BOC: 4 - Autoantibody Evaluation
1. Antinuclear antibody tests are performed to help diagnose:
4. Sera to be tested for IF-ANA days after drawing is best stored at:
5 degrees Celsius + or - 2 degrees Celsius.
5. Antibodies directed at native DNA are most frequently associated with which pattern of fluorescence in the IFA-ANA test?
6. The technologist observes apparent homogenous staining of the nucleus of interphase cells while performing an IFA-ANA, as well as staining of the chromosomes in mitotic cells. This result is:
Expected for anti-DNA antibodies.
7. The result of an anti-nuclear antibody test was a tiger of 1:320 with a peripheral pattern. Which of the following sets of results best correlate with these results?
Anti-dsDNA titer 1:80, and a high titer of antibodies to Sm.
8. Systemic lupus erythematosus patients often have which of the following test results?
High titers of DNA antibody.
16. To make a presumptive diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following qualitative methods is most sensitive?
17. Rheumatoid factor reacts with:
Gamma globulin-coated particles.
18. A consistently and repeatedly negative IFA-ANA is :
Strong evidence against untreated SLE
19. Positive rheumatoid factor is generally associated with:
21. Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins with specificity for allotypic determinants located on the:
Fc fragment of IgG.
22. Rheumatoid factor in a patient's serum may cause a false:
Positive test for the detection of IgM class antibodies.
23. Rheumatoid factors are defined as:
Autoantibodies with specificity for the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin (IgG) molecule
27. High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are most often found in:
29. In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which antibodies are seen?
31. Anti-RNA antibodies are often present in individuals having an anti-nuclear antibody immunofluorescent patter that is:
32. Anti-excitable nuclear antigens are most likely associated with which of the following anti-nuclear ntibody immunofluorescent patterns:
33. In an anti-nuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescent test, a sample of a patient serum shows a positive, speckled pattern. Which would be the most appropriate addition test to perform?
Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies.
41. In the indirect immunofluorescence method of antibody detection in patient serum, the labeled antibody is:
Goat anti-human immunoglobulin.
42. Which of the following describes an antigen-antibody reaction?
The reaction is reversible.
43. The most common label in direct fluorescent antibody technique (DFA) is:
44. A substrate is first exposed to a patient's serum, then after washing, anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is added. The procedure described is:
45. Avidity may be defined as:
Strength of a reacting antibody.
46. The interpretation of agglutination tests for febrile diseases, which of the following is of the greatest diagnostic importance:
Rise in titer of the patient's serum.
47. Cholesterol is added to the antigen used in flocculation tests for syphilis to:
Increase sensitivity of the antigen.
48. The strength of a visible reaction is known as:
49. Which of the following describes an antigen-antibody precipitation reaction of non-identity.
Precipitin line cross, forming double spurs.
50. Which test has the greatest sensitivity for antigen detection?
51. Excess antigen in precipitation gel reactions will:
Dissolve the precipitate after formation.
52. Soluble immune complexes are formed under the condition of:
53. The visible serological reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is:
64. The enzyme control tube in an ASO hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the most likely explanation for this:
Oxidation of the enzyme.
66. In a positive anti-streptolysin "O" enzyme inhibition test, the patient's:
Anti-steptolysin "O" inhibits the reagent streptolysin "O"'s, resulting in no hemolysis.
65. The following pattern of agglutination was observed in an antibody titration:
Tube 1: 1+ Tube 2: 2+ Tube 3: 4+ Tube 4: 4+ Tube 5: 3+ Tube 6: 3+
Tube 7: 2+ Tube 8: 1+ Tube 9: 1 +
Tube: 10 0 Tube 11: 0