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Stage II Exam
Terms in this set (150)
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
B.Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
B.Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
B.The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is
The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are
B.authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A.Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?
C.The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
C.4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from
B.1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
C.4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?
A.You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.
The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
C.is past the solid-line side of symbol G.
When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?
You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should you proceed?
Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
At what point on the airport diagram could a pilot expect to see this sign?
B.10 and 11.
You are holding short for an intersection departure on Runway 8 with the sign in front of you. Which way should you turn when taxiing onto the runway to depart Runway 8?
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
C.There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
A.being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.
B.The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
B.The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?
The commercial pilot operating as the pilot in command of an aircraft may accept or decline a land and hold short clearance (LAHSO)
What information should a pilot have available when encountering LAHSO?
B.Published available landing distance data for the expected destination.
You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?
C.Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.
An aircraft is on a stop 460 NM from base. It develops a mechanical problem. You get a technician to fix the problem. Who is responsible for the airworthiness of the aircraft?
B.Pilot in command.
When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?
B.A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flown
C.in air carrier operations.
When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?
B.Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
C.be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
Required flight crewmembers' seatbelts must be fastened
B.while the crewmembers are at their stations.
You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should
A.explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are
A.not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
C.not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
B.at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
A.The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by air traffic control, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which an aircraft may be flown in a satellite airport traffic pattern located within Class B airspace?
When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is
The maximum indicated airspeed permitted when operating an aircraft within 4 NM of the primary airport in Class D airspace is
According to 14 CFR Part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing?
C.An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when
C.there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action.
You have received a VFR clearance to enter the San Francisco Class B airspace at 8,500 ft. What are the VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements in the Class B airspace?
A.3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
According to 14 CFR Part 91, what is the appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above 3,000 ft. AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 090°?
For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.
B.Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
B.ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding
On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
A.aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when
A.receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when
B.experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,
B.beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight
In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of
C.12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above
A.10,000 feet MSL.
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?
B.48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage
C.which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.
Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?
How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
C.only if requested to do so.
Who is responsible for filing a Near Midair Collision (NMAC) Report?
C.Pilot and/or flight crew of aircraft involved in the incident.
14 CFR 91.17 requires that blood alcohol level be less than
C.0.04% when piloting an aircraft.
While experiencing a hangover, a pilot
A.will have impaired motor and mental responses.
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as
To cope with spatial disorientation, pilots should rely on
C.proficient use of the aircraft instruments.
The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a
A.lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short.
Which is not a type of hypoxia?
Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?
A.Promptly descend to a lower altitude.
As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience
C.symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.
Which of the following statements concerning the combination of alcohol and altitude is true?
B.Altitude multiplies the effects of alcohol.
Which of the following flight conditions would indicate a pilot is experiencing spatial disorientation?
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
A.Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
C.All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include
C.Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves.
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot
C.identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves
A.taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?
A.What is the worst that could happen?
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
C.redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
To help manage flight deck stress, pilots must
B.condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:
A.Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
Why is it important for pilots to obtain adequate rest and sleep?
A.Fatigue may set in and be recognized only after serious errors are made.
The most important key to risk management is
B.management of external pressures.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of
A.a heat exchange.
Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
A.Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
What causes wind?
While flying cross-country in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you
A.are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.
The strength and location of the jet stream is normally
A.weaker and farther north in the summer.
The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by
B.long streaks of cirrus clouds.
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
An increase in temperature with an altitude increase
A.is indication of an inversion.
Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
C.Towering cumulus clouds.
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
B.very strong turbulence.
The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by
C.cloud types and the type of precipitation.
What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds?
C.Surface winds of approximately 15 knots or stronger.
What are the characteristics of stable air?
B.Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.
Which would increase the stability of an air mass?
B.Cooling from below.
Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation?
A.Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward.
The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with
Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
B.The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.
Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of
C.more than 32°F into air having a temperature of 32°F or less.
If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least
You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles from the cell however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?
B.Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.
When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that should be reported as
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered
C.in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.
The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be obtained from the
What is the thickness of the cloud layer given a field elevation of 1,500 feet MSL with tops of the overcast at 7,000 feet MSL?
METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC010 13/11 A2998
What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI?
SPECI KBOI 091854Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12
B.Rain and mist obstructing visibility; rain began at 1812Z.
On a Surface Analysis Chart, the solid lines that depict sea level pressure patterns are called
On a Surface Analysis Chart, close spacing of the isobars indicates
B.strong pressure gradient.
What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)?
B.Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time?
A.Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24-hour period.
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous
A.to all aircraft.
What conditions should you expect when landing at an airport in area 3?
C.Instrument meteorological conditions.
Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?
C.12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
C.Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
C.Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.
(Refer to Area 6.) What is the purpose of the star that follows the CT-120.65 in the information box for the Sacramento Mather (MHR) Airport?
A.That the control tower has limited hours of operation.
(Refer to point 7.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is
C.both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
You are planning a VFR west bound flight departing the FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport and you will be passing through the active Lemoore C and A MOAs. What action should you take?
A.Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA.
(Refer to area 2.) While en route over Fresno Chandler Executive airport (FCH), your airborne radar shows unforecast thunderstorms 20 mi. ahead. Who should you contact for more information about the weather along your route of flight?
A.Flight Service Station (FSS) on 122.55.
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the significance of R-2531? This is a restricted area
C.where often invisible hazards exist.
When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of
C.Class D airspace.
Refer to Air Park Dallas (N33°01.41' W96°50.22'). Is fuel ever available at Air Park Dallas?
C.Yes, fuel services can be arranged by calling the listed phone number prior to arrival.
En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to CARBY intersection, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is
En route on V448 from FEBUS to ANGOO, the minimum altitude crossing YKM is
If fuel consumption is 80 pounds per hour and groundspeed is 180 knots, how much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 477 NM?
True course 105°
True heading 085°
True airspeed 95 kts
Groundspeed 87 kts
Determine the wind direction and speed.
A.020° and 32 knots.
An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions:
Airport elevation 1,500 ft
Cruise altitude 9,500 ft
Rate of climb 500 ft/min
Average true airspeed 160 kts
True course 145°
Average wind velocity 080° at 15 kts
Variation 5° E
Average fuel consumption 14 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the climb.
B.16 minutes, 132°, 41 NM, 3.7 gallons.
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
B.Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately
Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?
A.Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.
To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to
C.035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
Which statement is true regarding illustration 2, if the present heading is maintained? The aircraft will
A.cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound.
Which illustration indicates that the airplane should be turned 150° left to intercept the 360 radial at a 60° angle inbound?
Why should pilots understand how to cancel entries made on a GPS?
B.Because heavy workloads and turbulence can increase data entry errors.
What procedure could a pilot use to navigate under VFR from one point to another when ground references are not visible?
While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned
C.opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.
A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
B.direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
When conducting a go-around, the pilot must be aware that
B.the airplane is trimmed for a power-off condition, and application of takeoff power will cause the nose to rise rapidly.
For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the
B.rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes.
When operating VFR at night, what is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions?
B.A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground.
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include
B.planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a
A.systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.
The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the "right stuff" can have an adverse effect on safety, by
B.generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
B.Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for antiauthority?
C.Follow the rules. They are usually right.
One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
A.below rotor clouds.
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