Scheduled maintenance: Thursday, January 26 from 6PM to 7PM PST
Upgrade to remove ads
Only $35.99/year

Pharmacology Final Exam Review (from quiz)

Terms in this set (40)

Hydroxychloroquine has what specific effects?
A.
anticonvulsant
B.
antiinflammatory
C.
antiemetic
D.
antipyretic
B
How long before visiting an endemic area should a patient take hydroxychloroquine for malaria?
A.
24 hours
B.
48 hours
C.
1 to 2 weeks
D.
3 to 4 weeks
C
Which drug can counteract toxicity to heart from hyperkalemia?
A.
calcium chloride
B.
insulin
C.
glucose
D.
sodium bicarbonate
A
This is an adverse effect for atropine.
A.
photophobia
B.
excess salivation
C.
bradycardia
D.
hypothermia
A
Anthelminthic drugs are not prescribed for what parasite?
A.
pinworms
B.
flatworms
C.
earthworms
D.
roundworms
C
What condition can be treated with alpha-2 adrenergic agonists?
A.
hypertension
B.
asthma
C.
hypotension
D.
cardiac arrest
A
What neurotransmitter is acted upon by cholinergic agonists?
A.
dopamine
B.
acetylcholine
C.
serotonin
D.
epinephrine
B
Which drug can ↓ oral contraceptive effects?
A.
rifampin
B.
isoniazid
C.
pyrazinamide
D.
ethambutol
A
Quinine is more effective when given with what agent?
A.
penicillin
B.
vancomycin
C.
sulfasalazine
D.
tetracycline
D
What nursing action should be taken if neutrophil count < 1,000/mm3 for a patient on an ACE inhibitor?
A.
administer medication
B.
discontinue medication
C.
hold medication
D.
recheck CBC
C
Which drug causes dry mouth and a metallic taste as adverse effects?
A.
metronidazole
B.
paromomycin
C.
iodoquinol
D.
atovaquone
A
What drug treats severe Aspergillus infection in patients resistant to other drugs?
A.
tolnaftate
B.
griseofulvin
C.
nystatin
D.
caspofungin
D
What drug can cause malignant hyperthermia?
A.
lidocaine
B.
succinylcholine
C.
phenobarbital
D.
ramelteon
B
What is the normal range for INR?
A.
0.5 - 1.0
B.
1.0 - 1.5
C.
1.5 - 2.0
D.
2.0 - 3.5
D
What type of juice should be avoided when prescribed calcium channel blockers?
A.
grapefruit
B.
orange
C.
apple
D.
prune
A
Due to adverse effects of amphotericin B, the patient is pretreated with what agents?
A.
anticonvulsants
B.
bronchodilators
C.
antiemetics
D.
corticosteroids
C
Which of the following immunosuppressants can cause an allergy-like reaction known as cytokine release syndrome?
A.
azathioprine
B.
basiliximab
C.
cyclosporine
D.
muromonab-CD3
B, D
Example of a monoclonal antibody.
A.
aldesleukin
B.
methotrexate
C.
adalimumab
D.
alfa-2b
C
What drug is given at the same time as pyridoxine?
A.
pyrazinamide
B.
ethambutol
C.
rifampin
D.
isoniazid
D
When should a nurse hold metoprolol and contact the doctor?
Correct
Which drug can cause agranulocytosis?
A.
praziquantel
B.
mebendazole
C.
pyrantel
D.
albendazole
D
What drug category possibly displaces methotrexate from its protein-binding sites → toxicity if given at the same time?
A.
Penicillins
B.
Salicylates
C.
Antacids
D.
Laxatives
B
Which drug can cause peripheral neuropathy as an adverse effect?
A.
ethambutol
B.
pyrazinamide
C.
isoniazid
D.
rifampin
C
What adverse effect would require a nurse to withhold a drug for superficial fungal infections?
A.
rash
B.
contact dermatitis
C.
dry skin
D.
burning/stinging at application site
B
Which one of the following can cause a psychological dependence?
A.
opioids
B.
alcohol
C.
sedatives
D.
antianxiety drugs
D
Which one of the following can ↑ iron absorption?
A.
dairy products
B.
antacids
C.
orange juice
D.
calcium
C
Patients prescribed phenelzine must refrain from foods with __________?
A.
sodium
B.
tyramine
C.
tryptophan
D.
potassium
B
How long will a patient receive antitubercular drugs?
A.
1 month
B.
2 months
C.
4 months
D.
6 months
D
What laboratory work should the nurse monitor for a patient on antitubercular drugs?
A.
CBC
B.
LFT
C.
CMP
D.
PT/INR
B
Sumatriptan is not contraindicated for which condition?
A.
CAD
B.
PUD
C.
PVD
D.
CVD
B
What drug is used to treat oral candidiasis?
A.
nystatin
B.
caspofungin
C.
iodoquinol
D.
primaquine
A
Benzodiazepines bind to ____ receptors.
A.
GABA
B.
MAMA
C.
ABBA
D.
GAMA
A
What drug category can cause rhabdomyolysis?
A.
Statins
B.
Bile Acid Sequestrants
C.
Fibric Acid Agents
D.
Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors
A
What is the action of amphotericin B?
A.
bactericidal
B.
interrupts life cycle of Plasmodium
C.
inhibits ergosterol synthesis
D.
bacteriostatic
C
What drug is used for acute treatment of status epilepticus
A.
gabapentin
B.
carbamazepine
C.
diazepam
D.
phenytoin
C
An example of a potassium-sparing diuretic.
A.
hydrochlorothiazide
B.
spironolactone
C.
furosemide
D.
mannitol
B
Azoles can ↑ the effects of what drug(s)?
A.
oral anticoagulants
B.
oral contraceptives
C.
phenytoin
D.
digoxin
A
Ketoconazole can cause what serious adverse effect?
A.
hypoglycemia
B.
n/v
C.
hyperglycemia
D.
hepatotoxicity
D
What laboratory work should the nurse obtain for a patient on iodoquinol?
A.
liver function tests
B.
kidney function tests
C.
thyroid function studies
D.
complete blood counts
C
When the nurse observes a patient taking antitubercular drugs, it is called:
A.
POT
B.
GOT
C.
DOT
D.
HOT
C
Sets found in the same folder