How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

252 terms

Radiographic Procedures

STUDY
PLAY
1) The term valgus refers to

A. turned outward
B. turned inward
C. rotated medially
D. rotated laterally
A. turned outward
2) Which of the following fat pads/stripes should be demonstrated radiographically in a lateral projection of the normal adult elbow?
1. Posterior fat pad
2. Anterior fat pad
3. Supinator fat stripe

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
4) In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

A. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot.
B. Plantodorsal projection of the foot.
C. Medial oblique position of the foot.
D. Lateral foot.
B. Plantodorsal projection of the foot.
5) The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following ways?
1. The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet.
2. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees.
3. The male ilium is more vertical.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
6) Central ray angulation may be required for
1. magnification of anatomic structures.
2. foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. superimposition of overlying structures.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
8) All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

A. the right lung has three lobes
B. the inferior portion of the lung is the base
C. each lung is enclosed in serious membranes.
D. the main stem bronchi enter the lung apex
D. the main stem bronchi enter the lung apex. FALSE!
9) All the following statements regarding an exact posteroanterior (PA) projection of the skull are true except

A. the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor (IR).
B. the petrous pyramids fill the inferior third of the orbits.
C. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is perpendicular to the IR
D. the central ray is perpendicular to the IR and exits the nasion.
B. the petrous pyramids fill the inferior third of the orbits. FALSE! On a straight PA projection the petrous pyramids fill the orbits completely. On the angled Caldwell they are in the lower third of the orbits.
11) Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
2. Suspected large bowel obstruction
3. Preoperative patients

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
12) "Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A. Pneumothorax
B. Emphysema
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pneumonia
B. Emphysema
13) Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
1. Hepatic flexure
2. Gallbladder
3. Ileocecal valve

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
15) During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely

A. AP erect
B. PA
C. RAO
D. LPO
D. LPO
16) Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

A. root
B. hilus
C. carina
D. epiglottis
B. hilus
17) Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

A. Mediolateral
B. Lateromedial
C. Lateral weight-bearing
D. 30 degree medial oblique
C. Lateral weight-bearing
18) Graves disease is associated with

A. thyroid underactivity
B. thyroid overactivity
C. adrenal underactivity
D. adrenal overactivity
B. thyroid overactivity
19) The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed
1. parallel to the central ray (CR)
2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.
3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
20) In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

A. Occipital bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Facial bones
D. Basal foramina
A. Occipital bone
21) The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the

A. posterior rim of the right acetabulum.
B. anterior rim of the right acetabulum.
C. right obturator foramen.
D. right anterior ilioischial column.
B. anterior rim of the right acetabulum.
23) A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

A. AP
B. PA
C. RAO
D. LAO
C. RAO
24) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral joints

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
25) Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

A. right main stem bronchus.
B. left main stem bronchus.
C. esophagus.
D. proximal stomach.
A. right main stem bronchus.
26) How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

A. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position.
B. Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained.
C. Include a lateral chest done is dorsal decubitus position.
D. Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID.
C. Include a lateral chest done is dorsal decubitus position.
27) All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

A. metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels on type 2 diabetic patients.
B. patients on metformin who have intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure.
C. metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before and after IV iodinated contrast studies.
D. metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.
D. metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.
30) Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

A. Left lateral decubitus position
B. Right lateral decubitus position
C. Ventral decubitus position
D. Dorsal decubitus position
D. Dorsal decubitus position
31) All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except

A. weight-bearing
B. RAO
C. LAO
D. PA
A. weight-bearing
32) Glossitis refers to inflammation of the

A. epiglottis
B. salivary glands
C. tongue
D. ossicles
C. tongue
33) When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
34) Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C. AP Trendelenburg
D. AP supine
A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up.
35) Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

A. Esophagus
B. Trachea
C. Cardiac apex
D. Superimposed scapular borders
C. Cardiac apex
36) Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?
1. Medial carpals
2. Lateral carpals
3. Scaphoid

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
40) To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the

A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.
B. CR is directed cephalad to the IR.
C. skull is obliqued away from the affected side.
D. skull is obliqued toward the affected side
A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.
41) Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

A. AP or PA through the foramen magnum
B. AP oblique with right and left head rotation.
C. Horizontal beam lateral
D. AP axial
A. AP or PA through the foramen magnum
42) To "visualize open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned

A. 30-40 degrees LPO.
B. 30-40 degrees RPO.
C. 25-30 degrees LPO.
D. 25-30 degrees RPO.
C. 25-30 degrees LPO.
43) A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture
2. a foreign body
3. soft tissue

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
46) The condition that allows blood to shunt between the aorta and the pulmonary artery is called

A. an atrial septal defect
B. a ventricular septal defect
C. a patent ductus arteriosus
D. coarctation of the aorta
C. a patent ductus arteriosus
47) Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

A. Tangential
B. AP axial
C. Transthoracic lateral
D. PA oblique scapular Y
D. PA oblique scapular Y
48) Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

A. Lateral abdomen
B. AP abdomen
C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
D. Ventral decubitus abdomen
B. AP abdomen
49) Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the left thorax?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only
50) In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

A. Lateral oblique foot
B. Medial oblique foot
C. Lateral foot
D. Weight-bearing foot
A. Lateral oblique foot
51) The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

A. T2-3 interspace fifth thoracic vertebra.
B. T9-10 interspace
C. T5
D. costal margin
C. T5
52) What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

A. High and vertical
B. High and horizontal
C. Low and vertical
D. Low and horizontal
B. High and horizontal
53) To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in

A. the recumbent position
B. the erect position
C. the anatomic position
D. the Fowler position
A. the recumbent position
55) Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm include
1. the epicondyles should be parallel to the IR
2. the radius and ulna should be superimposed distally
3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
56) All the following structures are associated with the femur except

A. the medial condyle
B. the medial epicondyle
C. the lesser tuberosity
D. the fovea capitis.
C. the lesser tuberosity
57) Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

A. Medial oblique 15-20 degrees
B. Lateral oblique 15-20 degrees
C. Medial oblique 45 degrees
D. Lateral oblique 45 degrees
A. Medial oblique 15-20 degrees
59) The advantage of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium
2. immediately available images
3. increased resolution

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
60) A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to
1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR.
2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR.
3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
61) To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?
1. Close collimation
2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient
3. Decreased SID

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
62) Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
1. Posterior clinoid processes
2. Dorsum sella
3. Posterior arch of C1

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
63) Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include
1. epicondyles parallel to the IR.
2. lesser tubercle in profile.
3. superimposed epicondyles.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
64) Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations of pediatric patients?

A. use restraint only when necessary
B. always use physical or mechanical restraint
C. use physical restraint only
D. use mechanical restraint only
A. use restraint only when necessary
65) Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle with the patient in PA position?

A. 5-15 degrees caudad
B. 5-15 degrees cephalad
C. 15-30 degrees cephalad
D. 15-30 degrees caudad
D. 15-30 degrees caudad
66) Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

A. Oblique cervical spine, seated
B. AP cervical spine, recumbent
C. Horizontal beam lateral
D. Laterals in flexion and extension
C. Horizontal beam lateral
67) What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

A. Semilunar/trochlear notch
B. Radial head
C. Capitulum
D. Trochlea
D. Trochlea
68) The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
69) During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the

A. subdural space
B. subarachnoid space
C. epidural space
D. epidermal space
B. subarachnoid space
70) All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. Acute flexion
D. AP partial flexion
B. Lateral
72) Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. atlantoaxial joint
2. radioulnar joint
3. temporomandibular joint

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
73) The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

A. Eye
B. Nose
C. Body
D. Ear
B. Nose
74) Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. Medial oblique
D. Lateral oblique
D. Lateral oblique
75) In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
B. Tangential metatarsals/toes
C. 30-degree medial oblique foot
D. 30-degree lateral oblique foot
B. Tangential metatarsals/toes
76) Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

A. Ewing sarcoma
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease
C. Gout
D. Exostosis
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease
77) With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

A. below the orbits
B. in the lower third of the orbits
C. completely within the orbits
D. above the orbits
C. completely within the orbits
78) Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
1. Manubrium
2. Clavicles
3. 24 ribs

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
79) During atrial systole, blood flows into the
1. right ventricle via the mitral valve
2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
82) With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A. Radial head
B. Ulnar head
C. Coronoid process
D. Olecranon process
C. Coronoid process
83) The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a(an)

A. elderly patient
B. hypertensive patient
C. premature infant
D. diabetic patient
C. premature infant
84) The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?
1. Lateral cervical spine
2. Lateral thoracic spine
3. Lateral lumbar spine

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
85) What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis?

A. Dome of the acetabulum
B. Femoral neck
C. Greater trochanter
D. Iliac crest
A. Dome of the acetabulum
88) During chest radiography, the act of inspiration
1. elevates the diaphragm
2. raises the ribs
3. depresses the abdominal viscera

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
91) A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the
1. intervertebral spaces
2. intervertebral foramina
3. articular facets

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
92) The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

A. permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position.
B. avoid superimposition on the apices.
C. assist in maintaining an upright position.
D. keep the MSP parallel.
B. avoid superimposition on the apices.
93) The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. metaphysis
D. apophysis
B. epiphysis
94) To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should
1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure.
2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm.
3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105 F) to aid in retention.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
95) The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

A. Eye
B. Nose
C. Body
D. Neck
C. Body
97) Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

A. AP oblique, medial rotation
B. AP oblique, lateral rotation
C. Mediolateral
D. Lateral weight-bearing
A. AP oblique, medial rotation
98) At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

A. Foramen magnum
B. Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. C4
D. C4
99) During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

A. AP or PA erect
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Ventral decubitus
B. Right lateral decubitus
102) To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

A. rest on the cassette for immobilization.
B. must be supported parallel to the IR.
C. are radiographed in natural flexion.
D. are radiographed in palmar flexion.
B. must be supported parallel to the IR.
103) Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiographic contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

A. Retrograde pyelogram
B. Voiding cystourethrogram
C. Hysterosalpingogram
D. Myelogram
C. Hysterosalpingogram
104) All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except

A. the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.
B. retained fecal material can obscure pathology.
C. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
D. double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions.
C. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
105) In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the
1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
106) The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A. diploe
B. lambda
C. bregma
D. pterion
C. bregma
107) The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is

A. hemoptysis
B. hematemesis
C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D. bronchitis
A. hemoptysis
108) Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

A. position of the organ
B. size and shape of the organ
C. diverticula
D. gastric or bowel mucosa
D. gastric or bowel mucosa
109) The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR.
B. in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the IR.
C. erect and weight-bearing.
D. erect with and without weights.
A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR.
111) For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?
1. Patency of the biliary ducts
2. Biliary tract calculi
3. Gallbladder calculi

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
114) Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
115) For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

A. 5 degrees caudad
B. 10 degrees caudad
C. 5 degrees cephalad
D. 0 degrees (perpendicular)
D. 0 degrees (perpendicular)
117) Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include
1. pedicles
2. laminae
3. body

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
118) A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

A. just below the EAM.
B. to the level of the mandibular angles.
C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence.
D. to the level of C7.
C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence.
119) The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the

A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR.
B. midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR.
C. coronal plane 70 degrees to the IR.
D. midsagittal plane 70 degrees to the IR.
A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR.
120) Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
121) The innominate bone is located in the

A. middle cranial fossa.
B. posterior cranial fossa.
C. foot
D. pelvis
D. pelvis
122) Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?

A. a postpubertal adolescent
B. a 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy
C. A menopausal woman
D. a postmenopausal 65-year-old
A. a postpubertal adolescent
123) Radiography of which of the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?
1. Kidney
2. Scaphoid
3. Sigmoid

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
124) Which of the following examinations require(s) special identification markers in addition to the usual patient name and number, date, and side marker?
1. Intravenous urography (IVU)
2. Tomography
3. Abdominal survey

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
126) The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the

A. asthenic
B. hyposthenic
C. sthenic
D. hypersthenic
A. asthenic
127) Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A. Avulsion fracture
B. Torus fracture
C. Comminuted fracture
D. Compound fracture
A. Avulsion fracture
128) Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

A. Distal interphalangeal joints
B. Proximal interphalangeal joints
C. Metacarpals
D. Radial styloid process
D. Radial styloid process
129) Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?
1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.
2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
130) Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?
1. AP humerus
2. Lateral forearm
3. Internal rotation shoulder

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
131) Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

A. AP
B. PA
C. RPO
D. LPO
D. LPO
132) With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

A. Symphysis
B. Rami
C. Body
D. Angle
B. Rami
133) During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate
1. the filling of the ureters
2. the renal pelvis
3. the superior calyces

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
134) The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

A. medial sagittal plane (MSP)
B. midcoronal plane
C. sagittal plane
D. transverse plane
B. midcoronal plane
135) To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

A. toward the affected side
B. away from the affected side
C. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position
D. with the arm in external rotation
A. toward the affected side
137) Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate
1. internal disk lesions
2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord
3. posterior disk herniation

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
138) Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled high and transverse stomach?

A. Place the patient in a 35- to 40-degree RAO position.
B. Place the patient in a lateral position.
C. Angle the CR 35-45 degrees cephalad.
D. Angle the CR 35-45 degrees caudad.
C. Angle the CR 35-45 degrees cephalad.
139) Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A. Invert the foot.
B. Evert the foot.
C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.
D. Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.
C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.
140) The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is

A. red marrow
B. yellow marrow
C. cortical tissue
D. cancellous tissue
B. yellow marrow
141) Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

A. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad
B. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle caudad
C. Patient AP with 0-degree angle
D. Patient lateral, coned to L5
A. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad
142) Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Prominence of the greater trochanter
C. Anterosuperior iliac spine
D. Anteroinferior iliac spine
B. Prominence of the greater trochanter
143) Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in

A. sonography
B. computed tomography (CT)
C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. nuclear medicine
C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
144) Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

A. eversion
B. inversion
C. abduction
D. adduction
D. adduction
146) A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
1. Sacral vertebrae
2. Thoracic vertebrae
3. Lumbar vertebrae

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
147) Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the IR.
2. The MSP is parallel to the IR.
3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
148) With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

A. Fifth metacarpal
B. First metacarpal
C. Distal radius
D. Distal ulna
B. First metacarpal
149) Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

A. LAO
B. RAO
C. LPO
D. Erect
A. LAO
150) The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

A. Right iliac
B. Left iliac
C. Right lumbar
D. Hypogastric
A. Right iliac
151) Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
152) A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

A. Ewing sarcoma
B. multiple myeloma
C. enchondroma
D. osteochondroma
A. Ewing sarcoma
153) Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
154) Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

A. AP axial
B. Lateral
C. Parietoacanthial
D. Submentovertical (SMV)
D. Submentovertical (SMV)
156) Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intertrochanteric line
2. Intercondyloid fossa
3. Linea aspera

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
157) An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?

A. IVU
B. Retrograde pyelogram
C. Myelogram
D. Arthrogram
C. Myelogram
159) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders.
2. Ten posterior ribs are demonsrated above the diaphragm.
3. The esophagus is visible in the midline.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
160) The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

A. Scapular Y
B. AP scapula
C. Medial oblique elbow
D. Lateral oblique elbow
C. Medial oblique elbow
161) In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized
2. talofibular joint is visualized
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
163) All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except

A. lateral rectum
B. AP axial rectosigmoid
C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
D. RAO and LAO abdomen
C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
164) Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

A. Erect
B. Recumbent
C. Oblique
D. Trendelenburg
A. Erect
165) Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa.
2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia.
3. Patient PA, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5-10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
169) AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula.
2. following inversion or eversion injuries
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
170) When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see
1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits.
2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally.
3. symmetrical petrous pyramids.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
171) Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?
1. Obesity
2. Smoking
3. Stress

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
172) The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

A. costal margin
B. umbilicus.
C. xiphoid tip.
D. fourth lumbar vertebra.
D. fourth lumbar vertebra.
173) Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
1. Spleen
2. Gallbladder
3. Hepatic flexure

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
174) In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those

A. nearest the IR
B. furthest from the IR
C. seen medially
D. seen inferiorly
B. furthest from the IR
175) Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?
1. Modified Waters (mouth open)
2. Lateral
3. PA axial

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
176) In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
3. patient may be examined in the erect position.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
179) Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical bodies
3. Apophyseal joints

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
180) The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

A. diaphysis
B. epiphysis
C. metaphysis
D. apophysis
C. metaphysis
181) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?
1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal.
2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits.
3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
182) Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
B. crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma
C. respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling
D. all of the above
A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.
183) To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

A. the glabellomeatal line is vertical
B. the acanthiomeatal line is vertical
C. the line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical
D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical
D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.
184) In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

A. AP
B. External rotation
C. Internal rotation
D. Neutral position
C. Internal rotation
185) For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
B. midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen.
C. at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest
D. perpendicular to the level of L2.
A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.
186) Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

A. Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.
B. Use a support sponge for the phalanges
C. Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR.
D. Use ulnar flexion.
A. Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.
187) The relationship between the end of fractured long bones is referred to as

A. angulation
B. apposition
C. luxation
D. sprain
B. apposition
188) Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

A. AP
B. Lateral knee
C. Tangential patella
D. Tunnel view
C. Tangential patella
191) Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?

A. Retrograde urogram
B. Intravenous urogram (IVU)
C. Voiding cystourethrogram
D. Retrograde cystogram
C. Voiding cystourethrogram
192) Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?
1. Clavicular body
2. Acromioclavicular joint
3. Sternocostal joint

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
193) In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

A. AP
B. Lateral oblique
C. Medial oblique
D. Lateral
C. Medial oblique
194) Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

A. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position.
B. AP projection, right lateral decubitus position.
C. PA recumbent position
D. AP recumbent position
A. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position.
195) Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

A. Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
B. Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules
C. Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles
D. Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
A. Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins.
196) Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. Medial oblique
D. Lateral oblique
D. Lateral oblique
197) Which of the following views will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?

A. AP recumbent, affected shoulder
B. AP recumbent, both shoulders
C. AP erect, affected shoulder
D. AP erect, both shoulder
D. AP erect, both shoulder
198) Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?
1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.
2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.
3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
199) The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

A. cephalad
B. proximal
C. distal
D. lateral
C. distal
200) With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?

A. Occipital bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Facial bones
D. Basal formina
C. Facial bones
201) The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as

A. asphyxia
B. aspiration
C. atelectasis
D. asystole
B. aspiration
202) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves
1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla
2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct
3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
203) Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?
1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
3. Posterior or backward displacement

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
204) To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made

A. on normal inspiration
B. on inspiration, second breath
C. on expiration
D. during shallow breathing
C. on expiration
205) Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

A. AP
B. External rotation
C. Internal rotation
D. Neutral position
C. Internal rotation
206) Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?
1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
2. Stent placement
3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
207) Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include
1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb.
2. both joints must be included in long bone studies.
3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
208) Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be

A. iodinated contrast administration evening before examination; water only in the morning.
B. NPO after midnight
C. cathartics and cleansing exams
D. NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout film.
B. NPO after midnight
209) The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called

A. hypertension
B. elasticity
C. pulse
D. pressure
C. pulse
210) The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate

A. the duodenal loop
B. filling of the duodenal bulb
C. hiatal hernia
D. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
C. hiatal hernia
211) Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

A. Internal and external rotation
B. AP and tangential
C. AP and AP axial
D. AP and scapular Y
D. AP and scapular Y
212) Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

A. AP
B. 90 degrees mediolateral
C. 45 degrees of internal rotation
D. 45 degrees of external rotation
C. 45 degrees of internal rotation
213) Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen?
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
214) Which of the following radiographic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

A. Nephrotomography
B. Retrograde urography
C. Cystourethrography
D. IVU
B. Retrograde urography
215) The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed
1. 15 degrees cephalad
2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
216) Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

A. AP recumbent
B. Lateral recumbent
C. AP erect
D. Medial oblique
C. AP erect
217) Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. 30-degree RPO
D. 45-degree LPO
C. 30-degree RPO
219) With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the

A. Trendelenburg position
B. Fowler position
C. decubitus position
D. Sims position
A. Trendelenburg position
220) Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be

A. iodinated contrast evening before examination; water only in the morning
B. NPO after midnight
C. cathartics and cleansing enemas
D. NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout image
C. cathartics and cleansing enemas
221) The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh

A. adducted 25 degrees from the horizontal
B. abducted 25 degrees from the vertical
C. adducted 40 degrees from the horizontal
D. abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
D. abducted 40 degrees from the vertical
222) Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?
1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
223) Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. High and peripheral large bowel
3. Diaphragm positioned low

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
224) Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
1. Have patient empty the bladder
2. Review the patient's allergy history
3. Check the patient's creatinine level

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
225) To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the
1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette
2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible
3. hand lateral and in internal rotation

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
227) In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

A. cisterna magna
B. individual intervertebral disks.
C. subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae
D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
228) Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?

A. Pyelonephrosis
B. Nephroptosis
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Cystourethritis
C. Hydronephrosis
229) Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations?
1. Use of PA position
2. Use of breast shields
3. Use of compensating filtration

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
230) Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

A. Synarthrodial
B. Diarthrodial
C. Amphiarthodial
D. Cartilaginous
B. Diarthrodial
231) The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

A. thyroid gland
B. thyroid cartilage
C. vocal cords
D. pharynx
B. thyroid cartilage
232) In the AP projection of the ankle, the
1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical
2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia
3. calcaneus is well visualized

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
233) Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

A. BE
B. Upper GI
C. IVU
D. Bone survey
C. IVU
234) The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except

A. the temporal bones
B. the occipital bone
C. the ethmoid bone
D. the sphenoid bone
B. the occipital bone
235) Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the

A. pulmonary artery
B. pulmonary veins
C. superior vena cava
D. thoracic aorta
C. superior vena cava
236) The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

A. mechanical
B. paralytic
C. asymptomatic
D. sterile
B. paralytic
237) Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

A. Barium examinations
B. Spine radiography
C. Skull radiography
D. Emergency and trauma radiography
D. Emergency and trauma radiography
238) Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?

A. Pneumothorax
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Hypoxia
C. Pulmonary embolism
239) Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?

A. Insulin
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Gastrin
B. Cholecystokinin
240) Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

A. Radial flexion/deviation
B. Ulnar flexion/deviation
C. AP (medial) oblique
D. AP (lateral) oblique
C. AP (medial) oblique
241) During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?

A. Transverse colon
B. Descending colon
C. Ascending colon
D. Left and right colic flexures
A. Transverse colon
242) Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography?
1. Creatinine
2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
3. Red blood cells (RBCs)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
243) Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?
1. Fractured lateral malleolus
2. Fractured medial malleolus
3. Fractured posterior tibia

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
244) The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

A. Endocrine
B. Integumentary
C. Skeletal
D. Muscular
C. Skeletal
245) The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery
2. common carotid arteries
3. vertebral arteries

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
246) Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the

A. left atrium
B. right atrium
C. left ventricle
D. right ventricle
D. right ventricle
247) Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

A. Appendicitis
B. Intussusception
C. Regional enteritis
D. Ulcerative colitis
B. Intussusception
249) Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest?
1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR.
2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs
3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper arm soft tissue superimposition on lung field.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
251) Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?
1. Femur
2. Tibia
3. Patella

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 and 2 only
252) All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except

A. the femoral neck
B. the pubic symphysis
C. the greater trochanter
D. the iliac crest
A. the femoral neck
253) Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the

A. lateral projection
B. PA axial (Caldwell method) projection
C. parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection.
D. AP axial (Grashey-Towne method) projection
C. parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection.
254) Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Tibial condyles
3. Tibial tuberosity

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
255) Oral cholecystography can be used to determine
1. liver function
2. ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile
3. emptying ability of the gallbladder

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
256) The external, or lateral, oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the
1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa
2. radial head free of superimposition
3. coronoid process free of superimposition

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 only
257) In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

A. parallel to C4
B. perpendicular to C4
C. 15 degrees cephalad to C4
D. 15 degrees caudad to C4
D. 15 degrees caudad to C4
258) Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

A. Open-mouth projection
B. Moving-mandible AP
C. Flexion and extension laterals
D. Right and left bending AP
C. Flexion and extension laterals
259) If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head

A. 15 degrees toward the side being examined
B. 15 degrees away from the side being examined
C. 30 degrees toward the side being examined
D.
A. 15 degrees toward the side being examined
260) Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

A. Hepatic flexure
B. Splenic flexure
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Ileocecal valve
A. Hepatic flexure
263) Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?
1. Bell-Thompson scale
2. Bucky tray
3. Cannula

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
264) What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

A. Spondylitis
B. Spondylolysis
C. Spondylolisthesis
D. Spondylosis
C. Spondylolisthesis
265) In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed

A. 1/2 inch posterior to the anterior nasal spine
B. 3/4 inch posterior to the glabella
C. 3/4 inch distal to the nasion
D. 1/2 inch anterior to the EAM
C. 3/4 inch distal to the nasion
266) Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A. AP projection
B. lateral projection
C. medial oblique projection
D. lateral oblique projection
A. AP projection
267) Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?

A. PA
B. Left lateral
C. RPO
D. LPO
C. RPO
268) Structures involved in blowout fractures include the
1. orbital floor
2. inferior rectus muscle
3. zygoma

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
269) Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate
1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s).
2. air in the pleural cavity.
3. foreign body.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
270) Shoulder arthrography is performed to
1. evaluate humeral luxation
2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear
3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
271) An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

A. blowout
B. Le Fort
C. contracture
D. contrecoup
D. contrecoup
272) The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is

A. age
B. gender
C. family history
D. personal history
B. gender
273) Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?

A. Manubrium
B. Jugular notch
C. Sternal angle
D. Xiphoid process
B. Jugular notch
274) For the AP projection of the scapula, the
1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body
2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated
3. exposure is made during quiet breathing

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
275) The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

A. transverse processes
B. vertebral arches
C. laminae
D. pedicles
C. laminae
276) Which of the following are mediastinal structures?
1. Heart
2. Trachea
3. Esophagus

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
277) Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

A. Frontal
B. Ethmoidal
C. Maxillary
D. Sphenoidal
D. Sphenoidal
278) Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when

A. respiration is suspended at the end of full exhalation
B. exposed using shallow breathing technique
C. the patient is in the recumbent position
D. the patient is in the AP erect position
C. the patient is in the recumbent position
279) Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct?
1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained
2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis
3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
280) What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

A. Axial plantodorsal projection
B. Axial dorsoplantar projection
C. Lateral projection
D. Weight-bearing lateral projection
A. Axial plantodorsal projection
281) During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on
1. the respiratory phase
2. body habitus
3. patient position

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
282) With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15- to 20-degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

A. 10-15 degrees caudal
B. 25-30 degrees caudal
C. 15-20 degrees cephalic
D. 3-5 degrees caudal
A. 10-15 degrees caudal
283) The patient positioned for a T-tube cholangiography is in a

A. 15-20 degree LPO position
B. 15-20 degree RPO position
C. 45 degree LPO position
D. 45 degree RPO position
B. 15-20 degree RPO position
284) The structures forming the brain stem include
1. the pons
2. the medulla oblongata
3. the midbrain

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
286) In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?
1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only
287) In the lateral projection of the foot, the
1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
2. metatarsals are superimposed
3. talofibular joint should be visualized

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
288) Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of
1. uterine tubal patency
2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
3. uterine position

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
289) Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. a fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt table capabilities
2. a fiberoptic endoscope
3. polythylene catheters

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
290) All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except

A. for radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis.
B. if a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection.
C. chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position.
D. radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.
D. radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position. FALSE!
291) The act of expiration will cause the
1. diaphragm to move inferiorly
2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly
3. diaphragm to move superiorly

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
292) A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
1. Radial head
2. Capitulum
3. Coronoid process

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
293) Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
294) Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true?
1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated
2. Sterile technique is observed
3. MRI can follow x-ray

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
295) The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are

A. ionic non water-soluble
B. ionic water-soluble
C. non-ionic water-soluble
D. gas
C. non-ionic water-soluble
296) Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?

A. Aortofemoral arteriogram
B. Upper limb venogram
C. Lower limb venogram
D. Renal venogram
B. Upper limb venogram
297) Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?
1. A ring when performing hand radiography
2. An antishock garment
3. A pneumatic splint

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3
298) Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

A. Left sacroiliac joint
B. Right sacroiliac joint
C. Left ilium
D. Right ilium
A. Left sacroiliac joint
299) Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?
1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient.
3. Call for help and use log-rolling method to turn the patient.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
300) In which type of fracture are the splintered end of bone forced through the skin?

A. Closed
B. Compound
C. Compression
D. Depressed
B. Compound