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Microbiology- Chapt 1-21 HW Final

Terms in this set (340)

is protective
Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract ________.
Vaginal pH is neutral
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?
can be transmitted by animal bites
Leptospirosis has all of the following characteristics except ________.
The specific agent is easy to determine
Which of the following is not true of prostatitis?
a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry
All of the following pertain to gonorrhea except ________.
the formation of elementary bodies is not part of the life cycle
The following are characteristics of chlamydias except ________.
virus is only shed from active lesions
All of the following are true for HSV-2 except ________.
are not common in the United States
All of the following pertain to genital warts except ________.
Mixed biofilms are hard to kill
Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. Why?
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis?
in males the urethra acts as the terminal organ for both the urinary and reproductive systems, whereas in females, the urethra is separate from the vagina
The male urinary tract differs from the female tract in that ________.
the flushing action of urine; lysozyme
The urinary tract defenses in both males and females consists of mechanical factors such as ________, and chemicals like ________, to prevent the growth of pathogens in the system.
Vaginal pH is continually around 5 throughout the lifespan of the female to prevent the growth of pathogenic organisms.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the defense mechanisms of the female reproductive tract?
endogenous transfer from the gastrointestinal tract
Prostatitis is usually caused by bacteria that are transmitted by ________.
All of the choices are correct.
Colonization of pregnant females by Group B Streptococcus puts the neonate at risk because ________.
IgG
Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
Proteus mirabilis
Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?
can be contracted from the environment
Leptospirosis ________.
Candida albicans
...
False
The HPV vaccine prevents infection by a single pathogenic strain of HPV.
Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
All of the choices are correct.
Salmonelloses are ________.
It frequently involves septicemia
Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
produce urease and hydrogen sulfide
Shigella species have the following characteristics except ________.
only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except it ________.
All of the choices are correct.
Escherichia coli infections ________.
is caused by a shiga toxin
Campylobacter infection has all of the following characteristics except it ________.
is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it ________.
Produces "rice-water" stools
Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining
Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
Predisposes a person for liver cancer
Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?
eosinophilia does not occur
All of the following pertain to tapeworms except ________.
All of the choices are correct.
Trichinosis includes all the following except ________.
Worms can invade the brain
Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?
False
Only feces from humans that contaminate food and water can be involved in transmission of amoebiasis.
False
Most antihelminth medications act only against the worms, not the human host.
False
Research does not indicate a link between the numbers and types of bacteria causing periodontitis and thicker carotid arteries in an individual.
True
The gallbladder, while not strictly a component of the GI tract, is considered an accessory organ since it aids digestion by secreting necessary fluid and enzymes into the system.
False
Helicobacter pylori is an acidophile that causes stomach ulcers and cancer; because it is a pathogen it is not part of our stomach microbiome.
false
Cysticercosis is common in Latin America. The increasing population of Latinos in the United States has brought with it an increase in T. solium infection, so American physicians can now rapidly diagnose and treat all cases.
Both compete with pathogens for resources and space and microbial antagonism are correct.
What is the function of normal biota of the respiratory tract?
All of the choices are correct.
Superantigens ________.
Symptoms are very similar to the common cold.
Which of the following is not true of influenza?
All species are human pathogens.
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except ________.
All of the choices are correct.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is ________.
antigenic drift, antigenic shift
Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins called ________, or _________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain.
False
People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.
Complement activation - third line of defense
Which of the following pairs of defense mechanisms is mismatched?
False
Antigenic drift differs from antigenic shift in that antigenic drift reflects the exchange of RNA strands between different virus strains within a common host cell, whereas antigenic shift is the gradual mutation over time of the glycoproteins on the viral envelope that bind to immune cells.
False
Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis, while harder to treat because some antibiotics are ineffective, has a similar prognosis and recovery rate compared to nonresistant tuberculosis.
Treachea
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
IgA
Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?
None of the choices are correct.
Normal biota of the lower respiratory tract include ________.
endogenous
The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is ________.
an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart
Rheumatic fever is caused by ________.
Forms spores
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes?
the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"
Pertussis has the following characteristics except ________.
All of the choices are correct.
Tuberculin skin testing ________.
necrotic caseous
When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.
caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except ________.
Septicemic form - called black death
Bubonic form - buboes develop
Pneumonic form - sputum highly contagious
Disease control - control of rodent population
All of the choices are correct
Plague includes ________.
Early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck
Crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems
People having contact with wooded or forested areas.
Treatment with antimicrobials
All of the choices are correct
Lyme disease involves ________.
is more commonly found in adults
Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except it ________.
transmitted by mosquitoes
Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?
Rickettsia typhi—Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Which of the following is mismatched?
red blood cell lysis
The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by ________.
using bed nets sprayed with insecticide
eliminating standing water
taking prophylactic drugs
decreasing the mosquito population
All of the choices are correct.
Malaria may be prevented by ________.
a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity
Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except ________.
a zoonosis
transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion
a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia
only seen sporadically in the United States
All of the choices are correct.
Anthrax is ________.
have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they ________.
ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens
All of the following pertain to HIV except ________.
a close association with the lymphatic system which screens and filters the blood
While the cardiovascular system can be breached by microorganisms, mechanisms are in place to prevent infection. These include ________.
true
The lymphatic system is a major defense system in the body; it renders surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials through a system of lymphocytes, phagocytes, and antibodies.
false
Due to the efficiency of the lymphatic system and the inaccessibility to microbes, data from the Human Microbiome Project confirmed that the cardiovascular system lacks microbiota in the healthy state.
Malaria transmission is restricted to an area encompassing the equator, largely due to control of mosquito populations.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the epidemiology of malaria?
Malaria has been eradicated from the United States.
Which of the following statements is false concerning the epidemiology of malaria?
true
Of the 200 million new cases of malaria each year, 10% are in areas that roughly span the equator outside of the African continent.
All of the choices reflect characteristics that make B. anthracis a candidate for bioterrorism.
Bacillus anthracis exhibits characteristics that make it a model organism to be exploited as an agent of bioterrorism. Those characteristics include ________.
false
Anthrax is easy to diagnose and treat because the manifestations are localized to a single tissue and specific in nature.
causitive organisms are viruses
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
Average incubation in human is 1 week
Which is incorrect about rabies?
debridement
washing bite with soap or detergent
infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine
All of the choices are correct.
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes ________.
summer outbreaks in the United States have been increasing recently
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except ________.
inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk
The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is ________.
Clostridium tetani
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of ________.
Clostridium botulinum
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of ________.
Treatment involves antitoxin therapy
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
false
Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
false
The oral and inactivated polio vaccines are made from plant cell cultures.
false
Following vaccination, no cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented.
true
While the nervous system is believed to be free from microbiota in the healthy state, research has shown that the gut microbiome plays an important role in the development of the nervous system.
Blood-brain barrier
What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
close contact
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by ________.
penicillin G intravenously
Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of ________.
fastidious
Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except ________.
enterovirus
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is ________.
exposure in birth canal
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by ________.
Streptococcus agalactiae
The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ________.
virus
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a ________.
high ph
Protective features of the skin include all but ________.
catalase test
Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the ________.
resistant to penicillin derivatives
MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are ________.
causes gas gangrene
All of the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except ________.
in which fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur
Smallpox is a disease ________.
all of the choices are correct
Chickenpox ________.
All of the choices are correct
Varicella zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3) ________.
chickenpox
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with ________.
it is a very rare form of herpesvirus
Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except ________
it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash
All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except ________.
associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects
Rubella is ________.
Has a clear discharge
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
Caused by adenoviruses
Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?
the skin microbiome is much more varied than previously thought
The Human Microbiome Project revealed ________.
False
The parts of the eye that are the most susceptible to microbial infection are the sclera and the iris.
surface capillaries
The integument includes all of the following except ________.
Escherichia
What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"?
Coagulase
What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermidis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?
exfoliative toxin
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is ________.
measles (rubeola)
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ________.
culturing of the organism is not required
The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is ________.
determining the highest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction
A serum titer involves ________.
the patient has been exposed to tuberculosis
A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that ________.
the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies
Serological testing relies upon ________.
a known antigen
Antibody testing requires ________.
they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection
Precipitation tests involve all of the following except ________.
is a soluble molecule
In precipitation tests, the antigen ________.
All of the choices are correct.
The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because ________.
a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody
A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.
true
When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur.
false
Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity.
directly examine the organism's appearance or behavior, which includes its metabolic abilities, environmental preferences and drug susceptibilities
Phenotypic methods of identifying microorganisms in a patient sample are characterized as those that ________.
rely on the specificity of antibodies to target a single antigen
Immunologic methods of identifying microorganisms in a patient sample are characterized as those that ________.
true
If a phenotypic analysis requires culturing the organism before testing can begin, this is problematic for two reasons; i) rapid diagnosis may be critical and culturing can take up to 24 hours, and ii) a successful in vitro culturing method for a specific pathogen may not be feasible.
false
The value of whole genome sequencing is that it can separate larger strands of DNA by slowly applying alternating voltage levels from three different directions.
true
The CDC operates a national laboratory network called PulseNet, that compiles DNA fingerprinting data and connects foodborne illness cases so outbreaks can be detected rapidly.
All of the choices are benefits of "lab on a chip" technology.
The benefit of "lab on a chip" technology over standard microarrays is that ________.
false
The ability to miniaturize genetic testing on a chip much smaller than a microarray plate will see its greatest benefit in developed countries so the large corporations can process genetic data much more efficiently
MALDI-TOF
A protein fingerprint of a patient's blood sample can be created by adding the sample to a metal plate and striking it with a laser. This causes the sample to become ionized and the ions from the sample are guided into a machine that separates them and identifies them according to their mass-to-charge ratio. This process describes ________.
true
MRI, CT and PET scans are useful diagnostic tools in cases where infection is located in deep tissues, thereby saving the patient from an invasive biopsy.
type I, type II, and type III
The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is (are) ________.
Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
Which is mismatched?
Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time?
Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?
Both antibody mediated and immune complex mediated
Which type(s) of hypersensitivity is IgG involved with?
relative production of IgE is inherited
Allergies run in families because ________.
reverses constriction of airways
Epinephrine ________.
IgE
All of the following are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity except ________.
MHC genes
Human blood types involve all the following except ________.
is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
A female who is Rh- ________.
fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when ________.
Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
brain
Which of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition?
Graft versus host disease
What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?
both skin graft and organ transplantation
What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue?
autoantibodies and T cells
Autoimmunity is typically due to ________.
Hypogammaglobulinemia
What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity?
a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to _________.
true
During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.
true
A viral infection can cause type I diabetes mellitus.
activate B cells and other T cells
Helper T cells ________.
secrete antibodies
Plasma cells ________.
A set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins
The major histocompatibility complex is ________.
receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
Class II MHC genes code for ________.
red blood cells
MHC molecules are found on each of the following cells except ________.
Require antigen presented with MHC proteins
Which of the following is not a property of B cells?
classical
When an antibody is covering a foreign microorganism, complement may be activated via the _______ pathway.
true
Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.
true
Activation of B cells occurs when antigen binds to B-cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.
false
After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
true
One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes but the antibodies will all have the same specificity.
false
The third line of defense can be summarized in four stages; I—antigen binding to T helper cells, II—antigen binding to B cells, III—phagocytosis of antigen by B and T lymphocytes, IV—killing of antigen.
true
True/False The diversity and specificity of the lymphocyte repertoire against any potential antigen it may encounter is due to the rearrangement of gene segments that code for the antigen receptors.
the antigen is a molecule with a simple, repeating structure and evokes an immune response as a T-cell-independent antigen
In addition to dendritic cells and macrophages, B cells can also act as antigen-presenting cells. This occurs when ________.
All of the choices are true.
Gamma-delta T cells ________.
creates a physical barrier against pathogens
Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it ________.
markers
Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ________.
Monocytes
Which white blood cells comprise 3% to 7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
granulocytes
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _______ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.
macrophages
When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into ________.
macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
All the following are events of early inflammation except ________.
Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation?
Prostaglandins—activate eosinophils and B cells
Which of the following is mismatched?
phagocytosis
Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except ________.
increases the availability of iron
Each of the following are benefits of fever except it ________.
Phagocytosis
During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication?
true
During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection.
TNF-β; IL-10
Cytokines mediate a variety of processes in the immune system, for example, ________ encourages inflammatory responses and ________ suppresses the actions of immune cells.
The human microbiota competes with pathogens for space and nutrients limiting their ability to cause infection, and trains the immune system to recognize antigens.
The human microbiome is considered an important component of the first line of defense. Which statement adequately reflects its role as a defensive barrier?
they are not antigen-specific; they contribute to host defenses regardless of the source of activation
Inflammation, fever, phagocytosis, and antimicrobial molecules are considered innate because ________.
the patient's own normal biota.
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
Before birth in utero
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal biota
the birth process through the birth canal.
bottle feeding.
breast feeding.
contact with hospital staff.
All of the choices are correct.
Each of the following bring about inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except ________.
microbial antagonism.
The effect of "good" microbes against invading microbes is called _____.
adhering to the host
Which of the following is not an antiphagocytic factor?
False
The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection.
False
When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
False
Koch's postulates are easily satisfied for viral diseases.
False
While one person's microbiome differs when compared to another person, one individual's microbiome is uniform throughout the body; for example, the organisms on the left hand will be the same as the organisms on the right.
virulence
The virus that causes rabies, and the rhinovirus that causes the common cold are both considered true pathogens; the degree of pathogenicity is determined by their _____.
true
Virulence differs from pathogenicity in that pathogenicity describes the ability of an organism to cause disease, whereas virulence describes the degree of pathogenicity as the disease develops.
true
It is important to understand the extent and significance of polymicrobial infections, since treating an infection with a single antibiotic for an assumed causative organism may not adequately eliminate the infection.
True
The spread of influenza, which is particularly widespread during the winter months, is an example of a propagated epidemic.
pathogens penetrating host defenses.
The term infection refers to
skin
mouth
nasal passages
large intestine.
all choices are correct
Resident biota are found in/on the ________.
block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Penicillins and cephalosporins ______.
target the cell wall
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all _______.
Are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult
There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths _______.
inhibits DNA synthesis
An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that _______.
HIV
Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat _______.
removing the drug from the cell when it enters
The multidrug-resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by ______.
bacterial genomes undergo mutation rapidly.
bacterial genomes undergo mutation often.
short generation times accumulate mutations in populations. mutations are passed between organisms.
All of the choices are correct
Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because _______.
probiotics
The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore healthy vaginal biota is an example of ________.
smaller
If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a(n) _______ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.
true
Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with very few side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet.
true
Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug that it has never been exposed to.
true
Indwelling catheter biofilm infections are more resistant to antibiotics than nonbiofilm infections.
targets the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall
An example of an antibacterial drug with high selective toxicity would be one that _______.
True
Aminoglycosides demonstrate selective toxicity since they target the bacterial 30s subunit, leaving the host 40s subunit largely unaffected.
they prevent the synthesis of peptidoglycan which comprises the gram-positive cell wall
Naturally-produced penicillins are most effective against gram-positive bacteria because _______.
antisepsis
The betadine swab before blood donation is an example of _____.
antisepsis
The alcohol wipe before an injection is an example of _____.
x-rays
Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except _____.
pasteurization
Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, wine is optimally achieved by _____.
air
HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from ________.
found in iodophors
All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except ________.
Chlorine
_______ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large-scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.
chlorhexidine
The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for mucous membrane irrigation, obstetrical washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is _____.
dissolve membrane lipids at concentrations of greater than 50%
can be used for disinfection or antisepsis
are skin degerming agents
are limited in effectiveness due to rapid evaporation
All of the choices are correct
Alcohols ________.
iodine
All of the following disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane except ________.
glutaraldehyde
Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?
salting meat
Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method?
Autoclaving and ionizing radiation
Which pair of physical control methods will achieve complete sterilization?
false
Of the six methods of controlling growth by physical means; heat, cold, desiccation, radiation, filtration and osmotic pressure, the only method that is capable of complete sterilization is radiation.
time, point
Temperature and time must be considered when determining susceptibility of microbes to lethal conditions. At a specific temperature, the thermal death _____ can be determined, alternatively, the thermal death _____ can be assessed as the lowest temperature that will kill a test organism in 10 minutes.
are the expressed traits governed by the genes
Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?
DNA ligase
Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _____.
adds new bases and proofreads new DNA
DNA Polymerase III ________.
all of the choices are correct:
Is typically one strand of nucleotides
Has uracil
Has ribose
Does not have thymine
RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA ________.
occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm
All of the following pertain to transcription except ________.
they participate in both transcription and translation
The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except ________.
they include AUG
Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
Small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds
Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?
regulator
The gene that codes for a protein capable of repressing an operon is called the _____.
lactose present without glucose
Full induction of the lactose operon requires ________.
a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus (physical connection is made between two bacteria)
Bacterial conjugation involves ________.
is inactivated by binding lactose
The lactose repressor protein ________.
transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
specialized transduction
The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in ________.
generalized transduction.
A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of ________.
Catabolism
The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine, and peptides is an example of _____.
They increase the activation energy of a reaction to start
Each of the following is true of enzymes except ________.
low temperature
Each of the following are denaturing agents except ________.
coenzymes.
Most electron carriers are _____.
ADP
In the electron transport chain, the collective, captured energy released by electrons is used to phosphorylate _____.
It degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
Which of the following is not true regarding glycolysis?
Pyruvate accepts electrons from NADH
Which of the following is not involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
the Krebs cycle
In aerobic respiration, the majority of the reduced coenzyme NADH is produced in _____.
hydrogen ions
As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
electron transport
During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
six
How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?
Uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration
Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?
NAD+
The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for use in glycolysis.
glycolysis and Krebs cycle
The principal sites of amphibolic interaction occur during ________.
True
True or False
Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment.
gets energy from sunlight
The term photoautotroph refers to an organism that ________.
gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organism that ________.
chemoheterotrophy.
Aerobic respiration is an example of _____.
Endocytosis
Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
carrier protein in the membrane
Facilitated diffusion is limited by ________.
Psychrophiles
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except _____.
thioglycollate
What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
Mutualistic
The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K for the body to use would best be termed a _______ relationship.
generation time
The time interval going from a single bacterial parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the _____.
false
Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions.
false
Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.
true
Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement of molecules across the plasma membrane.
false
Binary fission results in four daughter cells from one parent cell.
true
A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
All of the choices reflect differences between biofilms and planktonic bacteria
Organisms in a biofilm differ from planktonic bacteria in that ________.
all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in the cells of bacteria?
Enzymes for photosyntesis
Mitochondria possess all of the following except ________.
cell wall
All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except ________.
In kingdom Protista
Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
true
The Last Common Ancestor gave rise to the cells in the three domains that we recognize today; bacteria archaea and eukaryotes.
false
Scientists believe that the modern eukaryotic cell evolved 3.5 billion years ago when a photosynthetic bacteria and an aerobic bacteria fused together.
All of these suggest that mitochondria evolved from prokaryotes.
Which of the following lines of evidence suggest that mitochondria evolved from the endosymbiosis of a pre-eukaryotic cell with a prokaryote?
Bacterial endospores are for survival but fungal spores are the main means of reproduction.
Fungal spores differ from bacterial endospores in that ________.
algae and protozoa
Protists include ________.
protozoa
Cell walls are not usually found in _____.
fungi
Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of _____.
Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus
Histones are ________.
endoplasmic reticulum
The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the _____.
All of the choices are correct.
The cytoskeleton ________.
True
Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
Perisplasmic Flagella (axial filaments)
Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called _____.
Are less susceptible to antibiotics that target peptidoglycan than gram-positive organisms.
Gram-negative bacteria
cell wall
If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ________.
flagella
A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has _____.
Mycobacterium
A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is _____.
Are often the site of pathogenic genes
plasmids
protection of genetic material during harsh conditions
The function of bacterial endospores is ________.
Escherichia coli
Which of the following species of bacteria is not closely related to the others?
False
T/F Each bacterial species represents a distinct organism that can produce viable offspring when mating with other bacteria of its kind.
Gram-negative cells have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan in their cell wall compared to gram-positive cells.
Which statement below supports the argument that gram-negative cells are structurally weaker than gram-positive cells?
False
The gram-positive cell wall is considered stronger than that of gram-negative cells since its hydrophobic outer membrane contains an endotoxin.
All of the statements are true regarding the indistinct defining of bacterial species.
The typical definition of a species is one with distinct characteristics that produce viable offspring when mated with another organism in the same species. Bacterial species cannot be defined as readily, due to the fact that
move in response to a chemical
Chemotaxis refers to the ability to ________.
cell walls
Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial _____.
protein synthesis would stop
The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be ________.
Escherichia coli producing human insulin
Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
Kingdom
Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
Species
The smallest and most significant taxon is
false
A scientific theory, like the theory of evolution, is just our best guess at explaining a scientific phenomenon, but a theory cannot be considered fact.
false
All microorganisms are considered pathogens.
true
Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms
Prostaglandins in inflammation
All of the following are polysaccharides except
fatty acids
What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails?
Contains thymine
Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
Nucleus
Which of the features listed below is not found in all cells?
true
Despite the lack of a membrane-bound nucleus, bacteria and archaea are cells with a complex organizational structure.
Plants and animals, protista, monera, fungi
Organisms were classified into kingdoms as they were defined. Which list reflects the order of discovery of the kingdoms as we know them today?
true
The most important outcome of polypeptide intrachain bonding and folding is the unique shape of the protein.
Robert Koch
Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?
must synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
A negative-sense RNA virus ________.
A nucleocapsid is formed and viral spikes insert in host cell membrane.
Which of the following occurs during assembly of an enveloped virus?
Decreased growth rate
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell?
infect Escherichia coli cells
T-even phages
B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is ________.
dependent on other viruses for replication
Satellite viruses are ________.
viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the host cell can be harmed by the drug
The development of antiviral drug therapy is difficult because ________.
False
A specific animal virus has the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell.
They are coded for by the host genome
Which of the following is not true regarding the structure and function of viral spikes?
false
Glycoprotein spikes are essential for mediating the release stage of the viral life cycle.
culture viruses in vivo and in vitro
Viral genetic studies, vaccine development and clinical identification would not be possible without the ability to ________.
false
An ideal antiviral drug would be one that killed the host cell, effectively preventing the virus from replicating.
Pasteur
Who developed a rabies vaccine by separating bacteria from virus using a filter?
viral dna from rna
Reverse transcriptase synthesizes ________.
Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
Lysogeny refers to ________.
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