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UPT Systems 1 (COMPLETE)
UPT Systems 1, SY101-112
Terms in this set (396)
The primary flight controls control aircraft movement around which axes?
The _________ controls movement around the lateral (pitch) axis.
The ________ controls movement around the longitudinal (roll) axis.
The _________ controls movement around the vertical (yaw) axis.
The _________ locks controls to prevent wind damage.
The ___________ lessen control forces required to maintain normal flight attitudes.
secondary flight controls
What are the four secondary flight controls?
Trim Aid Device (TAD)
Which secondary flight control gives more "jet-like" aircraft performance to ease transition to follow-on aircraft?
Trim Aid Device (TAD)
The propulsion system provides ____________ for the aircraft.
The ___________ provides power for aircraft systems such as electrical, hydraulics, and fuel pumps.
What 5 things are operated by the hydraulic system?
Main gear inboard doors
Nose wheel steering
What are the four sources of electrical power in the T-6?
Backup: Auxiliary battery
External: fuselage receptacle
What are the primary flight instruments?
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
Vertical speed indicator (VSI)
What are the standby flight instruments?
Turn and bank indicator
The ___________ provides a pressure and weather seal
The canopy features a ____________ for ejection and emergency ground egress.
fracturing system (CFS)
What type of ejection seat is in the T-6?
Seats are ejected from the cockpit by ____________.
During ejection, altitude is provided by ______________ fired at top of seat rails.
The ________ are the metal panels that cover the engine compartment.
What are the 3 functions of the engine cowling?
1. protect the engine components
2. decrease drag
3. provide an engine air intake
___________ provide quick access to the engine compartment
Quick release latches
Where does essential airflow enter the engine?
Enters the cowling through an opening in the front just below the nose piece.
The ___________ causes air molecules to turn 90 degrees to the engine compartment. Heavier particles such as water or debris, are not able to make the turn and are returned to the atmosphere through a ______________.
Forward movement is generated from _____________.
The engine generates power to _______________, which produces thrust.
turn the propeller
What type of engine is in the T-6?
Pratt & Whitney PT6A-68 free turbine, reverse flow design, turboprop engine.
____________ referes to the fact that the compressor and power turbines are not physically connected.
Air movement from one turbine to the other provides ______________.
power to the propeller
What does reverse flow mean?
air enters the engine at the rear and moves forward during the combustion cycle
What are the three elements necessary for engine operation?
What are the 3 major sections of the engine?
Gas generation section
Power Turbine section
The ____________ is located at the rear of the engine and contains several aircraft systems.
The accessory gearbox, oil tank, starter/generator and battery are all located in the _____________.
T or F? Most of the components in the accessory compartment are not directly related to engine operation.
The ___________ turns the compressor turbine and compressor which provides air to the engine until it starts and is able to sustain itself.
The _____________ is located between the accessory compartment and the power turbine section.
gas generation section
The _____________ contains the compressor inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, and compressor turbine.
gas generation section
Where does inlet air enter the engine?
Compressed air is transferred from the compressor to the _______________.
What happens in the combustion chamber?
compressed air is mixed with fuel and ignited
Which section of the engine is the front section?
Which section of the engine contains the exhaust case, reduction gearbox, and propeller shaft?
The power turbine section
(the power turbine is also located in this section)
The power turbine section uses the expanding gases generated by the gas generation section to produce ___________.
T or F? The power turbine rotates in the opposite direction of the compressor turbine?
True, there is no physical connection between the two
The power turbine drives the ____________, which in turn drives the ____________ at a reduced RPM.
What components make up the engine exhaust system?
Where are the exhaust ports located?
both sides of the power turbine
From the exhaust ports, the gases make a ___________ turn through the exhaust stacks before being released.
180 degree turn
The ____________ provides initial air flow, the ____________ provides the fuel, and the __________ produces the initial heat source.
fuel management unit (FMU)
The _____________ consists of an ignition exciter, two high voltage igniter cables, and two spark igniters.
The spark igniters are located at the ____________ positions around the combustion chamber.
4 and 9 o'clock
Which component of the ignition system receives a low voltage input signal and transforms it to high voltage? Which component carries that signal? Which component provides the spark to the combustion chamber?
What are the switch positions of the ignition control switch?
Where is the ignition control switch located?
right forward switch panel in each cockpit
Which position of the ignition switch is used for autostart or normal operation?
How do you know when the igniters are activated?
green IGN SEL annunciator
What does the ON position of the ignition switch provide?
continuous igniter operation
Where is the IGN circuit breaker located for the Ignition system?
battery bus, front cockpit
The ____________ controls fuel flow to the engine, producing torque on the propeller, and ultimately controls the amount of engine power and aircraft speed.
Power Control Lever (PCL)
Pushing the PCL forward __________ the amount of fuel to the engine, _____________ aircraft power. Pulling the PCL aft _________ the amount of fuel, and ________________.
decreases aircraft power
The PCL's are interconnected with a _____________
The front PCL is connected to the ___________ mechanically by a flexible cable and electrically.
fuel management unit (FMU)
T or F?
PCL movement physically moves the input lever on the side of the FMU. This fuel request displaces a cam in the FMU, releasing the requested amount of fuel.
Where is the PCL friction adjust located?
Adjusting the ________ will keep the PCL from inadvertently moving due to aircraft vibrations. Rotating it ________ increases tension and _______ decreases tension.
to the right
to the left
What are the labeled positions of the PCL?
Any PCL position between IDLE and MAX is __________ to available power.
What is the unmarked PCL position? Where is it located? How do you know you are there?
between OFF and IDLE
green ST READY annunciator
What prevents inadvertent engine shutdown?
PCL cutoff gate
The __________ is a computer unit located underneath the engine in the accessory compartment.
The PMU processes ___________ from the PCL and keeps the __________ and __________ within operating limits.
The ___________ determines available power and provides a near linear power response between the PCL IDLE and MAX positions
The PMU continuously interacts with the engine to automatically maintain ____________?
RPM limitations (N1 and Np)
Moving the PCL forward releases a __________ amount of fuel from the FMU. The __________ fine tunes the request.
What are the positions of the PMU switch?
NORM and OFF
A __________ in engine power is likely if the PMU fails or is turned off in flight.
What does the amber PMU STATUS annunciator indicate?
After landing, it alerts maintenance that the PMU has accommodated a fault.
In flight, it indicates a fault in or a mismatch between the weight-on-wheels switches. The PMU will not revert to ground mode upon landing.
What does the red PMU FAIL annunciator indicate?
The PMU is non functional
What is the primary power source of the PMU? Where is it mounted?
Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)
ON the reduction gearbox
The PMA provides ___________, which the PMU converts to DC. If the PMA fails, power is provided by the 28VDC battery bus. The circuit breaker for the backup power is labeled PMU and is located in the _______ cockpit.
A shaft connects the _______________ section and accessory gearbox.
During engine start, the ___________ turns the compressor via linkage in the accessory gearbox.
Once the engine is self sustained the _________ becomes a ____________.
The generator provides _____________ power, and charges the __________ and ___________ to ________ VDC
What are the starter switch positions?
Which starter switch position is used for most engine starts?
The starter switch is spring loaded to which position?
Motor the engine by holding the starter switch in the _________ position for _________ seconds with the PCL OFF.
Explain the switch / control movement for the engine start sequence.
Move PCL forward until green ST READY
Move the starter switch momentarily to the AUTO/RESET position.
Which aircraft system is responsible for ensuring that components of the propulsion system do not overheat and/or seize up.
T or F? The oil system is designed such that oil pressure valves are maintained during normal and aerobatic flight.
Which component of the oil system pressurizes the oil?
How many pickups are in the oil tank? What are their purposes?
2, one for normal flight, one for inverted flight
How does oil return to the oil tank?
scavenge system, several pressure and scavenge pumps spread throughout
Scavenged oil is routed through the _________ before it is returned to the oil tank.
Where is the main oil filter located?
Where are oil strainers located?
several in the power, compressor, and accessory drive areas
What happens if the main oil filter gets clogged?
A filter bypass valve allows unfiltered oil to continue lubricating the engine
Where is the chip detector located?
What is the function of the chip detector?
detects metallic particles in oil to warn pilot of possible gear damage
How do you know if metal chips are detected in the oil?
red CHIP annunciator, MASTER WARN, aural tone
How should the oil be checked?
with the dipstick within 30 minutes of engine shutdown
What is the secondary method of checking oil? When is it used?
sight glass on side of oil tank
Oil level must be serviced within __________ minutes of engine shutdown. For most accurate results, check oil level ___________ after shutdown
15 to 20 minutes
What is the normal oil level on the dipstick?
between ADD and MAX HOT
T or F? Oil temperature and pressure are measure by the same ports on the engine.
What is the SCU? What does it do?
signal conditioning unit
It is a computer that contains logic to illuminate central warning system under certain oil pressure conditions
What is normal oil pressure?
between 90 and 120 psi
During aerobatics or spins what is normal for oil pressure?
between 40 and 130 psi
An amber OIL PX annunciator will illuminate when oil pressure is between ____________ psi at IDLE power or between _______ PSI for _________ seconds above IDLE power.
15 and 40
40 and 90
A red amber OIL PX annunciator will illuminate if oil pressure is _______ or below at IDLE or _______ psi or below above IDLE
The purpose of the propeller is to covert _______ into _________
The T-6A uses a _______ blade, _______ pitch, _______ speed propeller
The ________ and ________ control propeller speed (Np) to maintain a constant propeller speed of ___________ RPM (100% Np) and achieve varying levels of thrust by automatically adjusting ___________.
PIU (propeller interface unit)
100% torque is available from sea level to approximately _______ to _______ feet MSL on a standard day. Above _________ feet MSL, a decrease in maximum torque available will be noted
The propeller is driven by the ___________ through the ____________
What is the function of the reduction gearbox?
Reduce engine output from 30,000 RPM to the propeller operating speed of 2,000 RPM
What measures propeller speed (Np) and where is it located?
phase shift torque probe located in the reduction gearbox
Data from the torque probe is continually monitored by the __________.
The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at 100% (2,000 RPM) using a(n) ___________. A backup ____________ will not allow propeller RPM to exceed ________
mechanical overspeed governor
106% (2,120 RPM)
If the PMU or PIU fails the mechanical flyweight overspeed governor will reset to maintain RPM at ___________.
100 +/- 2% (2,000 RPM)
Propeller pitch changes are based upon changes in __________.
What are the 3 basic blade angle or propeller pitch conditions?
High pitch (coarse)
Low pitch (flat or fine)
In the _________ condition, the blade is aligned nearly straight into the wind, approximately 86 degrees from the perpendicular plane.
In the __________ condition, the blades are approximately 15 degrees from the perpendicular plane.
________ is variable between feather and low pitch.
This propeller position produces the least amount of drag and no thrust.
The propeller will be in this position during most flight conditions.
This propeller position produce some thrust and the most drag
The propeller will be in this position during low speed and low throttle flight.
Without oil pressure, the counterweights and feathering spring force the propeller blades to this position.
The propeller is naturally pulled to the ___________ position by the __________ spring and the __________.
The ___________ uses the oil system to force the propeller blades away from feather.
pitch change mechanism
As PIU increases oil pressure the sliding piston is forced forward, rotating the propeller blades toward __________.
T or F? The counterweights are connected to the blade root so they are repositioned as the propeller blades are repositioned.
If there is an engine failure in flight, the propeller will move toward ____________. If any residual oil pressure remains from windmilling, the PIU will attempt to maintain propeller pitch and the propeller may not ____________.
The __________ is a computer unit located in the left avionics bay that monitors and processes engine operation data.
engine data manager (EDM)
The ________ drives the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays and illuminates advisory, caution, or warning annunciators when appropriate
engine data manager (EDM)
The ________ also performs several non-engine related tasks such as fuel balancing, fuel quantity indications, activation of the nose wheel steering annunciator, a display of DC volts, DC amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and cockpit pressure differential
engine data manager (EDM)
What is the PEDD? What does it do?
Primary engine data display; displays Torque, Np, IOAT, ITT, and N1
What does white / green indicate on the gauges of the PEDD? Amber? Red?
White / green - normal operating range
Amber - caution operating range
Red - exceeding operating limits
What measures torque? Where is it located? What does it represent?
Phase shift torque probe
located in the reduction gearbox
A percentage of maximum rated torque
What measures ITT?
sensing system around combustion chamber
What are the ITT operating limits for engine start?
400C to 1000C
After startup, what are the ITT operating limits?
400C and 820C
What is N1? What measures it?
1. gas generator speed: represents speed of compressor turbine in the gas generator section.
2. magnetic pulse sensor in the accessory gearbox
What is the normal operating limit of N1?
What is Np? What measures it?
Propeller RPM, torque probe
What are Np ground operating limits?
0 to 61% and 81% to 100%
Why do we avoid sustained propeller operation between 62% and 80% while on the ground?
To prevent damage from ground resonance
What are Np operating limits for flight?
What measures indicated outside air temperature (IOAT)?
A sensor located in the inlet plenum
The ____________ provides each cockpit with a backup visual indication of engine operations.
alternate engine data display (AEDD)
With the exception of ___________, data for the AEDD is not processed by the PMU.
What information is displayed on the AEDD?
3. Cockpit Altitude
4. Raw ITT
5. Fuel quantity
6. Fuel flow
7. Cockpit differential pressure (delta P)
Anytime cockpit altitude exceeds ___________ feet, the digital readout is outlined with a yellow box, the amber CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates, the MASTER CAUTION light flashes, and an aural tone sounds.
___________ measures the difference between the air pressure inside and outside the cockpit.
delta P (cockpit differential pressure)
If delta P exceeds ____________ psi the digital readout is outlined with a red box, a red CKPT PX annunciator illuminates, the MASTER WARN light flashes and an aural tone sounds
3.9 to 4.0
The fuel quantity gauge receives information from ___________.
The fuel flow gauge receives information from the _________ and shows the rate of fuel consumption in __________.
fuel flow transmitter
pounds per hour
The PEDD is powered through the __________ bus.
The AEDD is powered through the __________ bus.
What does ESD stand for and where is it located?
located just below the PEDD in each cockpit
What does the ESD provide?
1. Oil temperature
2. Oil pressure
3. Hydraulic pressure
4. DC voltage
5. DC amperage
What measures oil temperature? What is the normal operating limits? Cautionary limits? Out-of-limits?
2. on the engine oil pressure line downstream of the main oil pump
5. More than 110C
What measures oil pressure? Where? What are the normal operating limits?
2. On the engine oil pressure line downstream of the main oil pump
3. 90 to 120 psi
What measures hydraulic pressure? What are the normal operating limits? When does the gauge turn amber?
pressure sensor located on the power pack reservoir
3,000 +/- 120 psi
Pressure below 1,800 psi or above 3,500 psi
What measures, controls and regulates DC voltage? Where is it located?
generator control unit
Under a panel on the right side of the rear cockpit
When is the voltage readout amber? White? Amber the second time? Red?
Amber up to 21.9 volts
White from 22 to 29.5
Amber from 29.6 to 32.2
Red at 32.3 volts and above
ESD is powered through the ________ bus
The fire warning system monitors both ______ and ______ temperatures.
The core element of the fire warning system is filled with _____________. The sensor tube is filled with pressurized ____________. The core element responds to _________. The sensor tube responds to _____________.
What happens differently between FIRE test switch 1 and 2?
1 illuminates the top half of the FIRE light, 2 illuminates the bottom half.
This handle mechanically shuts off hydraulic fluid and fuel flow to the engine as well as bleed air flow from the engine.
Firewall shutoff handle
T or F? The firewall shutoff hands may be reset by pushing the handle back in.
Power for the #1 fire warning system is provided through the _______ bus. Power for the #2 fire warning system is provided through the ________ bus.
battery; CB FIRE 1; Front Cockpit
generator; CB FIRE 2; Front Cockpit
The components of the electrical system are wired together through a ________ bus and a _________ bus.
Each electrical distribution circuit is protected by a ________.
Where are the battery bus circuit breakers located? Generator bus?
Battery bus CB's are located on the left side of each cockpit.
Generator bus CB's are located on the right side of each cockpit.
Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by the ___________. It provides _______ power and is capable of supplying _______ amps.
T or F? The generator supplies enough electrical power to operate all equipment on both buses, charge the battery and the aux battery.
The generator charges the battery and aux battery to __________.
What is the purpose of the generator control unit (GCU)?
Voltage regulation, overvoltage and undervoltage protection, generator overload protection
T or F? The generator control switches in each cockpit are magnetically held and electrically interlocked. What does this allow?
The generator to be controlled from either cockpit
The __________ powers the rear generator bus and the front cockpit avionics bus.
front cockpit generator bus
The rear cockpit avionics bus is powered by the forward generator bus through the ____________.
front cockpit avionics bus
The rear cockpit generator bus is controlled by a circuit breaker labeled ____________ one the ____________ circuit breaker panel
front cockpit generator bus
Both front and rear avionics buses are controlled by circuit breakers, labeled ______________ and ______________ on the ___________ circuit breaker panel
front cockpit generator bus
The rear cockpit battery bus receives power from the __________ battery bus
The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power from the ___________ bus through the ________ bus
front cockpit battery
front cockpit avionics
The rear cockpit battery bus is controlled by a circuit breaker labeled __________ on the __________ circuit breaker panel
front cockpit battery bus
Both front and rear cockpit avionics battery buses are controlled by circuit breakers labeled ________ and ________ on the __________ circuit breaker panel.
front cockpit battery bus
What are the components of the hot battery bus?
RAM air valve
Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except the backup UHF control unit and UHF transceiver) is furnished through the ________________.
Avionics master switch
What is the function of the BUS TIE switch?
to tie the battery and generator buses together for normal operation
If the BUS TIE switch is set to ___________, or if the bus tie fails, the battery and generator buses are _____________ and each powers only equipment attached to that bus.
Each circuit breaker is marked with the ____________ in __________ it will allow to pass before popping.
maximum current load
What happens if a circuit breaker pops or opens?
Current flow is shut off to that component or circuit
What are the secondary power components of the T-6A?
1. 24 VDC, 42 ampere hour battery
2. 24 VDC, 5 ampere hour auxiliary battery
3. An external power receptacle
The primary battery provides power for __________ and is capable of powering all electrical systems (except _________ which is automatically shed) in the event of generator failure with the bus tie closed
The ___________ will power a minimum number of aircraft systems and avionics in the event of failure of the generator and primary battery.
During the AUX BAT test, place the switch forward and hold for a minimum of __________, then release.
External power is distributed on the ______ and is controlled by the _______ switch on the right forward switch panel.
Instrument panel lights are controlled through a knob labeled ________. Side control panel lighting is controlled by a knob labeled ________ and area lights are controlled by a knob labeled __________>
Lighting controls for the EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer, and the GPS control panel are mounted ___________
on the individual units
The electronic air data and EID's incorporate an ____________ brightness control function.
__________ lights are located on the right console in each cockpit and can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail.
The __________ light is located aft and inboard of the left main landing gear strut and is exposed as the landing gear is extended. The _________ light is located in the same spot on the right side. Both lights will only illuminate when the switch is on and _____________.
the gear is down and locked
T-6 Nav lights are ________ on the left wing and ________ on the right wing.
What color are the position lights and where are they located?
white, trailing edge of each wingtip
The ___________ lights at each wing tip flash synchronously at a rate of about _________ times per minute
Fuel is stored in ________ separate tanks. Where are they?
left wing, right wing, collector tank in the middle
What is the maximum amount of fuel the T-6A can hold?
What is the primary method for refueling the T-6A?
Single point pressure refueling
What is the total amount of usable fuel when using the primary method?
What is the secondary method of refueling?
Over the wing gravity refueling
How much fuel is stored in each tank?
530 lbs per wing, 40 in the collector tank. An additional 50 lbs per wing can be attained if using over the wing refueling.
T or F? The single point adapter permits filling of the wing tanks simultaneously.
How long does it take to fuel the T-6 using single point?
3 to 5 minutes
The aircraft can be defueled in ___________ by applying suction through the single point adapter.
Single point refueling is automatically controlled by the _____________ valves located at the outboard tip of each wing.
level control pilot
There is no automatic shutoff or defueling with ____________.
over the wing gravity refueling
What provides fuel delivery for initial engine startups?
The boost pump serves as a backup to the _____________ fuel pump.
engine driven low pressure
A _________ located at the front of the collector tank connects both eh electric boost pump and the primary jet pump to the engine feed line
What prevents contaminants from reaching the main fuel pumps or engine?
How many shutoff valves are in the fuel system? What and where are they?
The firewall shutoff valve is actuated by the firewall shutoff handle and is after the fuel filter
The maintenance shutoff valve is provided to isolate the fuel system for engine or fuel filter maintenance and is located before the fuel filter
The engine-drive _________ fuel pump feeds fuel to the engine-driven ________ fuel pump
The ________ routes fuel to the FMU which controls fuel delivery to the engine.
engine-driven high pressure fuel pump
Excess fuel not sent to the engine is sent through a ________ back to the ____________.
Some fuel is routed from the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump down the _________ and used to drive the primary and transfer jet pumps.
motive flow line
The electric boost pump is activated any time fuel pressure drops below _______ psi in the motive flow line. This will also illuminate the FUEL PX annunciator
Fuel delivered by the motive flow line drives the _________ which then begins to deliver fuel from the collector tank to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump.
primary jet pump
The ________ in the wing tanks direct fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tank.
transfer jet pumps
Both the primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps operate by _____________.
The T-6 is equipped with a ________ in the collector tank which allows fuel to feed the engine during negative G and inverted flight. It provides a minimum of _______ of fuel regardless of aircraft orientation and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.
flip flop valve
How many fuel level probes are there? Where are they located?
7, 3 in each wing, 1 in the collector tank
When do the arrows of the fuel quantity gauge turn yellow?
150 lbs remaining
When do the L FUEL LO and R FUEL LO annunciators illuminate?
When the fuel level falls below 110 lbs for the respective tank
FUEL BAL indicates that the fuel imbalance has exceeded ________ for more than ___________ and automated balancing system has not corrected the condition.
M FUEL BAL indicates the fuel balance switch is NOT in the _____________ position.
BOOST PUMP indicates that the ___________ has been turned on or automatically activated
The boost pump switch is normal set to the ___________ position. When set to this position the boost pump will come on during engine start and will be automatically shutoff when the motive flow line exceeds __________ psi.
The FUEL BAL switch will normally be in the __________ position.
If the FUEL BAL switch is set to ______________ set the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to either L or R, whichever is the __________ of the two.
The wing tanks are internally vented to each other through a __________ line.
If the aircraft should be parked on a sloped surface, fuel will not flow from the high wing to the low wing. A ________ in the vent opening at the tip end of each wing will close when rising j
The fuel balance system maintains balance within ________. The FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates when there is a ________ lb imbalance for more than ________ minutes
If the fuel imbalance is not reduced to less than ______ lbs within _____ min. the FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates and the auto balance system will shut off. It will remain illuminated until system reset.
What are the primary flight controls?
How are the primary flight controls operated?
Manually using mechanical linkages
What are the secondary flight controls?
1. Aileron Trim Surfaces (roll)
2. Elevator Trim Tab (pitch)
3. Rudder Trim Tab (Yaw)
4. Trim Aid Device (TAD)
How are the secondary controls operated?
The ________, ______________, and _____________ utilize _________ tabs, while ___________ trim is accomplished through the positioning of the actual ________________ control surfaces.
elevator, rudder, and TAD
What components make up the aileron control system?
1. Left and right aileron
2. Two control sticks
3. Interconnect tube
4. Push-pull rods
What are push-pull rods and bellcranks used for?
To transmit the pilots lateral stick deflection to the ailerons.
What is the purpose of the aileron system?
Facilitate pilot control of the aircraft around the longitudinal (roll) axis.
When the pilot makes a control input, both aileron control surfaces are ____________, but in _______________ directions.
When the control stick is deflected left, the __________ aileron trailing edge moves __________ while the left aileron trailing edge moves _________.
Aileron Ground Adjusted Trim Tabs are used by maintenance personnel only and should not be tampered with.
What do Aileron Ground Adjusted Trim Tabs adjust for?
Stick neutral trim input to the controls
Each primary flight control is _______ balanced. What does that mean?
Center of gravity of each control surface falls along its pivot line or hinge line
What three things does Mass balance do?
1. Regulates control pressures
2. Prevents control flutter
3. Improves control stability
What does the elevator system consist of?
1. THe elevator
2. Two control sticks
3. Push-pull rods
4. Interconnect tube
6. Elevator cables
The _________, _________, and __________ function together to transmit fore and aft control stick __________ to the elevator.
push-pull rods, cables, and bellcranks
Two _____________ are attached to the aft elevator ________ and provide a balanced control feel and tendency to return the control stick to _______________.
What prevents conflicting inputs in the elevator system?
An interconnect tube between the control sticks
What is a bobweight?
Metal plates attached to the base of the front control stick.
What does a bobweight do?
Provides a heavier stick to help enhance control feedback. Prevents over stressing the air frame.
The elevators respond to __________ movement. Aft stick input will cause the elevator trailing edge ________________________. This will __________ the aircraft nose.
to deflect up
Where are the balancing weights installed on the elevator?
In both of the elevator horns just forward of the hinge line
What does the rudder system consist of?
1. The rudder
2. Two sets of rudder pedals
3. Rudder cables
6. Tie rods
7. Centering springs
______________, _____________, and _____________ provide the connection between the rudder pedals and the rudder control surface.
Cables, pulleys, and bellcranks
The front and rear rudder pedals are interconnected with ________ ____________.
Centering springs are to provide a tendency for the rudder to return to ______________ and to enhance ______________ _____________.
What allows you to set your rudder pedals to a comfortable position?
Rudder pedal adjustment hand crank
Left rudder pedals deflect ___________.
Rudder balance is acheived with weight __________________, just _____________ of the __________ line.
located in the rudder horn
Each primary flight control system has a __________________________ associated with it.
Electromechanical trim system
A properly trimmed aircraft greatly reduces _______.
Elevator and aileron trim actuators are controlled by ______________________. Located on top of ______________.
a combined roll/pitch trim switch
each control stick
Control of rudder trim position is through ________________ installed on the _______________ of the _______________ in each cockpit.
a rocker switch
Where is the trim interrupt button?
Left of the roll/pitch trim switch on top of each control stick
Press and hold button
What happens when you release the trim interrupt button?
Power is restored to trim actuators
the TAD remains disengaged.
Activation of the trim system is controlled from the ___________ and ______________ trim control panels. These panels are on the ___________.
Front and rear cockpits
Just forward of the power control levers
What is the switch on the bottom right side of the trim control panel labeled?
What happens when the trim disconnect switch is set to NORM?
The aileron, rudder, and elevator trim systems are activated
The AIL/EL TRIM circuit breaker controls ________________.
Power to the aileron and elevator systems.
The RUD TRIM circuit breaker controls ____________.
The electrical supply to the rudder trim system
Pilot aileron trim inputs are transmitted to an ____________________ in the _______________.
center of the wing
What does the actuator in the center of the wing do in regards to aileron trim?
Repositions the aileron center bellcrank to set and hold both ailerons in a trimmed position
The elevator trim system uses an ____________________ to drive a ___________________ installed on the _______________________ of the right side of the __________________.
small tab surface
The rudder trim system uses a ________________ located in the ___________________. This drives a ______________ on the rudders ____________.
small tab surface
Trim Position Indicators
Located on the trim control panels in each cockpit
What is TAD?
A rudder Trim Aid Device.
What does TAD do?
1. It assists in maintaining directional trim
2. Reduces out-of-trim rudder forces
3. Maintains coordinated flight
How does TAD operate?
Automatically adjusts rudder trim to compensate for airspeed and power changes
The TAD interfaces with ____________________ and controls TAD ops. The computer calculates inputs based on:
the rudder trim system
1. Pitch rate
4. Engine torque
TAD inputs precalculated takeoff setting to the ______________________. No further inputs are made until the aircraft reaches ___________ and there is ______________.
Rudder trim tab
No weight - on - wheels
What controls the TAD system?
Located on the control panel in the front cockpit.
When TAD is turned off what illuminates?
Green TAD OFF annunciator
The trim interrupt button will also turn off the TAD
How do you operate TAD rest?
Move trim aid switch back to TRIM AID
What is the gust lock for?
Prevents excess wear and damage to the primary flight controls when the plane is parked. Located front cockpit
How do you disengaged the gust lock?
Lift the yoke, move the control stick to the side and then aft, lower yoke to stowed position.
What are hydraulics? What are pneumatics?
The T-6A has a hydraulic system that uses fluid pressurized to _____________________.
3000 +/- 120 psi
A pump produces _________________ pressure which is retained within the system until a _______________ __________________ _______________ is opened, releasing the pressure necessary to operate an ___________________.
electrical selector valve
The actuator then uses _____________ ______________ to move the desired component.
A hydraulic system can be referred to as __________-___________________.
What does the T-6 hydraulic system consist of?
1. A primary hydraulic system
2. A Emergency system
What does the primary hydraulic system operate in normal flight ops?
1. Landing gear and main landing gear inboard doors.
3. Speed brake
4. Nose wheel steering
What is the source of the hydraulic systems 3000 +/- 120 psi?
The engine-driven pump
When can systems be used to power nose wheel steering, landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, and speed brakes?
When pressure exceeds 1800 psi
What is the engine-driven pump and where is it located?
A hydraulic pump driven by the engine accessory gearbox
In the engine compartment
The pump creates and distributes ______________ to the reservoir in the _________ ____________, onward to the individual ____________ _______________ in the ________________ manifold, and to the emergency system.
What do the reservoir piston and cylinder do?
The piston steps down the fluid flowing back through the pump to 50 psi.
The cylinder provides pressure to maintain 50 psi in the reservoir.
In the hydraulics service bay, the ______________ _____________ contains a pressure release valve that operates ______________ to _____________________. What does this help do?
3250 to 3500 psi
Avoid over pressure damage
The purpose of the _______ ____________ is to isolate the hydraulic pressure coming from the _____________ _____________ pump, through the ______________ _________________, from the rest of the hydraulic system when the emergency system is activated.
When you pull the landing gear emergency extension handle and it activates the emergency system, the ________ __________ moves to the ______________ position.
When the emergency system is activated the main hydraulic system is ________________. Emergency ___________ __________ is released to extend the ____________ _____________ and ______________.
The hydraulic pressure is _________ from _____________ any hydraulic components except the _________ ___________ _____________ _______________.
nose wheel steering actuator
Where is the nose wheel steering actuator plumbed?
Into the pressure line from the pump upstream of the power pack
The hydraulic system cannot be returned to normal without maintenance
True. They need to reset the landing gear emergency extension handle and emergency selector manifold
Where is the selector manifold located?
What does it do?
The hydraulic service bay
Allows the hydraulic system, the cockpit controls, and the aircraft devices operated by the hydraulic system to work together.
How many electrical sensor valves does the selector manifold contain?
Hydraulic system scale normal operating limits range from ______________ to ___________________ in increments of _________.
2880 to 3120
When does the annunciator panel display an amber HYDR FL LO light?
If the hydraulic fluid level in the reservoir drops below one quart
The emergency hydraulic system is _______________ from the primary system.
At what time is it pressurized?
What are the three circumstances for emergency extension of the landing gear?
1. Primary hydraulic failure
2. Engine failure
3. Battery bus failure
The emergency system provides sufficient pressure for multiple lowering/raisings of the landing gear and main gear inboard doors and the flaps.
The emergency package does not have a pump. How does it get its pressure to move the actuators?
A major system component called the emergency accumulator.
Pressure from the primary system presses a ___________ _____________ that in turn compresses _____________ ____________ stored inside the _____________ ______________.
How does the primary system keep the emergency system pressurized?
Through a one-way check valve
The compressed helium provides pressure needed to move the actuators without relying on __________ ___________.
The emergency package has its own set of selector valves. What do they do?
1. Activates landing gear
2. Activates flaps
What allows manual reduction of hydraulic pressure?
The pressure release valve automatically releases excessive hydraulic pressure if it reaches _____________.
When the _________ _____________ is activated, the ___________ ______________ ____________ ____________ in the emergency selector manifold opens, releasing stored pressure from the emergency accumulator.
emergency extension selector valve
The stored pressure from the emergency accumulator moves _________ through the independent _________ __________ _________ to the specified ___________ which then activates the device.
emergency hydraulic lines
A __________ __________ in the emergency manifold prevents back flow from the emergency system to the main system.
What does the check valve allow?
the landing gear and flaps to be lowered using the emergency system
The emergency selector manifold allows a mox vol. of ________ cubic inches to pass.
20-30 (about 1 pint)
When does the amber EHYD PX LO illuminate
If pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below 2400 +/- 150 psi
The extension and retraction system is ___________ ______________, ______________ ____________, and ___________ ____________.
Power for landing gear controls is provided through
a circuit breaker LDG GR CONT
battery bus CB in the front cockpit
Components of the main landing gear system
1. Landing gear doors
2. The main landing gear
3. The nose gear doors
4. The nose gear
Each gear leg is an ______-____________ _________ ___________ with a folding strut that has one end connected to the gear, the other end attached to a main spar.
oleo-pneumatic shock absorber
The hydraulically operated ______ ______ _______ _____ share a single ____________ that turns a ____________ and ______________.
main gear inboard doors
The mechanically operated _________ _______ _________ _______ are directly connected to the strut. The doors are pulled along.
main gear outboard doors
The nose gear has ______ doors that are hinged at the _________.
What are the major components for the nose gear?
1. Spring strut
2. Nose leg actuator
3. Nose gear door
How long does a normal gear extension/retraction take?
What are the controls and indications that aid in the operation of landing gear?
1. Landing gear control handle in each cockpit
2. Gear position indicator lights
3. An unsafe gear aural warning tone
What three things does the Gear Position Indicator alert?
1. The extension/retraction is complete
2. The landing gear main inboard doors are open
3. The landing gear/or gear doors are in transit
How do you prevent inadvertent movement of the landing gear control handle?
Move it over a detent as it is raised
When will the gear handle illuminate red?
1. The main gear inboard doors are not closed
2. The PCL is approching IDLE with the gear handle UP
What airspeed do you have to be below to extend landing gear?
When is the aural warning heard in relation to landing gear?
Gear handle not DOWN
PCL below mid-range
airspeed below 120 KIAS
Flaps UP or TAKEOFF
The warning can be silenced unless:
1. gear UP flaps LDG
2. gear handle UP with aircraft on the ground
If LDG flaps are not selected, the horn will not sound if the silence button is pressed when:
1. airspeed above 120 knots
2. PCL below approximately 87% N1
3. Subsequent slow to below 120 Knots
When the ________-__-__________ switch senses the aircraft on the ground, the downlock solenoid prevents movement of the ___________ _______ _________ handle.
landing gear select
The ________ __________ button can be used to override the downlock solenoid when the right WOW switch is ____________ on the ground.
Airborne and use of the downlock override button is necessary, the landing gear selector handle can be raised and the landing gear will retract.
When the _________ ___________ button is used with airborne failure of WOW switch, will the landing gear retract?
When does the emergency package allow a one-time lowering of the landing gear?
1. Failure of primary hydraulic system
2. Loss of engine power
3. Failure of the battery bus
The manual emergency landing gear extension handle, placarded ____ __ __, is located where?
EMER LDG GR
lower left side of the front cockpit instrument panel
For emergency operations, you should first set the landing gear selector handle to __________. Why?
This is a chance it will work and you wont have to activate the emergency system.
Once you emergency extend the landing gear it cannot be retracted until serviced on the ground.
How long does extension with the emergency system take?
Longer than 5-6 seconds
Flaps are ________________ controlled and ________________ operated.
Electrical power for the flap system is provided through CB ____ ______ on the _______ __________ CB panel in the _____________ cockpit.
What components make up the flap system?
Two selector valves
An emergency extension selector solenoid
A flap actuator
A flap torque tube
What positions can the flap selector be set to?
2. TO (Takeoff)
3. LDG (landing)
What is the flap operating speed?
Make sure your airspeed is below 150 KIAS
Emergency flap extension is activated by a _______________ located in the _______ _______ _________ ___________.
power system emergency package
Emergency flap extension can only be operated after the emergency landing gear handle has been activated.
What powers the emergency flap operation?
hot battery bus
Neither normal nor emergency flap operation and position indication is available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
Can you visually check the position of the flaps from the cockpit?
No. If they extend you should be able to feel a slight pitch up.
What does the speed brake do? Why do we care?
2. Increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
What systems does the speed brake use?
The speed brake recieves electrical power through a CB ___________ on the ___________ bus circuit breaker panel.
The speed brake will not extend if:
the flaps are already extended
Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until:
1. The speed brake switch is moved forward
2. The flaps are extended to LDG or TO
3. The power control lever is move to MAX
The NWS system operates using what kind of power?
Electrical, mechanical, and hydraulic
Where does the NWS receive its electrical power?
CB NWS on the generator bus
How is NWS mechanically operated?
Cables connected to the rudder pedals
The NWS selector control valve is located in the ____________ ______________. An ____________ _______________ controlled from the cockpit opens the vlave which provides ________________ pressure.
The __________ _________ has a small lever that is connected to the rudder by a push pull cable.
What does the centering valve do?
Returns the wheel to a centered position before extending/retracting
What is the purpose of the wheel brake?
Slow down/stop aircraft on ground
turn the aircraft on ground
Wheel brake system is a ___________, _______________ _____________ system that operates using an independent hydraulic system.
Each brake unit is a _________ ________ with __________ pistons and _______ discs.
Pressure moving through the ____________ line from the _____________ cylinder activates the individual disc brake unit.
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Private Pilot Oral Exam
AFOQT Aviation Milestones
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
Airplane Performance (A4)
IFT (DA20-C1 Ops)