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VTA 130 Review for Test 2 PIMA

Terms in this set (200)

1.000
the SG of distilled water
1.005
Indicates kidneys are able to dilute the urine
1.010
Indicates the urine is neither concentrated nor diluted by the kidneys
1.025
A minimal SG level expected in a dehydrated cow
1.030
The SG should be at or above this level if a dog is dehydrated
1.035
Indicated normal kidney function in a dehydrated cat
pH
May increase as a result of loss of carbon dioxide as urine stands
Protein
May appear in the urine as a consequence of glomerular disease
Glucose
May be false negative when the urine is exposed to formaldehyde
Ketones
May be present in urine in animals with starvation
Bilirubin
Male dogs may have small amounts in concentrated urine, but not cats
Blood
May change from positive to negative if the urine is centrifuged
A urine container must be tightly capped to prevent loss of protein
False. Ketones
Catheterization is the preferred way of obtaining urine samples for bacterial culture
False. Cystocentensis
Specific gravity is an indicator of the concentrating ability of the kidney
True
If the kidneys are healthy, urine will be diluted in a dehydrated patient or concentrated when the patient is overhydrated
False. Diluted: overhydrated Concentrated: dehydrated
The presence of urease-positive bacteria in urine can cause urine pH to decrease
False. Increase
Normal urine should not contain glucose
True
Interpretation of the significance of blood in the urine is affected by the method of collection
True
Transitional epithelial cells are larger than other cells seen in urine
False. Casts
Urinary casts form in the glomeruli of the kidneys
False, distal renal tubules
Urinary crystals may form in response to changes in the diet
True
Urine should be at _________ temperature when analyzed and should be examined within ________ hour of collection.
Room, one-half. (30 mins)
Collection of urine by ____ _____ may damaged or even rupture a fragile, diseased bladder.
Manual compression
A special urine collection technique for acquiring samples from bladder masses is ____ ____
Traumatic catheterization
Urine that is colored red or reddish-brown indicates the presence of _____, _____, or _____ in the urine
Red blood cells, hemoglobin, myoglobin
Uncentrifuged urine should be used for biochemical testing unless the urine is ____
Turbid
The protein pad on a reagent strip may be false- _______ when the urine is alkaline
postive
Glycosuria occurs when blood glucose levels exceeds the ____ ____
Renal thershold
The blood pad on a reagent strip is sometimes alternatively labeled ____
heme
When preparing urine samples for microscopic examination, ____ to ___ mL of urine should be centrifuged in a conical centrifuge tube at ____ to _____ rpm for ___ minutes. The supernatant should be removed by pipetting or decanting, until only ___ mL of supernatant is left with the pellet.
5 to 10 mL, 1500 to 2000 rpm, 5 mins, 0.5 mL
Squamous cells in urine sediment are _____ in shape and of no clinical significance
Polygonal
Ammonium biurate crystals may be observed in the urine of ____ (dog breed)
Dalmatians
Exposure of urine to UV light may cause deterioration of
Bilirubin
Urine samples least likely to be contaminated with squamous epithelial cells are those collected by
Cystocentesis
The presence of hematuria, hemoglobinuria, or myoglovinuria in the urine may cause it to be
reddish-brown in color
Normal urine should be clear in common domestic species of animals, except for
Horses
Reagent test pads that do not work in animals and so should not be used are the
leukocyte and specific gravity pads
The protein pad on a reagent strip is most sensitive to
Albumin
Squamous epithelial cells come from the
urethra, vagina, and prepuce
This type of cell may appear in clusters or rafts in a urine sample
Transitional cells
Urinary casts are normal in very low numbers (1 or fewer/LPF) are
Hyaline and granular
Crystal not expected in the urine of normal dogs and cats
Hippuric acid-like calcium oxalate monohydrate
Normal horses have which urinary crystals in their urine
calcium carbonate
Cells smaller than a WBC; may be smooth, biconcave disk shape
erythrocytes
Term used for presence of RBCs in urine
hematuria
Urine SG approaches glomerular filtrate
isosthenuria
Crystals referred to as triple phosphate crystals
Struvite
Type of water used to calibrate a refractometer
distilled
Protein found in muscle; urine is very dark brown in color
myoglobin
cells larger than RBCs and smaller then renal epithelial cells
Leukocytes
Instrument use to determine SG
Refractometer
Sterile collection of urine, can be used for culture and sensitivity
cystocentesis
pH above 7.0
alkaline
Formed in the lumen of the distal and collecting tubes of kidney
Casts
Presence of crystals in urine
crystalluria
stain used for observing cells in urine sediment
Sedistain
Physical properties of urine include color, odor, turbidity, SG, and ____
volume
______ bodies are formed during incomplete catabolism of fatty acids
ketone
Pigments that give color to urine are called
Urochromes
An increase in frequency of urination
Pollakiuria
_____ urine sample is best collected as the animal urinates
Voided/Free catch
_______ is a method of collecting urine for culture and sensitivity and can be used if a _______ cannot be performed
Catheterization, cystocentensis
occurs when the urine SG approaches that of glomerular filtrate (1.008-1.012)
Isostheruria
____ properties of urine include volume, color, odor, turbidity, and SG
Physical/ Gross
An increase in the total volume of urine produced is
polyuria
___ properties of urine are usually evaluated with the use of reagent strips or reagent tablets
Chemical
A _____ crystal is commonly seen in alkaline to slightly acidic urine, sometimes referred to as a triple phosphate crystal
Struvite
crystals are commonly seen in the urin of rabbits and horses
Calcium carbonate
The presence of calculi (stones) in the urinary tract is called
Urolithiasis
crystals are formed in acidic and neutral urine, commonly resemble the back of an envelope
Calcium oxalate
Are formed in the lumen of distal and collecting tubules of kidney, where the concentration and acidity of urine are greatest
casts
the three types of _____ cells found in urinary sediment are squamous, transitional, and renal
Epithelial
Parasite infections are not found in all species of animals
False, are found in all.
Human infection with Paragonimus kellicotti is a rare occurrence
True
The eggs of Paragonimus kellicotti usually exit the host in coughed up sputum
False, exit host in feces
Humans become infected with Schistosome cercarial dermatitis when the cercarial stage penetrates their skin
True
The intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum is the mosquito
False, intermediate host is flea
When dogs and cats are infected with Echinococcus granulosus or Echinococcus multiculari they are often asymptomatic
True
Humans are considered the definitive host for both Echinococcus granulosus and Echinococcus multiculari
False, intermediate host
Spirometra mansonoides eggs are usually voided in the external environment via gravid proglottids passed in feces
False
When the eggs of Toxocara canis are passed in feces, they are immediately infective
False, need to go through two larva stages
Puppies can be infected with Toxocara canis while nursing
True
If a dog ingests a paratenic host infected with Toxocara canis, somatic migration will take place in the dog
False, no migration
Baylisascaris procyonis usually causes clinical disease in dogs and cats
False, Raccoon only
Hookworms can be a cause of anemia in young puppies
True
Humans are typically infected with hookworms via ingestion of infective larvae
False, skin penetration
The eggs of Trichuris vulpis can survive in the environment for years
True
Intestinal threadworms are best diagnosed using fecal flotation
False, Baermann technique
Heartworm microfilariae that are circulating in a dog's peripheral blood will eventually mature to adult heartworm
False
Most species of mammals have their own variety of Sarcoptes scabei
True
Lesions associated with Cheyletiella are usually moist and inflamed in appearance
False, dry and scaly appearance
The parasite Demodex canis usually lives in the hair follicles of animals it infests
True
Chiggers typically burrow into the skin of infested hosts
False, never burrow
Giardia is capable of infecting many different species of animals, including humans
True
The feline is the only animal that can serve as the intermediate host for Toxoplasma gondii
False, definitive host
Toxoplasma gondii infection is typically diagnosed by fecal flotation
False, dx by clinical signs and positive serologic tests (ELISA)
A healthy host will usually be able to fight off a Cryptosporidium infection on its own
True
A good way for veterinary practice to save money is to reuse vials and filter used to perform fecal flotations
False
Once an infected dog produces a Paragonimus kellicotti egg, what must happen before the life cycle can advance?
The egg must come into contact with water
Paragonimus kellicotti is also known by the common name
Lung fluke
The life cycle of Paragonimus kellicotti utilizes ___ intermediate hosts
2
An accurate and economical way to diagnose a Paragonimus kellicotti infection is to perform a
Fecal flotation
The primary definitive host for Schistosome cercarial dermatitis is
Aquatic, migratory birds
if an owner is reporting his or her dog is dragging its anus across the floor on a frequent basis, this could be a sign of
Tapeworm infection
A client has just dropped off a fresh fecal sample on which you find several proglottids. Upon examining these proglottids under the microscope, you notice there is a pair of genital pores, which leads you to believe that these are ___ proglottids
Diplidium
One of the best ways to prevent Echinococcus granulosus infection in dogs is to
Prevent them from ingesting sheep viscera
The typical life cycle of Spirometra mansonoides utilizes ___ intermediate hosts
2
Typically, if a dog under 3 months of age ingests a Toxocara canis egg containing the second stage larva, the larva will go through
Tracheal migration
The best way to diagnose ascarid infections in dogs and cats is
Fecal flotation
Neurologic larval migrans is a condition that can occur when a paratenic host ingests the larval stage of
Baylisascaris procyonis
There are two main ways a dog can become infected with Ancylostoma caninum. One ways i ingestion of infective larvae and the other is
Skin penetration
Whipworm is the common name for
Trichuris vulpis
From the time a dog ingests a whipworm egg containing the second stage larva to the time that the larva is mature, egg-producing adult is
12 weeks
One of the unique aspects of intestinal threadworms is that
only the females are parasitic
In dogs and cats, adult heartworms are typically found in the
pulmonary arteries and right ventricle
The intermediate host that is utilized during the life cycle of Dirpfilaria immitis is the
mosquito
The extreme pruritus associated with a Sarcoptes scabei infestation is caused by the mite
Tunneling into the host's epidermis
With the Trombicula species, only____ stage of the life cycle is parasitic
Larval
For an animal or human to become infect with Cryptosporidium, a _____ must be ingested
Oocyst
Adult pentastomes are always associated with
respiratory tract
When asking a client to bring in a fecal sample from his or her dog, the client should be instructed to bring in approximately _____ of feces in to be examined
1 teaspoon
When using a microscope to examine fecal specimens, the ____ objective is the one that is most commonly used
10x
When a patient has an infection, it is best to start the patient on antibiotics right away to treat the infection, and then to collect a sample for culture and sensitivity
False. Take sample before tx
When collecting microbiologic samples from an abscess, the purulent material in the abscess (pus) is the best source of material for bacterial culture
False
Urine sample collected by free-catch typically have bacteria in them from the external genitalia and skin
True
The stain used specifically to identify Mycobacterium spp. is the acid-fast stain
True
Acid-fast organism stain dark blue, where as non-acid-fast organism and the background should stain pink.
False, acid fast: bright pink to red Background: green
Broth is typically used for initial isolation of organisms as opposed to solid agar
False, broth enriches
Plate media should be incubated overnight, right-side up at 35-37.5 degrees C
False, not right side up
When culturing a sample from a site like the GI tract, you should attempt to identify every organism
False, there is ingenious flora there
The catalase test is most commonly used to differentiate staphylocci from strepococci and enterococci.
True
Gram negative bacteria in the family Enterobacteriaceae are generally oxidase positive
False, oxidase negative.
The organism Listeria monocytogenes is the causative agent of strangles in horses
False
Mycobacterium spp. organisms are often challenging to culture because they sometimes take weeks to grow
True
The causative agent of Lyme disease is the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi
True
The yeast Cryptococcus neoformans is often present in samples from the respiratory and GI tract of birds
False
The pathogen in question (bacteria or virus) must be cultured and isolated before performing PCR testing
False
Which fungal agent is designated as "fungal select agent"
Blastomyces dermatitidis
When collecting samples that are at risk for clotting, which anticoagulants may be used because it will not interfere with bacterial culture
Polanethol sulonate
Which organism is a common cause of diarrhea
Campylobacter jejuni
Which sample may be frozen prior to bacterial culture
Milk
The stain used to identify Nocardia spp is
Kinyoun modififed Ziehl-Nielsen acid-fast stain
MacConkey agar is an example of
Selective and differential media
The two media most commonly used for initial inoculation and isolation of bacteria are
MacConkey and blood agar
Gram negative and gram positive organism are ___ and ____ in color, respectively
Pink and Purple
Coagulase-positive, gram-positive cocci are generally
Pathogenic Staphylococcus spp
In addition to salmonella, campylobacter, and clostridium, another causative agent of diarrhea isolated from fecal culture is
Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
When culturing urine, the colonies must be counted by performing a quantified culture. What other sample must be handled in this manner
Milk
Which organism is an agent of contagious mastitis in cattle
Streptococcus agalactia
Which organism is catalase-negative, gram positive cocci that in rare but serious cases cause necrotizing fasciitis
streptococcus spp
gram postive, plepmorphis rod Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the cause of ____ in sheep and goats
Caseous lymphadenitis
Pneumonia in foals is caused by the aerobic CAMP positive Gram positive rod
Rhodococcus equi
The partically acid-fast organism Nocardia spp appear on microscopic examination as
Rods with a 'beaded' appearance
An organism that is frequently isolated from fish and amphibians with infections is
Aeromonas spp
The colonies of which organism are often hemolytic on blood agar, secrete a green pigment into surrounding media and have a metallic appearnace
Pseudomonas spp
The reproductive pathogens Brucella spp are a group of small, oxidase-positive
Gram negative coccobacilli
Some important pathogens and GI-indigenous flora are gram-negative anaerobic rods. Which is not a gram neg anaerobic rod
Clostridium spp
Media that detects and discriminates between two organisms based on the results of a biochemical reaction
Differential
The antimicrobial _______ test is used to determine whether an antimicrobial agent will kill or inhibit growth of a particular organism
Susceptibility
A stain that distinguishes bacteria that have mycolic acid incorporated in their cell walls
acid fast
culture media used to enhance the growth of specific bacteria
enrichment
antibodies that recognize a single antigen
monoclonal
biochemical test used to differentiate Staphloccocus spp and Strptococcus spp
Catalase
The lowest concentration of antimicrobial required to slow bacterial growth
minimum inhibitory
Stain used to differentiate bacteria based on the composition of their cell wall
gram
Another name for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test
Disc diffusion
Medium that maintains bacteria in original concentrations without encouraging growth or causing death of the bacteria
Transport
Biochemical tests used to differentiate and identify gram negative bacteria
oxidase
Biochemical test used to differeniate pathogenic streptococcus spp and nonpathogenic strepococcus spp
coagulase
Blood agar plate
Media used for the primary isolation of organisms and for subculture of organisms
Indole test media
When this biochemical test is positive, a red color forms within seconds of the addition of the Kovac reagent
Hektoen enteric agar
For direct isolation of Salmonella spp from feces
Selenite or tetrathionate broth
Media used to enrich samples for the detection of Salmonella spp
Lysine iron agar slant
The results of this test is determined by observing for a purple or port-wine color in the slant and a purple color in the bu tt
Brucella blood agar plate
These plates provide a rich media for the culture of anaerobic organisms
Salt mannitol agar
Primarily used to differentiate species of Staphylococcus based on fermentation
Motility media
For determining whether an organism has and is able to use flagella
MacConkey agar plate
Primary isolation medium for selection of Gram-negative organisms
Christensen urea agar slant
A tube medium used to determine whether an organism produces urease
Citrate test media
When this biochemical test is positive, the media turns blue, whereas a negative reaction leaves the media green.
Triple sugar iron agar slant
For determining the ability of organisms to utilize glucose, sucrose, and lactose, and to produce hydrogen sulfide.
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
a cause of disease in swine, turkeys, and marine mammals, including diamond skin disease
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
the cause of caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
A Gram-positive rod that is an inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes of cattle and other ruminants.
Actinomyces spp.
A cause of bony lesions of the head and neck of ruminants
Rhodococcus equi
The cause of pneumonia in foals
Bacillus anthracis
The cause of anthrax. Classified as a select agent
Streptococcus spp.
A cause of the serious zoonosis, necrotizing fasciitis
Corynebacrium renale
Pleomorphic gram-positive rod. A cause of pyelonephritis in cattle
Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
Catalase-positive cocci that are normal inhabitants of the skin of dogs
Listeria monocytogenes
A cause of septicemia in neonatal animals, abortion, and encephalitis in ruminants
Escherichia coli
An oxidase-negative member of the family Enterobacteriaceae and a cause of opportunistic infections of the urine and wounds
Proteus spp.
An opportunistic urinary pathogen that swarms culture plates
Actinobacillis spp.
Typically grown on MacConkey agar. Often isolated from foals with septicemia or joint infections
Bordetella bronchiseptica
The causative agent of canine Tracheobronchitis
Pasteurella multocida
an oxidase-positive, short fat rod that causes a rapidly progressing cellutlitis in people who have been bitten by cats
Brucella abortus
A bacterial select agent that is a cause of abortion and reproductive failure in ruminants
Aeromonas spp.
a cause of infections in aquatic animals, including fish and amphibians
Salmonella spp.
An important cause of diarrhea and septicemia in a variety of animal species and commonly isolated from feces of reptiles and amphibians
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