Study sets, textbooks, questions
Upgrade to remove ads
Pharmacy Ch 20, Ch 21 Pharmacy, Pharmacy Ch 22, Pharmacy 23, Pharmacy 24
Terms in this set (391)
1) Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic effect associated with all salicylate drugs?
1) Ether is no longer used for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT which one?
C) It was an inhaled gas.
1) Generic ________ drugs have beginnings of cef- and ceph-.
vaccine that contains a bacterial toxin
1) Which of the following is NOT one of the three categories of antimetabolite chemotherapy drugs?
B) nitrosourea chemotherapy drugs
2) The two distinct therapeutic effects of acetaminophen are ________.
B) analgesic and antipyretic
2) To kill cancer cells, alkylating chemotherapy drugs cause alkylation, a chemical reaction in which an alkyl group ________.
C) is substituted for a hydrogen molecule in the DNA of a cancer cell
reformulated in february
2) The first three inhaled general anesthetic drugs introduced were ________.
A) ether, nitrous oxide, chloroform
2) The ending ________ is common to generic tetracycline antibiotic drugs.
3) NSAID drugs have ________.
B) less of a tendency than salicylate drugs to cause stomach irritation and ulcers
3) Aminoglycoside drugs are primarily effective against ________.
C) gram-negative bacteria and some gram-positive bacteria
3) Androgen hormone chemotherapy drugs are used to treat ________.
A) breast cancer in females
vaccine that contains only bacterial or viral antigens
3) Drugs for the induction of anesthesia are ________.
given intravenously and provide a rapid loss of consciousness
4) In preventing or treating migraine headaches, ergotamine drugs stimulate all of the following receptors, EXCEPT ________.
4) Which of the following is NOT a category of antibiotic drug used to treat bacterial infections?
C) protease inhibitor drugs
4) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) chemotherapy drugs block GnRH receptors on the anterior pituitary gland, so that the anterior pituitary gland does not secrete ________.
B) luteinizing hormone
caused by a virus
4) Which anticholinergic drug is given preoperatively to decrease oral secretions and facilitate endotracheal intubation?
viral disease of the spinal cord
5) Narcotic drugs are used ________.
D) all of the above
5) Chemotherapy enzyme drugs are used to treat ________.
5) Nucleotide analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs act in the same way as ________, except that they contain a slightly modified molecular structure.
C) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs
5) NSAIDs have an analgesic effect because they inhibit ________.
caused by a bacetrium
6) Regional anesthesia is also known as ________ anesthesia.
6) Ergotamine drugs ________.
D) all of the above
6) Anti-androgen hormone chemotherapy drugs bind to and block receptors in ________.
D) prostate gland tissue
6) Fusion inhibitor drugs for HIV and AIDS can only be administered ________.
7) Which of the following is true about barbiturate drugs used to produce general anesthesia?
D) A and C
7) Which of the following does NOT belong to the drug category of mitosis inhibitor chemotherapy drugs?
B) kinase inhibitor chemotherapy drugs
7) Which type of antibiotic drug does NOT cause a bacterium to die by interfering with the structure of its cell wall?
C) fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs
7) Nonnarcotic drugs are only effective for ________.
B) mild-to-moderate pain
8) Acetaminophen is categorized as a ________.
B) nonsalicylate analgesic drug
8) Which category of drugs used to treat HIV binds directly to the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
B) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs
contains immunogloblin a
8) The most widely used topical, local, regional, and spinal anesthetic drug is ________.
8) Platinum chemotherapy drugs contain the precious metal platinum that ________.
C) creates cross-links in DNA strands
9) All of the following are good reasons to use a nonnarcotic analgesic drug as the first step in pain control, EXCEPT ________.
B) these drugs can control severe pain.
9) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) Patients taking aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs are given vision tests and blood tests for cholesterol levels to monitor for signs of toxicity.
9) Which chemotherapy drug is structurally related to vitamin A?
D) retinoid and rexinoid chemotherapy drugs
9) The local anesthetic drugs bupivacaine and lidocaine are available with or without the vasoconstrictor ________ in the solution.
10) Which of these drug categories is created using recombinant DNA technology?
B) Monoclonal antibody chemotherapy drugs
10) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) The first public demonstration of general anesthesia was performed with inhaled nitrous oxide.
10) Out of all of the drugs listed, which is the most effective against bacteria that produce penicillinase?
C) third-generation cephalosporin drugs
occurs after exposure
10) The mechanism by which acetaminophen relieves pain is ________.
D) by inhibiting the enzymes COX-1 and COX-2
12) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Before the introduction of penicillin drugs, sulfa drugs were the only anti-infective drugs available to treat bacterial infections.
11) Immunomodulator chemotherapy drugs modulate or regulate ________.
D) the immune system so that it can kill cancer cells.
29) Meningococcal meningitis can kill a person in ___24_____ hours.
11) If a local anesthetic drug that contained epinephrine for vasoconstriction was used to do surgery on the tip of the nose, that might result in ________.
D) all of the above
11) Which of the following combination analgesic drugs does NOT contain an antacid?
D) Tylenol w/ Codeine No. 3
12) The ideal analgesic drug would ________.
D) all of the above
13) Which of the following is NOT a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic drug?
A) tenofovir (Viread)
12) The selection of an appropriate chemotherapy drug is based on ________.
C) the type of cancer and the stage of the cancer
26) The abbreviation HBV stands for __hepatitis B virus______.
hepatitis b virus
12) Which of the following is NOT a definition of anesthesia: Anesthesia is the absence of ________.
25) The abbreviation DTaP stands for __diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis______.
diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
13) Which of the following drugs is used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocker drugs used during general anesthesia?
A) atracurium (Tracrium)
13) Which of the following is NOT of the different types of opioid receptors that are stimulated by narcotic analgesic drugs?
13) Which of the following endings is common to generic purine analog chemotherapy drugs?
D) A and C
14) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) Antibiotic drugs have been widely prescribed for conditions that did not need antibiotic drugs, and traces of antibiotic drugs given to animals show up in the meat.
14) Which generic narcotic drug is often included in a combination drug with a non-narcotic drug?
15) Which of these pairs of drugs consists of two aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs that are given orally as a bowel prep before surgery because they are not absorbed from the intestine into the blood?
A) kanamycin, neomycin
14) In order to treat cancer, the physician must ________.
D) A and B
14) The disease measles is caused by a ___virus_____.
14) Topical anesthetic drugs do NOT come in which of the following drug forms?
15) The combination drug Duocaine contains the generic anesthetic drugs ________.
A) bupivacaine and lidocaine
15) The disease tetanus is caused by a ___bacterium_____.
15) The first chemotherapy drug was ________.
A) nitrogen mustard
16) On a culture and sensitivity laboratory test, a large ring of inhibition means that ________.
B) the antibiotic drug in that disk was able to kill the bacterium
15) Ibuprofen belongs to what category of drugs?
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
16) ________ is a beta-blocker drug approved for preventing migraine headaches.
D) all of the above
17) Which of the following two antibiotic drugs are used to prevent the common, late-stage complication of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection in AIDS patients?
C) azithromycin, clarithromycin
16) Antimetabolite chemotherapy drugs act in all of the following ways, EXCEPT ________.
B) bind to antigens on the surface of cancer cells
16) Another name for the varicella virus is ____chickenpox____.
16) Which of the following is the most widely used topical, local, regional, and spinal anesthetic drug?
18) Adults should receive a tetanus vaccine booster shot every ____10____ years.
17) The addition of epinephrine to some local anesthetic drugs ________.
B) prolongs the anesthetic effect of the drug
17) All of the following are examples of chemotherapy antibiotic drugs, EXCEPT ________.
18) All of the following are fluoroquinolone antibiotic drugs, EXCEPT ________.
B) erythromycin (Ery-Tab)
17) The origin of the word morphine comes from the Greek word ________.
B) Morpheus, the mythical Greek god of dreams
18) The word salicylate refers to ________ drugs, which were originally derived from the bark of the willow (the Latin word salix means willow).
19) If a patient is taking the macrolide antibiotic drug azithromycin (Zithromax) and develops an allergic reaction, why might that reaction last long and be severe?
C) Because this drug has a long half-life and stays in the blood.
18) The drug epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) is used to stimulate the production of ________ in patients with cancer.
D) red blood cells
20) The abbreviation CDC stands for ___center for disease control_____.
center for disease control
18) For many years, synthetic substitutes for the topical anesthetic drug cocaine were sought. This ultimately led to the discovery of what drug that was the prototype of local anesthetic drugs?
19) Which of the following is a common side effect of narcotic drugs?
20) The drug Augmentin ________.
D) all of the above
19) Select the statement that is FALSE.
D) Interferon is released when the cell is invaded by cancer.
21) The abbreviation MMR and the trade name drug M-M-R II are both related to the ___measles, mumps, and rubella_____ vaccine.
measles, mumps, and rubella
19) In 1920, what technique was perfected that allowed greater control of patient ventilation and anesthetic administration during surgical procedures?
20) Used by South American Indians to dip their arrows in, what drug introduced in the 1940s was the first neuromuscular blocker drug to be used during general anesthesia and was especially helpful in performing abdominal surgery?
7) IgA is found in ____colostrum____, the first milk produced by breastfeeding mother.
20) Select the statement that is FALSE.
C) Corticosteroids are a chemotherapy drugs.
21) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) Clinical testing to approve AZT for treating AIDS took several years and was prolonged because of a number of patient deaths.
20) Which of the following is a COX-2 inhibitor drug?
21) Which of the following drugs is derived from the venom of the cone snail that lives in the coral reefs around the Philippines?
C) ziconotide (Prialt)
22) Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of an HIV infection?
D) an opportunistic infection
21) All of the following are categories of hormone chemotherapy drugs, EXCEPT ________.
8) Immunoglobulin ____G____ is the most abundant of all of the immunoglobulins.
21) Some liquid anesthetic drugs contain methylparaben, which is ________.
C) preservative with antibiotic and antifungal effects
1) The immune response involves a coordinated effort between which body parts?
blood and lymphatic
22) Which of the following types of drugs are NOT used preoperatively to decrease anxiety and produce sedation?
neuromuscular blocker drugs
22) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
C) Benign and malignant neoplasms are classified as cancer.
23) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
D) All of the above statements are true.
22) The narcotic drug known as the "lollipop" used to treat the pain of cancer is ________.
B) morphine (MS Contin)
23) All of these drugs are used to treat migraine headaches, EXCEPT ________.
A) methadone (Dolophine, Methadose)
24) Which of the following drug categories is NOT used to treat HIV and AIDS?
A) macrolide drugs
23) Adjuvant therapy ________.
D) all of the above
2) Which of the following microorganisms can be pathogens?
all of the above
23) While most of the narcotic drugs given preoperatively to relieve pain and provide sedation are Schedule II drugs, but which is a Schedule IV narcotic drug?
24) In which of the following pairs of drugs do both drugs come in the form of transdermal patches?
B) pentazocine (Talwin) and sumatriptan (Imitrex)
25) Which of the following is NOT a protease inhibitor drug used to treat HIV and AIDS?
B) delavirdine (Rescriptor)
24) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
B) All patients have a complete remission following chemotherapy.
3) Which type of white blood cell specifically engulfs and destroys bacteria?
24) A local anesthetic drug with epinephrine can be used during surgery to repair a laceration on the ________.
4) Each of the following is a type of lymphocyte, EXCEPT ________.
25) All of the following are inhaled general anesthetic gases, EXCEPT ________.
25) Which of the following is a pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drug?
A) capecitabine (Xeloda)
25) Aspirin and NSAIDs ________.
D) A and B
26) Drugs are used to treat opportunistic infections in AIDS patients because their immune systems are unable to defend against ________ infections.
26) The first prescription analgesic skin gel approved by the FDA for treating the pain of osteoarthritis was ________.
27) Which of the following drugs does NOT belong to the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug category used to treat HIV and AIDS?
D) amantadine (Symmetrel)
26) All of the following are nitrosourea chemotherapy drugs, EXCEPT ________.
D) bicalutamide (Casodex)
5) Monocytes do all of the following, EXCEPT ________.
26) What effect do antihistamine drugs have when given preoperatively?
all of the above
1) Antihistamine drugs are given preoperatively to decrease anxiety, provide sedation, as well as to dry up oral secretions.
27) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
B) The symbol S on the drug label indicates that this is a Schedule drug.
28) All of the following are trade name cephalosporin drugs, EXCEPT ________.
27) Which of the following drugs belong to the category of hormone chemotherapy drugs?
D) all of the above
6) What role does interferon play in the immune response?
all of the above
7) Which antibody is produced the very first time that the body encounters a bacterium or virus?
2) Anticholinergic drugs are given preoperatively to block the body's own acetylcholine and relax the abdominal muscles prior to abdominal surgery.
28) Methadone is used to treat recovering narcotic drug addicts because ________.
D) all of the above
28) Some cancers have receptors on the surface of their cells that are stimulated by ________.
29) One trade name for the tetracycline antibiotic drug doxycycline is ________.
29) The phrase low-dose aspirin refers to ________.
A) the 81 mg dose of aspirin
30) The phrase culture and sensitivity means ________.
D) culture of the bacteria and its sensitivity to antibiotic drugs
29) Podophyllotoxin chemotherapy drugs are derived from ________.
B) the root of the Mayapple plant
8) Immunoglobulin A is found in ________.
tears and saliva/mucous membrane
3) Narcotic drugs are given preoperatively to relieve pain and provide sedation.
9) Which immunoglobulin can pass from the mother's blood through the placenta to the fetus?
4) Drugs used for the induction of anesthesia are generally given by inhalation.
30) Vinca alkaloid chemotherapy drugs ________.
D) all of the above
30) Aspirin taken regularly for many years can lead to the development of ________.
31) Which pair of drugs belongs to the penicillin category of antibiotic drugs?
B) Amoxil, Pfizerpen
31) Which of the following categories of drugs is NOT used to treat migraine headaches?
C) nonsalicylate analgesic drugs
32) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Annual vaccination with a flu shot prevents a person from getting the flu for that year.
31) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) There are vitamin A receptors on cancer cells and retinoid chemotherapy drugs bind to them.
10) When does passive immunity, naturally acquired, occur?
5) Neuromuscular blocker drugs used during general anesthesia are given intramuscularly to block nerve transmissions throughout the body.
32) Tylenol w/ Codeine No. 3 contains ________ mg of codeine.
33) The ________ group of antibiotic drugs can cause permanent discoloration of teeth.
32) During treatment with chemotherapy drugs, ________.
D) A and B
11) An example of a drug that provides passive immunity, artificially acquired, is ________.
all of the above
6) Local anesthesia is used during minor procedures, such as biopsies or during dental surgery.
12) Which type of immunity is the basis for vaccines and vaccination.
D) active immunity, artificially acquired
7) Regional anesthesia is used during surgery on an extremity to provide anesthesia for that region.
33) The combination drug Cafergot used to treat migraine headaches contains ________.
B) ergotamine and caffeine
33) Palliative care for cancer patients includes all of the following, EXCEPT ________.
A) chemotherapy drugs
34) The ________ category of antibiotic drugs can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
34) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) for migraine headaches comes in which of these drug forms?
D) A and C
35) Sulfonamide drugs are ________.
A) also known as sulfa drugs
34) The well-known generic chemotherapy antibiotic drug doxorubicin is related to the trade name drug ________.
13) The use commercially prepared infant formulas instead of breast milk has been linked to which of the following?
D) all of the above
8) Inhaled gases for anesthesia are used to induce or maintain general anesthesia, and they are all schedule drugs.
9) Skeletal muscle relaxation is particularly important during abdominal surgery when the muscles of the abdominal wall must relax in order to allow adequate visualization of the operative field that is within the abdominal cavity.
1) Purine is a molecule that forms the base for the amino acids adenine and guanine in the DNA molecule.
36) To which category of antibiotic drugs does ciprofloxacin (Cipro) belong?
14) The word that describes the ability of a pathogen to invade a person and produce disease is the word ________.
35) Which of these combination trade name drugs contains the generic drugs acetaminophen and oxycodone?
36) A nonnarcotic drug is often combined with a narcotic drug because ________.
D) all of the above
37) The generic drugs trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are both in a combination drug that is marketed under the two trade names of ________.
D) Bactrim and Septra
2) Folic acid blocker chemotherapy drugs act as an antagonist in that they complete with folic acid for the same enzyme.
15) If a vaccine contains a dead (killed) bacterium or virus, what is it that provokes a response from the patient's immune system?
D) antigens on the bacterium surface
10) The use of epinephrine is contraindicated in certain areas of the body because the blood supply there is limited.
16) Which of the following common diseases is caused by a virus?
B) herpes zoster
11) Barbiturate drugs have no analgesic effect of their own at all.
3) Cancers that arise from tissue that is influenced by a male or female sex hormone are treated with a chemotherapy drug that has the same hormonal effect.
38) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
B) The AIDS virus belongs to a category of viruses known as retroviruses.
1) Acetaminophen is a nonsalicylate analgesic drug that is not related to aspirin or any of the other salicylate drugs.
2) Some of the similarities between aspirin and acetaminophen are that they both relieve pain, but they both can cause upset stomach and stomach irritation.
39) Which of the following sentences is FALSE?
D) Pneumocystis jiroveci is a bacterium.
4) Mitosis inhibitor drugs affect dividing cells and keep them from completing the process of cell division.
17) In a conjugate vaccine, a polysaccharide from the wall of a bacterium is joined to a ________ to create a vaccine.
C) protein carrier
12) Nitrous oxide was first used at social parties and known as laughing gas before it was recognized as an anesthetic drug.
3) Because NSAIDs are structurally different than aspirin, patients who are allergic to aspirin can safely take NSAIDs.
40) Antifungal drugs are effective against all of the following diseases, EXCEPT ________.
C) bacterial infections
5) Androgen hormone drugs are used to treat breast cancer because they stimulate estradiol receptors in breast tissue.
18) Gardasil is a ________ vaccine that contains 4 different strains of the human papillomavirus.
13) The advantage of using an antianxiety drug preoperatively to relieve anxiety and produce sedation is that the patient is still able to respond to commands but has little memory of the procedure.
19) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The measles, mumps, and rubella vaccines are given together as a conjugate vaccine.
14) The various types of intravenous drugs used for induction and maintenance of anesthesia are Schedule II, III, or IV drugs, and so it is very easy for a patient to become addicted to these.
4) Serotonin receptor agonist drugs are used to prevent migraine headaches from occurring.
6) Corticosteroid drugs are given to decrease the tissue inflammation caused by chemotherapy drugs.
41) Patients with an allergy to penicillin may also show an allergy to what other category of antibiotic drugs?
A) cephalosporin drugs
5) One of the benefits of ergotamine drugs for migraine headaches is that they constrict the arteries in the brain without significantly reducing blood flow.
1) For ____local____ anesthesia, an anesthetic drug is given by subcutaneous injection into the skin to anesthetize a small area of skin and adjacent subcutaneous tissue.
42) Why can't tetracycline be given to pregnant or nursing women?
C) Because it stains the baby's developing permanent teeth.
20) Which of the following vaccines is made using egg proteins that can cause an allergic reaction?
7) Interleukin chemotherapy drugs are only used to treat leukemia.
6) The regular use of aspirin can cause stomach ulcers and long-term use can cause cataracts.
43) The well-known generic fluoroquinolone antibiotic drug ciprofloxacin is related to the trade name drug ________.
8) Monoclonal antibody drugs selectively bind to specific antigens on the surface of cancer cell walls. TRUE
21) All of the following, EXCEPT ________, provide short-term (temporary) immunity against a disease that the patient has already been exposed to and does not have their own antibodies for.
2) For ____regional____ anesthesia, an anesthetic drug is given by subcutaneous injection near a nerve plexus (group of nerves) and its branches.
3) For ___spinal_____ anesthesia, an anesthetic drug is given by injection into the subarachnoid space between the vertebrae of the lumbar region of the back.
22) Inserting a vaccine into the body is known as ________.
all of the above
9) Nitrosourea chemotherapy drugs contain molecules of nitroso and urea.
44) All of the following are related to HIV and AIDS, EXCEPT ________.
D) culture and sensitivity
7) Beta-blocker drugs keep the blood vessels constricted and this prevents the vasodilation that begins a migraine headache.
8) Antidepressant drugs have been found helpful in preventing migraine headaches.
1) Atripla and Combivir are combination drugs used to treat HIV and AIDS.
10) The ending -platin is common to generic platinum chemotherapy drugs.
23) The Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System is sponsored by ________.
4) For ___epidural_____ anesthesia, an anesthetic drug is given by injection into the epidural space; the drug then moves into the subarachnoid space to provide anesthesia.
5) The ending ___-caine_____ is common to anesthetic drugs used to produce local, regional, spinal, or epidural anesthetic drugs.
24) Which organizations publish the recommended immunization schedules for children and adults?
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
11) Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cancer cells. However, their effects are also felt in other areas where cells normally divide rapidly, such as in the mucous membranes.
2) The goal of drug therapy is to suppress HIV replication as much as possible for as long as possible.
9) A common side effect of narcotic drugs is an antitussive effect, and this is used as a therapeutic effect by including narcotic drugs in some cough syrups.
10) Calcium channel blocker drugs used to prevent migraine headaches block the movement of calcium ions and, with less calcium in the cells, the smooth muscles relax, and the arteries remain dilated.
3) Sulfonamide drugs are only effective against viruses.
12) The pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drug cytarabine was developed from a substance found in Caribbean sea sponges.
25) Which name is associated with the discovery of the polio vaccine?
B) President Franklin Roosevelt
6) The drugs hydroxyzine (Vistaril) and promethazine (Phenergan) are __antihistamine______ drugs given preoperatively to decrease anxiety.
11) Caffeine is a stimulant drug that is included in combination analgesic drugs used to treat migraine headaches.
4) The designation of first-generation, second-generation, or third-generation indicates when a cephalosporin drug was first discovered or first marketed.
26) Which of the following statements is TRUE about anthrax?
D) all of the above
7) The drugs diazepam, lorazepam (Ativan), and midazalom are ___antianxiety_____ drugs given preoperatively to relieve anxiety and provide sedation.
13) Corticosteroid drugs are used to treat anemia caused by chemotherapy drugs.
12) The drugs nalbuphine (Nubain) and tramadol (Ultram) are narcotic drugs used to treat moderate-to-severe pain but they are not schedule drugs and so they have no potential for addiction.
5) Macrolide antibiotic drugs kill bacteria by inhibiting an enzyme that the bacteria need in order to reproduce.
14) Chemotherapy antibiotic drugs are used to treat cancer and are also used to bacterial infections as regular antibiotic drugs.
27) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) Hepatitis A is prevalent in underdeveloped countries in the world.
8) The drugs pentobarbital and secobarbital (Seconal) are __barbiturate______ drugs given preoperatively to produce sedation.
28) Which trade names are associated with the hepatitis A vaccine?
A) Havrix, Vaqta
9) The trade name of the well-known anesthetic generic name drug lidocaine is ___Xylocaine_____.
15) Leucovorin rescue occurs before methotrexate chemotherapy.
6) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs inhibit viral transcriptase from building a strand of viral DNA.
13) Elderly people who regularly take an NSAID or aspirin are less likely to develop Alzheimer's disease.
29) How is hepatitis B passed to another person?
D) all of the above
10) The abbreviation MPF stands for methylparabens ___free_____.
14) Diclofenac is the only nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can be given orally, topically as a gel, or as a transdermal patch.
16) The extent of cancer progression is referred to as the stage.
7) Monobactam antibiotic drugs are effective against all gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
15) Acetaminophen does not have an anti-inflammatory effect or an anticoagulant effect.
8) Drugs prescribed for patients with AIDS wasting syndrome are used to stimulate the appetite, build muscle mass, and treat extreme weight loss.
17) Chemotherapy drugs are most effective when begun when there are many cancer cells present in the body.
30) Prior to being employed, healthcare workers are vaccinated against hepatitis B with the trade name drug ________.
C) Recombivax HB
anesthesia with unconsciousness
16) Aspirin was the first drug to have a plastic safety seal on top of each drug bottle.
9) Fungi can cause disease topically or systemically, and drugs used to treat fungi can be administered either topically or systemically with oral or intravenous drugs.
31) Which statement is FALSE?
B) Older persons need a low-dose version of the flu vaccine to stimulate their weaker immune systems.
regional nerve block
anesthesia in one body part
18) The well-known generic pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drug capecitabine is related to the trade name drug Xeloda.
17) Heroin was used extensively to treat pain during the Civil War, but it is now a Schedule I drug with no medical uses.
10) Drugs used to treat Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAC) infections include aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs, macrolide antibiotic drugs, and antitubercular drugs.
19) Interleukin stimulates lymphocytes to attack cancer cells.
32) Which of the following statements is TRUE about HPV?
genital warts and cervical cancer
epidural or spinal anesthesia
anesthesia in the trunk and lower extremities
33) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
D) The most prevalent strains of flu in Europe are used to make the U.S. flu vaccine.
topical application of an anesthetic drug
anesthesia on the skin
1) Drugs used to treat cancers or malignant neoplasms are chemotherapy drugs and are also known as ___ANTINEOPLASTIC_____ drugs.
11) When a fungal infection involves the nail bed and the nail becomes misshapen, thickened, and discolored, then it must be treated with topical antifungal drugs that act systemically.
18) The well-known generic drug ibuprofen is related to the trade names of Advil and Aleve.
12) Kaposi's sarcoma and Burkitt's lymphoma are rare cancers that can develop in patients with the life-threatening bacterial infection of MRSA.
3) The ending -lutaminde is common to anti-___ANDROGEN_____ hormone chemotherapy drugs.
34) A vaccine for HIV is difficult to develop because ________.
B) the virus mutates frequently
subcutaneous local injection
anesthesia in the skin and deeper tissues
1) The ending ________ is common to generic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
1) All bacteria are harmful to the body and cause disease.
neuromuscular blocker drug
4) Estrogen hormone chemotherapy drugs are used to provide __PALLIATIVE______ treatment for advanced breast cancer and/or advanced prostatic cancer; this is a treatment that provides relief from symptoms but is not intended to cure.
13) Patients with HIV/AIDS can develop widespread and extremely serious fungal infections.
2) The ending -triptan is common to ________ receptor agonist drugs used to treat migraine headaches.
14) Tetracycline drugs are used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and gram-positive bacterial infections, as well as the sexually transmitted diseases of gonorrhea and syphilis.
5) A neoplasm is a new growth of cells that may be ____CANCEROUS____ or malignant.
2) Immunoglobulins is another name for the body's antibodies against disease.
barbiturate drug for general anesthesia
3) Narcotic drugs produce a sense of well-being or __euphoria______, which is what causes some narcotic drugs to be more psychologically addicting than others.
4) Aspirin prolongs the clotting time of the blood by inhibiting thromboxane, a substance in the blood that normally causes ___platelets_____ to aggregate and form a blood clot.
15) Doxycycline (Vibramycin, Vibra-Tabs) is used to treat a wide variety of gram-negative and gram-positive bacterial infections and also the infections of Lyme disease, malaria, and anthrax from bioterrorism.
6) When a patient receives a chemotherapy drug that is known to be toxic to a particular organ, the patient is also given a drug to protect that organ from toxicity. This drug exerts a ___ADVERSE_____ effect to protect that organ.
3) Bacteria contain DNA and so they are able to reproduce themselves in the tissues and blood of the body.
narcotic drug to induce and maintain general anesthesia
4) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes produce toxic granules to kill cells that are infected with a virus.
7) Mesna protects the ___BLADDER_____ from toxicity due to the chemotherapy drug ifosfamide.
1) ____sulfonamide anti-infective____ drugs are not categorized as antibiotic drugs because they only inhibit the growth of bacteria but do not actually kill bacteria.
6) With their ___antipyretic_____ effect, salicylate drugs reduce fever by acting on the hypothalamus.
7) ___serotonin_____ is a neurotransmitter that normally constricts the arteries in the brain. Prior to a migraine headache, there is an elevated level of this substance.
2) Sulfonamide drugs are also known as ____sulfa____ drugs.
8) Estrogen hormone drugs act in a similar way to the main female hormone ____ESTRADIOL____, which is produced by follicles of the ovary.
5) Endotoxins are produced by certain gram-positive bacteria.
inhaled general anesthetic drug
8) The difference between Tylenol w/ Codeine, Tylenol w/ Codeine No. 2, Tylenol w/ Codeine No. 3, and Tylenol w/ Codeine No. 4 is the amount of ____codeine____ they contain.
3) Penicillin antibiotic drugs all share the common molecular structure of a ____beta-lactam____ ring.
9) Folic acid is a ____B____ vitamin whose metabolite is important in DNA production in the cell.
6) Antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes.
7) Immunoglobulin A is in areas where pathogens first enter the body.
4) Antibiotic drugs that are able to kill a variety of different types of bacteria are known as ___broad_____ spectrum or extended-spectrum antibiotic drugs.
10) To determine the type of cancer, a ___BIPOSY_____ is taken from the tumor site or a blood specimen is drawn to examine blood cells.
9) The trade name MS Contin contains the abbreviation MS, which stands for the generic drug ____morphine sulfate____, and Contin, which refers to the fact that the drug provides continuous pain relief as a controlled-release tablet.
10) The combination drug Fioricet has the letters cet in its trade name, which gives a clue that it contains the generic analgesic drug ___acetaminophen_____.
5) The ending -cillin is common to generic ___penicillin_____ antibiotic drugs.
11) The generic drugs vinblastine, vincristine, and vinorelbine all belong to the category of __VINCA______ alkaloid chemotherapy drugs.
8) Immunoglobulin M provides what is known as active immunity.
11) The abbreviation NSAID stands for __nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory drugs______.
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
6) ___cephalosporin_____ antibiotic drugs are further divided into first-generation, second-generation, third-generation, fourth-generation, and fifth-generation drugs.
12) Topoisomerase is a/an ____ENZYME____ that creates a break in a single strand of DNA to relieve stress during cell division.
9) Acquired immunity is part of a person's genetic makeup.
10) Passive immunity, naturally acquired, lasts for the first few months of a newborn's life.
12) The salicylate drug aspirin has a therapeutic effect that is not shared by any of the other salicylate drugs. That is a/an ___anticoagulant_____ effect.
13) Docetaxel (Taxotere) belongs to the category of ___TAXANE_____ chemotherapy drugs.
7) The ending -navir is common to ___protease_____ inhibitor drugs.
13) ____endorphins____ are the body's own natural pain relievers.
8) Some resistant bacteria produce the enzyme beta lactamase, which is also known as ___penicillinase_____.
14) Interferon is produced by macrophages that engulfed a hepatitis ___VIRUS_____, as well as different types of cancer.
11) In all states, pharmacists are allowed to give flu shots to adults.
14) ___methadone_____ is well known for its use in treating recovering narcotic drug addicts at outpatient clinics.
9) In 2006, the FDA approved the drug ___Atripla_____, which was the first combination drug to contain three different AIDS drugs.
15) Adjuvant therapy refers to chemotherapy or ___RADIATION_____ therapy given after a patient has had surgery to remove a tumor
12) At 5 years of age, a child's immune system begins to produce its own antibodies.
13) Vaccines stimulate the patient's immune system to develop antibodies against a disease it has never encountered.
10) Aminoglycoside antibiotic drugs can cause a severe adverse effect on hearing and balance, which is known as ___ototoxicity_____.
antiemetic drug used with chemotherapy
15) The well-known generic narcotic drug meperidine is related to the trade name drug ____Demerol____.
16) Drugs that have the potential to cause addiction have an alphabet letter that is a large ___C_____ printed on the label with Roman numerals inside of it.
11) Dronabinol, a Schedule III drug used to treat AIDS wasting syndrome, is unusual in that it is derived from ____marijuana____.
pyrimidine analog chemotherapy drug
14) Commercially produced infant formulas do not contain antibodies and so they do not provide immunity against disease.
17) ____Buffered____ aspirin is combined with an antacid drug to decrease acidity and protect the stomach.
12) The abbreviation AIDS stands for ___acquired immunodeficiency syndrome_____.
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
chemotherapy antibiotic drug
15) Another name for the disease rubella is German measles.
16) Vaccines that contain just a single type of antigen or a single strain of one pathogen are said to be multivalent.
13) The trade name drugs Tamiflu and Flumadine are used to treat ____influenza____ virus infection.
granulocyte-colony stimulator factor drug
A) antidepressant drug for migraine headaches
nonsalicylate analgesic drug
14) The abbreviation VRSA stands for ____vancomycin____-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
gonadotropin-releasing hormone chemotherapy drug
17) The advantage of a combined vaccine is that several vaccines can be given as a single dose to avoid multiple injections of childhood immunizations.
salicylate analgesic drug
15) The well-known HIV and AIDS drug zidovudine is related to the trade name drug ____AZT____.
kinase inhibitor chemotherapy drug
18) Thimerosal has been removed from all vaccines manufactured in the United States.
19) Most vaccinations are given by the intramuscular route.
penicillin antibiotic drug
serotonin receptor agonist drug
narcotic analgesic drug
folic acid blocker chemotherapy drug
20) Most vaccines cannot be given orally because they are not absorbed from the intestines.
taxane chemotherapy drug
21) A vaccinated child still can occasionally get the disease they were vaccinated against.
22) According to the World Health Organization, vaccines are currently available to present 600 different diseases.
purine analong chemotherapy drug
23) The anthrax vaccine is important because anthrax can be used in terrorist attacks as a biological weapon.
salicylate analgesic drug with anticoagulant effect
24) Diphtheria is a bacterial disease that causes a gray membrane across the throat that can cause suffocation.
calcium channel blocker drugs
25) Haemophilus influenza type b is a virus that causes severe influenza.
26) The Hib vaccine is related to the pathogen Haemophilus influenza type b.
protease inhibitor drug
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
27) A patient with chronic hepatitis B infection is a carrier of the disease and can infect others, even if they have no symptoms.
aminoglycoside antibiotic drug
28) If a healthcare worker is stuck by a contaminated needle, he/she may be exposed to hepatitis B.
29) The hepatitis B vaccine is given after a healthcare worker has been stuck with a used needle that is contaminated with blood.
30) Herpes zoster skin lesions (shingles) are caused by the same virus that causes varicella (chickenpox) in childhood.
31) The herpes zoster vaccine is given in a series of booster shots to all children.
32) Gardasil is a quadrivalent vaccine that is recommended for girls and boys, ages 9 to 26, to prevent human papillomavirus infection.
33) The CDC recommends annual flu shots for all persons, beginning at 6 months of life and every year throughout life.
34) Persons over age 65 need a special high-dose influenza vaccine because more inactivated viruses are needed to adequately stimulate the weaker immune system in patients of this age.
35) Of all of the different strains of influenza, the H5N1 strain is the most virulent.
Sets with similar terms
Pharm Exam 3
Pharm Quizzes for Exam 2
Sets found in the same folder
Chapter 10 -- Pharm
ch. 25 Hema and Emergency Drugs
Ch 21 Pharmacy
Chapter 13 -- PHARM
Other sets by this creator
Geology Lab Practical #2
Pharmacy Ch 19, Pharmacy Chapter 18, Pharmacy Ch 1…
Pharmacy Ch 19
Other Quizlet sets
Physical Oceanography Midterm
Quality and performance improvement ch 18
Kinesiology Exam 3
catcher-vocab list 2
When should you not use diuretics ?
how does SNS regulate body temp?
what are the effects of trazadone?
What is the class for Phenytoin?