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advanced physiology final review
Terms in this set (67)
during secondary healing of skin, a) b)
a) specialized fibers cause the scar to reduce in size
b) keloids ma occur if the tissue does not heal properly
which of the following may produce endogenous pyrogens? a) b) c)
which of the following cell changes are irreversible? a) b) c)
a) hole in cell membrane
c) ice crystal formation
acquired disorders.. a) b)
a) are caused by an outside source
b) are the largest category of disorders
during inflammation, redness is directly caused by ______
which of the following will cause cell injury due to deficiency? a) b)
which type of necrosis is most likely to occur in CNS tissue?
an injured tissue is classified as stable. which of the following describes its ability to heal?
good because the mitotically inactive cells will resume mitosis
which of the following is a granulocyte? a) b)
which of the following are normal parts of healing? a) b) c)
b) osteoblasts converting cartilage to bone during the healing of a broken bone
c) contact inhibition
what is granulation tissue?
- wound contracture
- shrinks when size of scar decreases
- specialized fiber (myofibrils) that shrinks
-forms in bottom of wound
name the type of membrane that most commonly forms adhesions
describe how a lysosome and phagosome protect the cell
- when bacteria enter the cell, it is engulfed by the phagosome
- the lysosome then connects to the phagosome & the bacteria is broken down into smaller particles in the digestive vacuole
- the particles are then forced out of the cell by exocytosis in order to keep the cell healthy and free of bacteria
what is a non selective COX inhibitor? list 5 effects it has on the body
one that can inhibit both pathways (COX 1 & COX 2). an example is NSAIDS (non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
1. reduce inflammation
2. decrease pain
3. decrease swelling
4. reduce fever
5. increase length of time it takes for the body to heal
- decrease platelet activity
- decrease flow of blood in kidney
healing process is delayed from its natural course
what is contact inhibition? describe its role in healing
controls & regulates healing
- when cells of the same type get closer and crowd each other,
mitosis is inhibited.
- if mitosis continued, there would be more tissue than necessary
- especially in surface restoration
what is an example of permanent tissue?
what is an example of labile tissue?
epithelium, bone marrow
why do you get chills when you have a higher fever? explain
- the hypothalamus works to keep the body temperature at a set point (usually 98.6 degrees). if the body develops a fever, the temperature will increase. Now the set point is at a higher temperature and the body is too cold, so the person will get chills and shiver in order to get warmer and reach the body's set point.
list two advantages of inflammation
1. inflammation is helpful because heat will fight away/destroy anything non-self and speed the process of phagocytosis
2. pain to the area of injury. this causes the person to not want to use/touch that area and will avoid possible injury in the future while that area is still healing.
-brings WBCs to injury site
-edema flushes out toxins
sally twisted her knee and her PA wrapped the swollen area. explain how this decreased edema. include pressures that apply to this situation
compression can be used to reduce swelling by preventing exudate formation. The tissue hydrostatic pressure is increased; this makes it harder for fluid to leave blood vessels. The excess lymphatic fluid removes waste and toxins from the tissues, further healing the knee.
describe that process when leukocytes leave the blood vessel and move into the tissues. give all steps
margination - WBCs move closer to vessel wall because of decreased fluid and decreased blood flow; RBCs move to center
rolling - WBCs tumble over endothelium
adhesion - WBCs adhere to endothelium
pavementing - WBCs flatten
transmigration - WBCs move from blood to tissue
granulocytes release packets of mediators of inflammation
an antigen presenting cell... a) b)
a) is often a macrophage
b) has processed the antigen and displays parts of it on the surface of the APC
Vol Willebrand factor... a) b)
a) binds platelets to collagen
b) is involved with the formation of a platelet plug
thromboxane A2 ...
reduces the size of the gap in the damaged vessel
which of the following is a part of nonspecific immunity? a) b)
which of the following is an example of non-self? a) b)
a) a body cell infected with virus
b) neoplastic tissue
which of the following is involved in anticoagulation? a) b)
b) tissue factor
in the case of DIC, hemorrhage may occur because clotting factors are ...
depleted and unavailable to contribute to coagulation
antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity.... a) b)
a) usually involves IgG and IgM
b) is also called "innocent bystander" mechanism
which of the following is true about the extrinsic pathway of hemostasis? a) b) c)
a) it is faster than the intrinsic pathway
b) it produces factor VII
c) it is initiated by tissue factor
clotting factors are used to treat hemophilia. how are most current clotting factors produced?
extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
is the degree of differentiation in cancers different than normal cells? explain.
yes, cancerous cells are not able to differentiate or specialize as much as normal cells
briefly describe one immunotherapy (biologic therapy) for cancer
- tumor agnostic treatment; go in and focus on specific genetic molecular alterations of cell (not origin)
- treats larger group of cancers
name two components produced by the extrinsic pathway that are used in the intrinsic pathway
1. activated factor VII
name the type of hypersensitivity associated with lupus. explain significantly how this auto immune disorder causes damage to the tissues
- type III hypersensitivity
- body produces abnormal antibodies that attack itself & antigens; causes immune complexes to accumulate
- connective tissue is most commonly distorted
- abnormal antibodies are deported into blood vessels, leading to inflammation of blood vessels
- can occur in heart, skin, and CNS tissues
define MHC II
MHC II gives instructions to Th and B cells to tell them what cells to kill. these cells are non-self and foreign to the body, meaning they could harm healthy normal cells.
- less widespread & less common
- used for recognition & communication
- APC uses MHC II receptors to present antigen to other cells (Th1, Th2, and B)
- MHC II receptors are formed on NK-ADCC cells in cell mediated immunity
- Th cells present the antigen to other cells (B, Tc, NK, NK-ADCC, & macrophages) in order for them to kill the invading cells.
name one clotting factor that is most commonly deficient in hemophiliacs
- hemophilia A - clotting factor VIII
- hemophilia B - clotting factor IX
describe how hemodynamics contributes to the anticoagulation system
- hemodynamics is the movement of blood near the area of a blood clot.
- this movement dilutes clotting factors
- more flushing & diluting factors in arteries
explain the sequence (order) of initiation and promotion and how cancer forms
- for cancer to form, an initiator must come first, followed by a promoter. without a promoter, a tumor can still form, but will be small. if a promoter comes before an initiator, a tumor does not form. if there is a latent period between the initiator and the promoter, a tumor can still form.
is DIC a clotting factor or bleeding disorder? explain
- DIC is widespread over coagulation; bc platelets are needed for clotting, but the platelets are all used up
- can be treated using therapeutic drugs
a protooncogene changes to an oncogene. explain in detail, how this affects the number of cells found in cancer.
when a protooncogene changes into an oncogene, the number of cells increases. This happens because of a deficiency in growth inhibitors and an excess of growth promotors. This makes tissue more susceptible to transformation.
with ventricular septal defects, which event happens first?
blood is shunted from the LEFT ventricle to the RIGHT ventricle
after load is ....
the amount of work to push blood out
of the patients which survive a myocardial infarction, which of the following describes the most common outcome?
right sided heart failure ... a) b)
a) causes peripheral edema especially in the lower body
b) usually follows left sided failure
most primary hypertension is ________
non-progressive shock is most likely _________ _______
which of the following applies to progressive shock?
myocardial depressant factor may be released
which of the following is true about LDL's?
they are higher in smokers
which of the following are true about Cor Pulmonale? a) b)
a) it results in hypercapnia
b) it results in hypoxia
describe preload. how does this affect starlings law of the heart?
preload is also known as end diastolic volume (EDV). Starlings law of the heart says when there is an increase in EDV/preload, there will also be an increase in stroke volume and an increase in ejection fraction.
we discussed several types of shock. what do they all have in common?
a decrease in blood pressure
cardiomegaly (enlarged heart) can be hypertrophy or dilatation of the ventricles. explain how are these different?
- hypertrophy is when the ventricle wall becomes larger and the chamber becomes smaller
- dilatation is when the ventricle wall becomes thinner and "flabby" and the chamber is therefore larger
maybe explain more
name 2 factors that affect cardiac output
1. stroke volume
2. heart rate
how does atherosclerosis affect afterload? explain
fat deposits in the blood vessels (larger arteries) increase after load because after load is the resistance ventricle has to overcome to empty
give the specific numbers for normal blood pressure. which number is diastole and which number of systole?
(systole) 120/80 (diastole)
which of the following is true about emphysema?
which of the following are functions of the liver? a) b) c) d)
a) conjugating toxic substances
b) synthesis of cholesterol
c) kupffer cells remove antibody-antigen complexes
d) recycling of bile salts through enterohepatic pathway
peritonitis may be a sequela for which of the following? a) b)
which of the following is true about glomerulonephritis?
antibody-antigen complexes may get trapped in the small blood vessels in the glomerulus
which of the following is a post-renal disorder?
which of the following are sequela to NIDDM?
all of these:
- peripheral neuropathy
- heart disease
which of the following may contribute to peptic ulcers? a) b) c)
a) H. pylori
b) hyper secretion of stomach acid
c) cigarette smoking
which of the following disorders are examples of hypoventilation? a) b)
b) cystic fibrosis
describe the damage that emphysema causes to the lungs
emphysema is mostly in smokers or people that receive secondhand smoke. particle deposition occurs and leads to an inflammatory response. neutrophils are activated for phagocytosis. PMN's and macrophages release serine elastase (levels increase) and the elastic tissue of the septa is degraded. This is basically caused by increased serine elastase production and decreased alpha 1 antitrypsin production. with emphysema, the surface area of the alveolar wall has decreased, so the ``amount of gas exchange also decreases. this leads to hypoxia (decreased oxygen) and hypercapnia (increased carbon dioxide) which starts off as a ventilation issue, but can lead to hypo perfusion because of the vasoconstriction reflex.
which gene causes cystic fibrosis?
what is one of the most common causes of both pancreatitis and cirrhosis of the liver?
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