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TPV 1 Practice Test B
Terms in this set (100)
A project selection method determines which proposed projects should be implemented by the organization. Which of the following is a common project selection method?
ANSWER: Benefit measurement.
Benefit measurement is a common project selection method that provides a means to compare the benefits obtained from project requests by evaluating them using the same criteria. The four common benefit measurement methods are cost-benefit analysis, scoring model, payback period, and economic model.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on the closure documents of a project. One of the newly joined team members wants to know who is responsible for signing off on the closure documents of a project. What will you reply?
ANSWER: Project sponsor.
The project sponsor is responsible to sign off on the closure documents of a project. The sponsor is an advisor to the project manager and acts as the tiebreaker decision maker when consensus cannot be reached among the stakeholders.
Which of the following criteria of a project describes the statement below?
"The characteristics of a project consist of assigning resources to complete the work of the project and assuring the results of the project to meet the quality standards outlined in the project plan".
ANSWER: Resources and quality.
The purpose of a project is to deliver one or more business products according to a specified business case. Projects have the following characteristics:
• They are unique.
• They are temporary in nature and have a definite beginning and ending date.
• They are completed when the project goals are achieved.
• Their success is measured by evaluating whether they meet or exceed expectations of the stakeholders.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc., which is a matrix organization. You have to assign tasks associated with the project to the employees. One of the employees wants to know about the characteristics of a matrix organization. What will be your reply?
ANSWER: Low to moderate authority for the project manager.
A mix of full time and part time project resources.
Better inter-departmental communication.
A matrix organization is characterized by:
• Low to moderate authority for the project manager.
• A mix of full time and part time project resources.
• Better inter-departmental communication.
Business case validation includes which of the following?
ANSWER: Aligning the project goals to the strategic plan.
Performing a feasibility study.
Justifying the tangible and intangible benefits of performing the project.
Business case justification includes performing a feasibility study, justifying the tangible and intangible benefits of the project, and aligning the project goals to the strategic plan.
All projects are comprised of nine knowledge areas. Which knowledge area contains the 'identifying project stakeholders ' process?
ANSWER: Project communications management.
Project communications management is the project management knowledge area that contains the identifying project stakeholder's process.
From the following list, select those elements that represent the PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas.
The nine PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas are Scope, Time, Cost, Quality, Human Resources, Communications, Risk, Procurement, and Integration.
Which of the following processes includes all the activities that lead up to the final authorization to begin the project, starting with the original project request?
The initiating process includes all the activities that lead up to the final authorization to begin the project, starting with the original project request. This process can be formal or informal, depending on the organization.
The closing process group is the last set of processes that you will perform for the project. In this process, you prepare a closing documentation. What is the main purpose of this documentation?
ANSWER: To identify the project's strengths and weaknesses equally.
The closing process group is the process of documenting the formal acceptance of the project work and handing off the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support. A closing document is used in the closing process group, and the main purpose of closing documentation is to identify the project's strengths and weaknesses equally.
During the planning process group, a project manager receives many requests to make changes in a project. Which of the following did the project manager fail to complete?
ANSWER: Stakeholder analysis.
Stakeholder analysis is the identification of stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations. It involves documentation, prioritization, and quantification of the needs that help in defining the project scope. Therefore, if a project manager does not complete the stakeholder analysis or properly analyze the stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations, it is inevitable that the project will have to undergo some changes.
The Initiating process group includes which important task?
ANSWER: Approving the project and authorizing work to begin.
The Initiating process group involves both the formal acceptance of the project and the authorization for the project manager to start the work. The other options are important tasks undertaken during the Planning phases.
In project management, the process of taking high-level project requirements and breaking them down into the tasks that will generate the deliverables is called what?
Decomposition is the process of analyzing the requirements of the project in such a way that you reduce the requirements down to the steps and tasks needed to produce them.
You are a project manager for a medium-sized project. Some of the stakeholders, not including the project sponsor, have asked to meet with you as a group. They tell you that they're not happy with the deliverables, even though the acceptance criteria for each requirement have been met. They want you to immediately kill the project because any further expenditure of resources would simply be throwing good money after bad. What do you tell them?
ANSWER: You should schedule a meeting with the stakeholders and the project sponsor before canceling the project prior to completion.
Since the sponsor isn't involved in these conversations, you're not authorized to cancel the project until the sponsor tells you it's OK. You'll need to schedule a meeting with the stakeholders and the project sponsor and get to the bottom of their grievances and then take whatever action the sponsor requires.
Which element of your project's scope document lists certain resources that will be available during the months of April through September while the project moves forward?
Assumptions are things that are believed to be true. Stating that certain resources will be available during specific months of the project is an assumption.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You have to perform targeted assessment of specific IT risks associated with a specific application. You are using the HLRA technique for accomplishing the above task. One of your new team members wants to know the reason behind using the HLRA technique. What will be your reply?
ANSWER: It improves the level of confidence in system security.
It reduces the cost and time element.
High Level Risk Assessment(HLRA) performs targeted assessment of specific risks associated with a specific application. It attempts to use the 80 / 20 rule. This technique is used in risk assessments to improve the level of confidence in system security and to reduce the cost and time elements. The HLRA components are:
• Threat assessment.
• Risk assessment.
During the planning process group, the purpose of the project scope statement is to document the project objectives, the deliverables, and the work required to produce the deliverables. Which of the following would MOST likely be used as an input to the project scope statement?
ANSWER: Project acceptance criteria.
Project acceptance criteria is most likely used as an input to the project scope statement because it includes the process and criteria that describe how to determine whether the deliverables are complete and satisfactorily meet the requirements of the project. Acceptance criteria should include a definition of the specifications, and the deliverables must meet the expectations of the stakeholders.
Which of the following options best describes the scope statement?
ANSWER: It serves as a baseline of understanding for all project team members and stakeholders and as a basis for future decision making.
The scope statement is a document used throughout the project to assist the project manager and team members in determining whether the project is on the right track. It's also used to help make future decisions about the project scope, particularly regarding change requests.
This describes how you will know the completed deliverables are satisfactory.
ANSWER: Acceptance criteria.
Acceptance criteria describe how to determine whether the deliverables are complete and meet the requirements of the project.
Your project has completed the project scope and the stakeholders have signed off on the project deliverables. Frances, another project manager in your organization, wants to know when you and your project team will help her and her team deliver the software solution your project created for the users in the organization. What should you tell Frances?
ANSWER: That she should complete the solution implementation on her own as your project scope has been completed.
As tough as this choice sounds, it is the correct answer. Because your project team has completed the project scope and you have sign-off on all of the project deliverables from the stakeholders, you cannot do additional work on your project. In addition, Frances is the project manager of the solution delivery, not you or your project team.
Henry and Fred are working together on business analysis duties for the implementation of new software. Henry, the business analyst, tells Fred that they should take the current measurement of productivity, and then measure again after the solution has been implemented. This benchmarking approach will allow Henry and Fred to see the real effect of the solution on the business need. What term is assigned to this measurement?
ANSWER: Key performance indicators.
The measurements are known as key performance indicators. It's an approach for measuring how well the solution has affected the organization.
Work breakdown structure (WBS) is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which of the following are inputs to the Create WBS process?
ANSWER: Scope management plan.
Project scope statement.
Organizational process assets.
Create WBS is the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. The key benefit of this process is that it provides a structured vision of what has to be delivered. The following are the inputs to the Create WBS process:
• Scope management plan.
• Project scope statement.
• Requirements documentation.
• Enterprise environmental factors.
• Organizational process assets.
This document describes the project deliverables, a code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, and criteria for acceptance.
ANSWER: WBS dictionary.
The WBS dictionary describes the project deliverables, a code of accounts identifier, estimates, resources, criteria for acceptance, and other information that helps clarify the deliverables.
Which of the following requires the WBS as an input?
ANSWER: Cost estimating.
Cost estimating, resource planning, and activity definition requires the WBS as an input.
When faced with a proposed scope deviation, what will be your first order of business?
ANSWER: Determine the cause.
The first order of business is to ascertain why the proposed scope deviation is needed. After validating that the proposed change is necessary, you have to validate its impact on scope, in budget, time, and resources.
A project requires many different resources for its execution. For this purpose, a project manager has requested a new part from an out-of-state supplier. The supplier promises to ship the part within 24 hours, but due to a trade blockage, the shipment may take 3 to 6 business days to deliver. On the other hand, a local supplier can deliver that part within 4 business days. What is the minimum number of days the project manager can receive the part?
ANSWER: 4 business days.
For the smooth execution of a project, the project manager should order the part from the local supplier, so that it can be delivered within 4 business days. However, if the project manager orders the part from an out-of-state supplier, then the total process could take up to 6 days, which might impact the project schedule.
When developing the project schedule, which methodology will reveal the tasks with zero float?
ANSWER: Critical Path Method (CPM).
The critical path method determines the critical path on the project, which is defined by those projects with zero float.
This term describes the amount of time an activity may have between its earliest start date and latest start date as an example.
Float describes the amount of time between the early and late start or the early and late finish for an activity. Those tasks with zero float are critical path tasks.
Which schedule format shows the duration of a task on a horizontal timeline, along with predecessors, successors, and milestones?
A Gantt chart shows a task on a horizontal timeline. Dependencies are shown as well as milestones. Gantt charts are useful for providing a visual image of how long each task will take to complete.
Steven is the project manager for the HNN Organization. The HNN Organization uses a projectized structure for all projects. Steven's current project has a budget of $345,000 and a deadline for completion of seven months. Steven's project is of low to moderate priority in the organization's portfolio. What percentage of the project team's schedule is likely to be spent just on Steven's project?
ANSWER: High to almost total.
In a projectized environment, the project team will participate on the project in a nearly full-time role.
You and a colleague are discussing PERT and Three-Point Estimates. What is the difference between these two time estimating approaches?
ANSWER: PERT uses six factors while Three-Point Estimates use three factors.
PERT and the Three-Point Estimates are similar, but PERT uses the formula (Optimistic+(4 x Most Likely)+Pessimistic)/6, while Three-Point Estimates are an average of the three factors: optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic.
Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
ANSWER: Precedence Diagramming Method.
The Precedence Diagramming Method uses both predecessors and successors as nodes in the project network diagram. The PDM approach is the most common network diagram approach used.
A project manager receives advice from an end user that they need extensive training for learning how to use the new system that is being developed. What is the next step the project manager should take?
ANSWER: Analyze the impact of including the training in the project.
Whenever a new system is being developed, the project manager should analyze the impact of including the training in the project. This gives the project manager a clear idea about whether extensive training enhances the competencies of the project team members that would support their ability to benefit the project.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You have to describe which people and group need information about the project, when should the information be distributed, how often should it be distributed, and the format in which it should be delivered. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish the above task?
ANSWER: Communication Planning.
Communication planning defines the type of information, frequency, format, and method of distribution that the project stakeholder requires during the course of the project.
The network communication model is a visual depiction of what?
ANSWER: Lines of communication.
Lines of communication describe how many lines of communication exist between participants. The network communication model is a visual depiction of the lines of communication.
Which of the following types of communication is described under the category of informal communication?
ANSWER: Phone Calls.
An informal communication describes unplanned or adhoc communication, which consists of phone calls, emails, conversation in the hallway, or impromptu meetings.
Human resources, equipment, materials, and supplies and the quantity of each are planned for during this process.
ANSWER: Resource Planning.
Resource planning is where resources, including human, equipment, materials, and supplies and the quantity of each are determined.
Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the schedule variance (SV)?
ANSWER: SV=Earned Value (EV)-Planned Value (PV).
Schedule variance (SV) is a earned value technique used for measuring the schedule performance on a project. The variance signifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV=Earned Value (EV)-Planned Value (PV).
You work as a project manager in a company. You are identifying the costs of the resources needed in the project. Which of the following is NOT an example of a project resource?
ANSWER: Staffing Management Plan.
A staffing management plan does not come under the project resource.
The staffing management plan is a subsidiary plan of the overall project management plan and defines when project team members will be brought onto and released from the project. It describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. Depending upon the needs of the project, it can be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed. The staffing management plan may include the following items: staff acquisition, resource calendars, staff release plan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety.
Organizational planning is performed during the human resource-planning process. Each of the following is an environmental factor you should take into consideration when performing organizational planning except for which one?
ANSWER: Labor Union Agreements.
Labor union agreements are a constraint you should consider when planning for human resources. Other environmental factors you should consider in human resource planning are organizational factors and technical factors.
As a project manager, which of the following are the important areas you should focus on when discussing performance with a team member?
ANSWER: Specify performance expectations.
Identify inadequate performance behaviors.
Reward superior performance.
The following are the important areas a project manager should focus on when discussing performance with a team member:
• Specify performance expectations.
• Identify inadequate performance behaviors.
• Reward superior performance.
• Reprimand inadequate performance.
• Provide specific consequences for choices made.
The project manager should give reward for superior performance publicly, but a discussion of inadequate performance should always be done privately.
This tool is often used in the vendor selection process to pick a winning bidder.
ANSWER: Weighted scoring model.
A weighted scoring model is a tool that weights evaluation criteria and provides a way to score vendor responses. Bidder conferences, IFB, and SOW are all used during vendor solicitation.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. Which of the following techniques will you use to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a product or service in-house or from an outside vendor?
ANSWER: Make-or-buy analysis.
A make-or-buy analysis is a technique used to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a product or service in-house or from an outside vendor.
A make-or-buy analysis is used to verify whether a particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased from outside sources. The budget constraints can influence the make-or-buy decisions. A make-or-buy analysis must consider all related costs; both direct and indirect support costs.
During the planning process, you were asked to estimate project cost in order to create the project budget. Which of the following tools is BEST used for estimating project cost?
ANSWER: Historical document.
The best tool used for project cost estimation is historical document or data that is based on analogous estimating. A historical document provides a high-level cost estimate to the entire project, a phase of the project, or a deliverable, and thus makes up the project budget.
Which cost-estimating technique relies on estimating work packages and then rolling up these estimates to come up with a total cost estimate?
The bottom-up cost-estimating method is the most precise because you begin your estimating at the activities in the work package and roll them up for a total estimate.
A pharmacy chain wants to implement a new photo processing option for its customers. The option will allow customers to email images to the store for film processing. However, the store chain's project manager is unfamiliar with photo or film processing. What should the project manager do?
ANSWER: Obtain expert judgment.
Expert judgment is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You are in the project kickoff meeting. Which of the following documents are reviewed during the project kickoff meeting?
ANSWER: Project Charter.
The documents reviewed during a project kickoff meeting are as follows:
• Project charter.
• Project scope.
• Project budget.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You have to provide a seller with payments for all costs incurred to deliver or produce the requested product or service. Which of the following contracts will you use to accomplish the task?
ANSWER: Cost reimbursable contract.
A cost-plus contract, more accurately termed a Cost Reimbursement Contract, is a contract where a contractor is paid for all of its allowed expenses to a set limit plus additional payment to allow for a profit. Cost reimbursement contracts contrast with fixed-price contract, in which the contractor is paid a negotiated amount regardless of incurred expenses.
These costs are associated with the cost of poor quality.
Failure costs include the cost of activities needed if the product fails. Internal and external costs are failure costs, which are also known as the cost of poor quality. Internal failure costs result when the customer requirements are not satisfied but the product is still in the control of the organization. Some examples of internal failure costs include corrective action, rework, scrapping, and downtime.
External failure costs occur when the product has reached the customer and he determines it doesn't meet his requirements. For example, external failure costs include inspections at the customer site, returns, and customer service costs.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You have to include examining, measuring, or testing of work results. Which of the following techniques will you use to accomplish this task?
Inspection techniques consist of examining, measuring, or testing of work results.
This positive risk strategy looks for opportunities to take advantage of positive impacts to the project if the risk event occurs.
Exploit is a positive risk response strategy that looks for opportunities to take advantage of the positive impacts of a potential risk event.
You are the project manager and working on a complex project. Your experience based on lessons learned from previous projects shows that a complex project can be completed in not less than 24 months, but a project sponsor is determined that a complex project must be completed within 12 months. Which of the following tools can the project manager use to show the improbability of the proposed timeline?
ANSWER: Monte Carlo Analysis.
The project manager will use Monte Carlo analysis, which is a technique/tool in which a distribution of possible activity durations is defined for each activity and is used to calculate a distribution of possible outcomes for the total project.
As the project manager for the NHQ Project you are performing quantitative risk analysis. One of the project risks has a 40 percent probability of happening and it will cost the project $67,000 if the risk happens. What is the expected monetary value of this risk event?
ANSWER: Negative $26,800.
The expected monetary value of the risk is determined by multiplying the cost of the risk by its probability of happening. In this instance, the expected monetary value is negative $26,800, i.e., $67,000 x 40%.
What signals the end of the Planning phase?
ANSWER: The project management plan is approved and signed.
After the sponsor has formally signed the project management plan, you've finished the Planning stage and now move into the Executing process.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You are in a need of defined dates for the deliverables to be transferred to the organization. Which of the following objectives of the transition plan will you use to accomplish the above task?
ANSWER: Transition dates.
The various objectives of a transition plan are as follows:
• Transition dates: There should be a defined date for the deliverables to be transferred to the organization; an account of the conditions for the deliverables to be moved from the management of the project to the management of operations.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You have to provide the stakeholders with information regarding the project in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, emails etc. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish the above task?
ANSWER: Information distribution.
The information distribution process provides the stakeholders with information regarding the project in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, emails etc.
Which of the following documents and monitors the elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders?
ANSWER: Issue log.
Issue log is a project document that documents and monitors the elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders. It facilitates communication and ensures a common understanding of issues and helps in monitoring who is responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date.
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques should be employed by the project manager when there is a minor conflict between several members in a project team and the issue has no major impact on the project?
Avoiding is a method of resolving conflicts. In this conflict resolution method, a person drops out of the conflict situation and physically leaves. It does not try to bring the issue to the other person's attention or deal with the problem and thus it has no impact on the project.
In which of the following conflict resolution methods, does a person drop out of the conflict situation and does not try to bring the issue to the other person's attention or deal with the problem?
Avoidance is a method of resolving conflicts. In this conflict resolution method, a person drops out of the conflict situation and does not try to bring the issue to the other person's attention or deal with the problem. This would not be an effective method of resolving conflict in almost all cases.
You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You notice that two team members of your team are driving each other crazy. They have different ways of organizing tasks they are both assigned to and the disparity in styles is causing them to bicker. Which of the following statements describes the above situation?
ANSWER: This situation is a common cause of conflict.
This situation refers to the varying work styles that are a common cause of conflict. Competing resource demands and expert judgment are also common causes of conflicts. It is not right that the project manager jumps into it immediately. It is better if the project team members work this out on their own first. Issues like this are not escalated to the project sponsor.
Your team has settled into day-to-day interactions and is comfortable with their positions within the team. Decisions are made jointly, and the team members show mutual respect for each other. Which stage of team development is this team in?
Norming is the stage in team development when the team members are comfortable with each other, show mutual respect for each other, and make decisions jointly.
Some team members on your team are driving each other crazy. They have different ways of organizing the tasks they are both assigned to, and the disparity in styles is causing them to bicker. Which of the following describes this situation?
ANSWER: This is a common cause of conflict.
This situation describes varying work styles that are a common cause of conflict. Competing resource demands and expert judgment are also common causes of conflict. This isn't a situation the project manager should jump into immediately. It's better if the project team members can work this out on their own first. And issues like this should almost never have to be escalated to the project sponsor.
Jane is a project manager that is working with her project team. Some of the project stakeholders have been circumventing the change control process and approaching the project team members directly. Jane wants to inform the project team that stakeholders should use the approved change control form. What is it called when the project team members completed unapproved change requests for stakeholders?
ANSWER: Scope creep.
Scope creep (also called focus creep, requirement creep, feature creep, and sometimes kitchen sink syndrome) in project management refers to uncontrolled changes in a project's scope. Scope creep includes the changes that circumvent the change control process and are not tracked. Such changes take away from valid project time and valid project costs. This phenomenon can occur when the scope of a project is not properly defined, documented, or controlled. It is generally considered a negative occurrence that is to be avoided.
Wendy is the project manager of the NHQ Project. This project is slated to last for eight months, and it must not be late or her company will incur a daily cost penalty for late delivery. Wendy would like to review when the project team is available for work and when the project team has scheduled vacations or other times away from the project. What should Wendy review in this instance?
ANSWER: Resource calendar.
The resource calendar will help Wendy determine when the project team has scheduled time away from the project.
You work as a project manager for Honeywell Inc. You have been distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasts to various stakeholders. A trainee of this company wants to know the various inputs for generating performance reports. Which of the following are the necessary inputs?
ANSWER: Work Performance Information (WPI).
Work Performance Measurements (WPM).
According to the scenario, you can use the following inputs in order to generate performance reports:
• WPI:Work performance information is the data gathered on the status of the project schedule activities that are performed to accomplish the project work. This data is collected as part of the Direct and Manage Project Execution processes. WPI includes the following:
o Deliverables status.
o Schedule Progress.
o Costs incurred.
• WPM:Work performance measurements are created from the work performance information. WPMs are an output of Control schedule, Control cost, and Control scope processes, which are monitoring and controlling processes. WPMs consist of planned versus actual performance indicators with respect to scope, schedule, and cost. They are documented and communicated to the stakeholders and are used to make project activity metrics, such as the following:
o Planned vs. Actual Technical performance and Scope performance.
o Planned vs. Actual Schedule performance.
o Planned vs. Actual Cost performance.
To hold a project kick-off meeting, which of the following activities are taken into account?
ANSWER: Communicating project goals and objectives.
Communicating stakeholder expectations.
The project kick-off meeting is held at the beginning of the Executing process group and serves the following activities:
• Introduces team members.
• Communicates the goals and objectives of the project.
• Communicates stakeholder expectations.
• Reviews roles and responsibilities for team members.
You are the project manager of the NJY Electrical Grid Project. Cathy is an electrical engineer in your project. She is to complete all of the electrical design activities as part of her duties in the project. Cathy's electrical engineering duties on your project can best be called what project management term?
A responsibility is the work that a project team member is expected to perform as part of their project activities.
It is required by law that in certain industries all changes to a document must be tracked. Which of the following should be implemented by the project manager for this purpose?
ANSWER: Version Control System.
The project manager should implement a version control system which records changes to a file over time. This system helps you to recall some specific versions later and thus all changes made to a project document are tracked.
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your organization. You and your project team have just completed the first phase of a technical implementation project. Before you can move onto the next phase of the project, there must be a security and quality review of the project's deliverables. What is this review sometimes called?
ANSWER: Phase gate approval.
The review at the end of a project phase is also known as a stage gate or phase gate approval. Based on the outcome of the review, the project must correct any problems or continue the project work.
Risk planning involves identification of potential risk events and their impact on the project. Which of the following risk planning techniques reduces the impact of a project threat?
ANSWER: Risk Mitigation.
Risk mitigation is the practice of reducing the severity of the loss or the likelihood of the loss from occurring. It is a list of specific actions being taken to deal with specific risks associated with the threats and seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of risks below an acceptable threshold.
What will happen when the change control board approves the change request of decreasing the project schedule by thirty days without altering the scope of the project?
ANSWER: The cost of the project will increase.
The cost of the project will increase if we decrease the project schedule by thirty days without altering the scope of the project. This is because an increase in the cost of the project will involve additional manpower and resources, which will require additional funding for the project.
You're the project manager on a project where the scope has expanded. The change has been approved by the change control board (CCB). What steps must you take to acknowledge the expansion?
ANSWER: Modify the project scope statement.
Obtain a new sign-off on the project scope statement.
Any time there's a significant expansion or modification to the project, the project scope statement must be modified and agreed to in writing by obtaining sign-off.
Which of the following allows activities to be done in parallel that would normally be done in sequence?
ANSWER: Fast Tracking.
Fast tracking is a frequently used technique to compress a project's schedule. It is often the most effective way to shorten the duration of a project. You fast track a project by scheduling tasks that were originally scheduled to run in sequence, instead in parallel. It is the process of shortening the project schedule without reducing the project scope or compromising on quality.
You have been assigned as the Project Manager for a new project that involves deployment of a new software application to all your organization's users. As you are preparing the project schedule, you notice that your resources are being over allocated, and being assigned more activities than they could handle. Which of the following techniques would you use to make sure that your resources are not over allocated?
ANSWER: Resource Leveling.
Resource Leveling is a schedule network analysis technique applied to a schedule that has already been analyzed by the Critical path method. Resource Leveling is necessary when resources have been over allocated, and commonly involves changing the activity durations to match resource availability.
Select the component that is not a member of the Planning process group.
ANSWER: Risk control.
Risk identification, quantification, and risk response development occur in the Planning process of the project. Risk control occurs in the Monitoring and Controlling process group.
Which of the following may adversely affect the successful completion of an international project?
ANSWER: Time Zones.
The following may adversely affect the successful completion of an international project:
• Time zones.
• Cultural differences.
• Language barriers.
In order to address quality defects in a project, a quality control technician diagrams test results on a run chart. He finds twenty-five points on the chart in which twelve consecutive points are below the median line and the other thirteen points are above the median line. What do the twelve consecutive points on the run chart represent?
ANSWER: The run denotes special cause variation.
Run charts are used to show variations in the process over time or to show trends such as improvements or lack of improvements in the process. For addressing quality defects in a project, a quality control technician diagrams test results on a run chart, and the twelve consecutive points on the run chart represent special cause variation because the points below the median line are the points where the customer or end user will reject the product because of the defects.
A project manager has been engaged to deliver a project in South America and he does not speak Spanish, while more than 50 percent of the project team members speak Spanish. Which of the following would be the project manager's BEST option to implement?
ANSWER: Engage interpreters at both locations for all key team communication.
In the above scenario, the project manager can engage interpreters at both locations for all key team communication so as to obtain a clear understanding of communication and successful completion of a project.
What are some of the elements that may be required for a quality turnover of project deliverables?
ANSWER: Providing end-user documentation.
Providing end-user training.
Documenting maintenance costs and ongoing requirements.
A quality turnover includes making certain any training requirements are met, that end-user documentation is turned over, that maintenance or licensing costs are identified, and that any ongoing requirements are described to the organization taking over the product of the project.
You are the project manager for your organization and are performing quality control. You have identified a problem in your project's deliverable and would like to create a quality control chart that would help you identify the elements that are contributing to the error. What type of a chart could you create that would show the factors that could be contributing to the defect in the project's deliverable?
An Ishikawa chart, also known as a cause-and-effect chart, will help you diagram the effect you're trying to solve and the factors that are contributing to that problem.
The Ishikawa diagram (or fishbone diagram or also cause-and-effect diagram) is a diagram that shows the causes of a certain event. A common use of the Ishikawa diagram is to identify potential factors causing an overall effect. It helps identify causal factors and root causes.
Which of the following are some of the objectives of analyzing project variances?
ANSWER: Determining if the variances are due to anomaly or if the estimates are incorrect.
Determining the root cause of the variances.
Preventing variances in forthcoming projects.
The objectives of analyzing project variances are:
• Determining if the variances are due to anomaly or if the estimates are incorrect.
• Determining the root cause of the variances.
• Preventing variances in forthcoming projects.
• Determining if the variances can be expected on future projects.
Variance is the difference between the actual value and the baseline value. The related fields are Duration, Work, Cost, Start Date, and Finish Date. The field values for Duration Variance, Work Variance, Cost Variance, Start Variance, and Finish Variance are automatically calculated by Microsoft Project 2007.
You know the following figures: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81. What is CV?
The formula for CV is EV - AC, so the formula looks like this: 81 - 83 = -2.
All of the following are true regarding CPI except for which one?
ANSWER: If CPI is greater than one, you've spent more money than anticipated at the measurement date.
If CPI is greater than one, you've spent less money than anticipated (not more, as the option states) at the measurement date.
Which of the following is a forecast of the cost of all remaining project work?
ANSWER: Estimated to Complete (ETC).
Estimate to complete (ETC) is a forecast of the cost of all remaining project work.
You are the project manager of the GHG Project. Your project has a budget of $567,000 and was expected to last two years. You have completed the project, but it took you 26 months to complete the project work. Your actual costs for the project came in at $589,987. What is the earned value for this project?
The earned value can be found by multiplying the percent complete times the budget at completion. Because this project is 100 percent complete, the earned value is $567,000.
Mike is the project manager of the WAM Project. His project has a budget at completion of $295,000 and he is currently forty percent complete with the project. He is, however, supposed to be fifty percent on the project. In this project, Mike has spent $125,000. What is the estimate to complete this project?
The estimate to complete requires several calculations, as the formula is the estimate at completion minus the actual costs. To find the EAC, you'll need to divide the budget at completion by the project's cost performance index. The cost performance index is found by dividing the project's earned value by the cost variance. Mike's project needs $187,500 more to complete the project based on current conditions.
You are the project manager in an organization. A key stakeholder requests that you change the scope of a project four days prior to the completion of the project. What step must you take NEXT to fulfill this request?
ANSWER: You will tell the key stakeholder to submit the request to the change control board.
As a project manager, you are responsible for managing the work associated with the project based on the scope defined with the quality. However, the change of the project and schedule is the responsibility of the change control board. Therefore, if the stakeholder requests that you change the scope of the project, you should ask them to submit the request to the change control board. The change control board (CCB) reviews all the change requests and they have the authority to approve, deny, or delay the requests because whenever there is a significant expansion or modification in the project, the project scope statement is modified and agreed in writing by obtaining a sign-off.
You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. You are working on the NGQQ project for your company. You have completed the risk analysis processes for the risk events. You and the project team have created risk responses for most of the identified project risks. Which of the following risk response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses?
ANSWER: Risk transference.
Risk transference is a risk response planning technique that is used to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the ownership of the response.
You are the project manager for an important, high-profile project in your matrix structure. The project team members must work with a new technology that most of the team does not have experience with. What should you do in this scenario?
ANSWER: Consult with the project team to determine what type of training is needed.
When the project team is lacking in competency, the project manager should ascertain the training to help the project team complete the project duties.
You are the project manager of a small project that is in the Closing phase. Which of the following is created as part of the closing phase?
ANSWER: Post-project review.
A post-project review is created as part of the closing phase. The primary purpose of the post-project review is to collect and document the lessons learned. This review covers all aspects of the project and includes both the negative and the positive of each phase.
What is the most important reason of performing individual project team performance appraisals?
ANSWER: It rewards superior performance and identifies inadequate performance.
An individual project team performance appraisal helps in identifying the positives and negatives of the various project teams. In the process of appraisal, the superior performance of a team is identified and hence rewarded. In this way, it can also be identified which team is performing inadequately. Rewards encourage the individual to do well in the future, whereas poor performances are marked out and guide the individuals to perform better.
A project closure report involves activities required to formally end the project. Which of the following is NOT included in a project closure report?
ANSWER: Earned value analysis.
The earned value analysis is included in cost estimation. It represents the value of the work completed up to a specified date compared to the budget.
During the execution of a project, the sponsor tells the project manager to cancel the project midway. Which of the following actions should the project manager take in such a situation?
ANSWER: Begin a full contract closure process.
The project manager should begin a full contract closure process when the sponsor tells him/her to cancel the project midway. This is because the full contract closure process gathers and centralizes project documents, performs a post-project review, and writes the final project closure report. It also completes and settles each contract, including the resolution of any open item, and closes each contract applicable to the project or project phase.
Your project sponsor has lost interest in the current project and has focused all their attention on a new project. The equipment originally intended for your project has been redistributed to other parts of the organization. What type of project ending does this describe?
Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of the organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by resources being cut off from the project. Extinction occurs when the project work is completed and is accepted by the stakeholders.
Which of the following are described as organizational governance considerations or processes that should be taken into account on the project?
ANSWER: Standards compliance.
Phase gate approval.
According to CompTIA, organizational governance components include standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase gate approval.
Why should you obtain formal sign-off when you conclude your project?
ANSWER: Sign-off allows the project manager to start a new assignment.
Sign-off acknowledges that the project team is no longer accountable for this product.
Sign-off is the trigger for releasing team members back to their functional organization.
Sign-off indicates that the project meets the documented requirements and the client has accepted the project deliverables.
A sign-off is the formal acceptance of the project. Team members are released according to the staffing management plan, but both the project manager and the project team members may continue to be involved in the project until all closure activities are complete.
Your department is responsible for performing system maintenance to the customer support servers. A new software package was implemented on these servers last year, and this is the first time maintenance is required. Which of the following are true?
ANSWER: This was handed off from a project and is now an ongoing operation.
This is not temporary in nature.
This does not create a unique product or service.
The work you are undertaking does not create a unique product or service. It is part of the ongoing operational maintenance.
This process should be performed whenever a project is canceled or ends prematurely.
ANSWER: Post-mortem analysis.
Post-mortem analysis should be performed for any project that is canceled or ends prematurely. Post project reviews are conducted at the end of a successful project. Lessons learned should be gathered for any project whether or not it ends prematurely. Project closeout procedures are also performed for all projects.
Which formula is used to calculate Cost Variance (CV)?
ANSWER: Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC).
Cost variance (CV) is a measure of cost performance of a project. The variance notifies if costs are higher than budgeted or lower than budgeted. The cost variance is calculated based on the following formula: CV=Earned Value (EV)-Actual Cost (AC).
You are the program manager for your organization. You have created a program that will create things for the organization throughout the program not only at program closure. All of the following are elements that you may transfer to the organization throughout the program's life cycle except for which one?
ANSWER: Program personnel.
Program personnel generally stay on the program for the duration of the program. The program's transition plan defines what will be transferred to the organization and when the transfer may happen.
You are a new Project Manager that has been entrusted with a software development project. As this is a very crucial project with multiple teams involved, you would like to make sure that the communication between the teams is maximized and is efficient. Which of the following will contribute most to that effect?
Co-location is the strategy of placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their abilities to perform as a team. This results in an enhanced communication between the team members.
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