracture
Spread along length of bone and produced by twisting stress
Define Colles' Fracture
occurs in wrisit and affects the distal radius bone
Define Compression Fracture
Vertebra Collapse due to trauma, tumor or osteoporosis
Define Epiphyseal fracture
Occurs when matrix is calcifying and chondrocytes are dying. Common in Children
What are 3 types of muscles found in the body
1. skeletal Muscle
2. Cardiac Muscle
3. Smooth Muscle
What is skeletal muscle
also called striated muscle, it is attached to the skeleton by tendons; contraction of skeletal muscule is under voluntary control
What is Cardiac muscle
also called heart muscle, it contains interlocking involuntary striated muscles as wellas smooth muscle, which allow the electrical impulses to pass quickly across the muscle fibers
What is Smooth muscle
Found in the walls of all the hollow organs of the body except the heart. It condtraction reduces the size of these structures; movement generally is considered Involunatry
Define Ankylosis
Condition of stiffening of joint
Define Arthralgia
pain in joint
Define Arthritis
inflammation of joint
Define arthrodesis
surgical fixation of a joint
Define Arthropathy
joint disease
Define Bursitis
Inflammation of bursa
Define Carpal
Petaining to the wrist bones
Define Chondral
Pertaining to cartilage
Define Chondralgia
Pain around and in the cartilage
Define Coccygeal
Pertaining to coccyx
Define Connective
Tissue connecting or binding together
Define Dactylic
Pertaining to finger or toe
Define Femoral
Pertaining to femur or thigh bone
Define Iliac
Pertaining to the ilium
Define Kyphosis
abnormal curvature of thoracic spine (humpback)
Define Lordosis
Abnormal anterior curvature of spine usually lumbar
Define Metacarpal
Bones of hand
Define Osteoblast
bone-forming cell
Define Osteocarcinoma
Cancerous tumor of bone
Define Osteochondritis
Inflammation of bone and cartilage
Define Osteopenia
Lower than average bone density, can be a precursor to osteporosis
Define Osteoporosis
Condition resulting in reduction of bone mass
Define Osterrhaphy
suture of bone
Define Patellar
Pertaining to patella
Define Phalangeal
Bones of fingers and toes
Define Scoliosis
Lateral Curvature of spine
Define Sternotomy
surgical incision of sternum
Define Tendonitis
Inflammation of tendon