Upgrade to remove ads
Only $35.99/year

Pathophysiology Test 4

Terms in this set (48)

Which patient with a fracture will the nurse prioritize?

a) A patient who is complaining of pain of 6 on a scale of 1 to 10
b) A patient who complains of numbness in their extremity
c) A patient whose affected extremity is red
d) A patient who complains of being cold
b. a patient who complains of numbness in their extremity.
Which of the following is a key feature of Paget's disease?

a) Progressive muscle weakness
b) Low body weight, thin build
c) Enlarged thick bones
d) Osteomyelitis
c. enlarged thick bones
A nurse witnesses a patient fall and suspects that the patient's leg may be fractured. Which of the following actions takes priority?

a) Call the healthcare provider immediately
b) Immobilize the leg before moving
c) Administer morphine for pain
d) Have patient move leg to assess for crepitus
b. immobilize the leg before moving
Ankylosing spondylitis can best be described as:

a) a forward rounding of the thoracic spine.
b) a type of arthritis that causes the spine to stiffen and possibly fuse.
c) a musculoskeletal disorder that is caused by the bite of a deer tick.
d) an inflammatory disorder that causes uric acid crystals to form in a joint.
b. a type of arthritis that causes the spine to stiffen and possibly fuse
Which of the following patients would be most at risk for scoliosis?

a) 16-year-old male
b) 80-year-old male
c) 13-year-old female
d) 70-year-old female
c. 13 year-old-female
The nurse is teaching the patient about the difference between rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and osteoarthritis (OA). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

a) "RA is inflammatory. OA is degenerative."
b) "The risk factors or causes of RA are probably autoimmune, whereas OA may be caused by age, obesity, trauma, or occupation."
c) "The typical onset of RA is between 35 and 45 years of age, whereas the typical onset of OA is in patients older than 60 years."
d) "The disease pattern of RA is usually unilateral and in a single joint, whereas OA is usually bilateral, symmetric, and in multiple joints."
d. "The disease pattern of RA is usually unilateral and in a single joint, whereas OA is usually bilateral, symmetric, and in multiple joints."
What is the distinguishing feature of fibromyalgia?

a) Localized areas of constant pain
b) Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
c) Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
d) Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
c. specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
The clinic nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with fibromyalgia. When developing a care plan for this patient, what would be a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

a) Impaired skin integrity
b) Altered nutrition
c) Disturbed sleep pattern
d) Fatigue
d. fatigue
The nurse is working with a patient who will be taking 20 mg of prednisone (corticosteroid) daily for rheumatoid arthritis. Which precautions will the nurse give the patient about taking this medication?

a) "Take this medication at bedtime because it will make you sleepy."
b) "Stay away from crowds or anyone who is sick."
c) "Eat a high-fiber diet with lots of lean meats."
d) "Wash your face twice a day with an antibacterial soap."
b. stay away from crowds or anyone who is sick
Which laboratory finding leads the nurse to suspect that the patient has rheumatoid arthritis rather than osteoarthritis?

a) Serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL
b) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
c) Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
d) ANA (antinuclear antibody) positive
d. ANA (Antinuclear antibody) positive
What will the nurse use to prevent the spread of disease while caring for a patient with secondary-stage syphilis?

a) No precautions in addition to standard precautions are necessary.
b) Gloves should be worn whenever direct contact with the patient's skin is required.
c) Hand washing is required before and after contact with the patient.
d) A mask should be worn by anyone entering the patient's room.
Next
b. Gloves should be worn whenever direct contact with the patient's skin is required.
The nurse working in the hospital emergency department is assigned to care for these four patients. Which patient will the nurse attend to first?

a) A 20-year-old with a swollen, painful scrotum who has a history of a recent mumps infection
b) A 55-year-old with a chancre on his genitals
c) A 65-year-old with a history of prostate cancer a and palpable bladder distention
d) A 19-year-old who has had an erection for "10 or 11 hours" and is complaining of severe pain
D. A 19-year-old who has had an erection for "10 or 11 hours" and is complaining of severe pain
Which statement made by the patient who has recently had a mammogram indicates a need for clarification regarding the importance or purpose of this procedure?

a) "Now that I have had a mammogram, my risk for getting breast cancer is reduced."
b) "I will still do a breast self-examination monthly."
c) "Yearly mammograms can reduce my risk of dying from breast cancer."
d) "The amount of radiation exposure from a mammogram is very low."
a. "Now that I have had a mammogram, my risk for getting breast cancer is reduced."
The nurse is conducting a teaching plan for the patient with gonorrhea. Which statement does the nurse include?

a) "You are only infectious if the lesions are draining."
b) "You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms."
c) "You will require close follow-up because treatment failure is common."
d) "You are restricted from engaging in sexual activity until your blood tests are negative."
b. "You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms."
Which patient is most likely to have erectile dysfunction?
a) Middle-aged man who first had sexual intercourse at age 15
b) Middle-aged man who has had diabetes mellitus for 25 years
c) Young man who had a myocardial infarction 2 years ago
d) Young man who is the president of a corporation with large debt
b. Middle-aged man who has had diabetes mellitus for 25 years
The reason that antibiotic therapy predisposes women to vulvovaginal candidiasis is that it:
a) produces a decrease in immune function.
b) suppresses the normal protective flora.
c) decreases the pH of vaginal secretions.
d) increases vaginal glycogen stores.
b) suppresses the normal protective flora.
Which one of the following cancers of the female genitourinary tract is the most easily detected and cured?
a) Cancer of the vulva
b) Cancer of the cervix
c) Cancer of the ovary
d) Cancer of the endometrium
b. Cancer of the cervix
What medical condition is the most common cause of low sperm counts and decreased sperm quality because of testicular ischemia?
a) Hydrocele
b) Cystocele
c) Varicocele
d) Spermatocele
c. Varicocele
The patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) from gonorrhea asks how this can cause sterility. Which is the nurse's response?

a) "The infection damages the ovary so that less estrogen is secreted and ovulation is not possible."
b) "The infection remains in your body and can infect your baby, so it is best if you don't become pregnant."
c) "If the infection is present in the fallopian tubes, it can cause enough scarring to block the tubes permanently."
d) "The infection causes such damage to the cervix that it cannot contain a pregnancy inside the uterus for more than 3 months."
c. "If the infection is present in the fallopian tubes, it can cause enough scarring to block the tubes permanently."
Which term describes a cystic mass, usually filled with straw-colored fluid, that forms around the testis?
a) Cystocele
b) Hydrocele
c) Varicocele
d) Rectocele
b. Hyodrocele
For which patient would the nurse prioritize care?
a) Patient with scabies
b) Patient with folliculitis
c) Patient with furuncles
d) Patient with hemangiomas
a. "Patient with scabies"
Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the family members of the patient with herpes zoster?

a) "Have you ever had measles?"
b) "Have you ever had mumps?"
c) "Have you ever had chickenpox?"
d) "Were you vaccinated against polio?"
c. "Have you ever had chickenpox?"
An older patient expresses concern that he is developing age spots. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to the patient?

a) "Limit the time you spend in the sun."
b) "Monitor for signs of infection."
c) "Monitor spots for color change."
d) "Use skin creams to prevent drying."
c. "Monitor spots for color change"
Which statement by a patient with psoriasis indicates a need for further teaching?

a) "At the next family reunion, I'm going to ask if any of my relatives have psoriasis."
b) "I have to make sure I have this covered so I do not spread it to others."
c) "I expect that these patches will get smaller when I lay out in the sun."
d) "I should continue to use the cortisone ointment as the patches shrink and dry out."
b. "I have to make sure I have this covered so I do not spread it to others"
Which statement made by the patient indicates correct knowledge about the causes and treatments of common warts?

a) "Washing my hands more frequently will prevent the warts from coming back."
b) "I will have to be careful because warts increase the risk for skin cancer."
c) "Surgical removal of the warts is the best treatment."
d) "Because warts are caused by a virus, they can occur anywhere on my body."
d. "Because warts are causes by a virus, they can occur anywhere on my body"
A young male patient presents to the emergency department with suspected necrotizing fasciitis of the right arm. The nurse reading the culture report would expect which of the following organisms to be present?

a) Group A, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Herpes simplex virus type 1
d) Escherichia coli
a. Group A, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
A patient has numerous skin lesions. Which one will the nurse evaluate first?

a) Raised, tubular, white, snakelike areas on the inner aspects of the wrists
b) Irregular blue mole with white specks on the lower leg
c) Beige freckles on the backs of both hands
d) Large cluster of pustules in the right axilla
b. irregular blue mole with white specks on the lower leg
What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
a) Papule
b) Pustule
c) Vesicle
d) Vacule
c. Vesicle
A nursing instructor has just completed a lecture to nursing students regarding care of the patient with a burn injury, and a major aspect of the lecture was care of the patient at the scene of a fire. Which statement indicates a need for further instruction?

a) "Flames should be doused with water."
b) "Flames may be extinguished by rolling the patient on the ground."
c) "Flames may be smothered by the use of a blanket or another cover."
d) "The patient should be maintained in a standing position because the flames may spread to the other parts of the body."
d) "The patient should be maintained in a standing position because the flames may spread to the other parts of the body."
In preparation for a patient being admitted with herpes zoster, what will the nurse do? (Select all that apply.)

a) Prepare a room for reverse isolation
b) Inventory the staff for a history of or vaccination for varicella
c) Check the admission orders for analgesia
d) Choose a roommate who also is immunosuppressed
e) Ensure that there are gloves in the room
b) Inventory the staff for a history of or vaccination for varicella

c) Check the admission orders for analgesia

e) Ensure that there are gloves in the room
A client with osteoporosis asks the nurse why it is important to take vitamin D. Which response by the nurse is correct?

a. Vitamin D improves the absorption of calcium
b. Vitamin D minimizes the risk of kidney stones
c. Vitamin D helps prevent constipation from increased calcium intake
d. Vitamin D reduces excretion of calcium in the kidneys
a. Vitamin D improves the absorption of calcium
A nurse is caring for a client who has suffered a fracture to the humerus after falling on their outstretched arm. The ends of the bone were driven into each other during the fall. This type of fracture is best described as which of the following?
a. Greenstick fracture
b. Impacted fracture
c. Comminuted fracture
d. Oblique fracture
b. Impacted fracture
A client was in a motor vehicle accident in which he suffered a traumatic fracture in his lower leg. The nurse knows that the client is at risk for a fat embolism. What are signs and symptoms for the nurse to look for that indicate fat embolism syndrome (FES)? Select all that apply.

a. Respiratory distress
b. Tachycardia
c. Renal dysfunction
d. Low body temperature
e. Upper body petechiae
a. Respiratory distress
b. Tachycardia
c. Renal dysfunction
e. Upper body petechiae
A nurse is educating a client about osteoarthritis and how best to manage the condition at home. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates that more teaching is necessary?

a. I can sit at my computer and perform my data entry job like I usually do.
b. I am going to quit smoking because it will help with my disease
c. I play football, but I am going to switch to walking instead
d. I'm going to work on losing weight
c. I play football, but I am going to switch to walking instead
The nurse is caring for a client with a new left leg cast. The client reports increased pain to the affected leg. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions for the nurse to implement while caring for this client? Select all that apply.

A. Administer Morphine 2 mg every 4 hours PRN
B. Encourage the client to increase ambulation
C. Apply ice to the client's left leg for one hour
D. Perform neurovascular checks every 4 hours
E. Elevate the client's left leg on two pillows
A. Administer Morphine 2 mg every 4 hours PRN
D. Perform neurovascular checks every 4 hours
E. Elevate the client's left leg on two pillows
A nurse is examining a client with an obvious deformity of the forearm. Which of the following should the nursing include in the focused assessment? Select all that apply.

A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
B. Skin is pink, warm, dry
C. Alert and oriented x4
D. Positive radial pulses
E. Breath sounds clear
A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
B. Skin is pink, warm, dry
D. Positive radial pulses
The nurse receives a client in the emergency room with an obvious deformity of the left leg. What is the first thing the nurse should do? (Select all that apply)

A. Ask the client to wiggle their toes.
B. Check a capillary refill
C. Check a pedal pulse
A. Ask the client to wiggle their toes.
C. Check a pedal pulse
True or False: Basal and squamous cell carcinoma are both considered nonmelanoma types of skin cancer.*
a. True
b. False
a. True
Which statement is true regarding the pathophysiology of melanoma?

A. "Melanoma develops when keratinocytes mutate in the stratum germinativum."
B. "Melanoma of the skin originates from melanocytes found in the stratum basale."
C. "Melanoma only occurs on the skin and is the most aggressive type of skin cancer."
D. Melanoma arises from the squamous cells in the stratum spinosum."
B. "Melanoma of the skin originates from melanocytes found in the stratum basale."
You're providing teaching to a patient diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma on the face. In your teaching, you are providing education on how this type of skin cancer develops. What information will you include in your patient education?

A. "Squamous cell skin cancer develops in the stratum spinosum layer of the epidermis and occurs due to mutated keratinocytes."
B. "Squamous cell skin cancer develops in the stratum corneum layer of the epidermis and occurs due to mutated basal cells."
C. "Squamous cell skin cancer develops in the stratum basale layer of the epidermis and occurs due to mutated melanocytes."
D. Squamous cell skin cancer develops in the stratum granulosum layer of the epidermis and occurs due to mutated squamous cells."
A. "Squamous cell skin cancer develops in the stratum spinosum layer of the epidermis and occurs due to mutated keratinocytes."
You're providing an in-service on skin cancer prevention to a local group of parents and grandparents. One topic you discuss is the identification of melanoma. Select all the characteristics of this type of skin cancer you will educate the participants about: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

A. Diameter of 8 mm or higher
B. Red, purple, and black color
C. Dissimilar borders
D. Uniform appearance
E. Increase in size, shape, color
B. Red, purple, and black color
C. Dissimilar borders
E. Increase in size, shape, color
Identify the patients below who are at a HIGH risk for developing skin cancer. (Select all that apply)**

A. A 22-year-old female who reports using a tanning bed three times per week.
B. A 55-year-old male with dark skin that reports always wearing sunscreen while outdoors.
C. A 35-year-old female with light-colored skin and eyes that reports frequent sunburns as a child.
D. A 29-year-old who reports a family history of melanoma.
A. A 22-year-old female who reports using a tanning bed three times per week.
C. A 35-year-old female with light-colored skin and eyes that reports frequent sunburns as a child.
D. A 29-year-old who reports a family history of melanoma.
You're assessing a patient's understanding about how to prevent skin cancer. Select all the statements that demonstrate the patient understood the education provided to them: (select all that apply)

A. "I will try to avoid direct sun exposure at 11 am-5pm when the sunrays are the strongest."
B. "I will use a broad-spectrum sunscreen that has an SPF of 15 or higher."
C. "I will limit my tanning bed usage to two times per week."
D. "It is very important I wear a hat, sunglasses, and long-sleeves to avoid too much sun exposure."
B. "I will use a broad-spectrum sunscreen that has an SPF of 15 or higher."
D. "It is very important I wear a hat, sunglasses, and long-sleeves to avoid too much sun exposure."
patient has an electrodessication and curettage (EDC) performed to remove a skin cancer lesion. How will the nurse educate the patient on how to care for the surgical site?

A. Apply dry, sterile gauze with a nonstick bandage.
B. Apply a saline sterile gauze with a bandage.
C. Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a nonstick bandage.
D. Allow the site to stay open to air.
C. Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a nonstick bandage.
What is the acronym ABCDE stand for to remember melanoma?
A - asymmetrical
B - borders uneven (dissimilar)
C - color dark or multiple colors
D - diameters greater than 6 mm (NOT 8)
E - evolution (lesion increases in size, shape, color)
Teaching for the patient with endometriosis should include the signs and symptoms of common complications which include:
a. ovarian cancer
b. endometrial cancer
c. infertility
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
c. infertility
Which if most commonly responsible for PID?
a. Streptococcus
b. Hemophilus Influenza Type B
c. Herpes virus
d. Gonorrhea
d. Gonorrhea
Which of the following is common effect of type 1 hypersensitivity response to ingested substance?
a. urticaria
b. contact dermatitis
c. systemic lupus erythema
d. psoriasis
a. urticaria
Students also viewed