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HL Ch. 2 CMS First Aid for Criminal Justice Officers Quiz
Terms in this set (158)
The ________ is a network of trained professionals linked to provide advanced, out-of-hospital care for victims of sudden traumatic injury or illness
_______ (EMT) have advanced, specialized training that enables them to provide comprehensive care to patients
Emergency medical technician
What does CPR stand for?
What does ABC stand for?
Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
_________ is a duty to take some action to prevent harm to another and for the failure of which one may be liable depending on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances
Duty to act
________ occurs when you either fail to act or act inappropriately
Breach of duty
The _________ protects a civilian first aid provider from liability for medical care performed in good faith or medical care similar to that expected of another first aid provider with equal training
Good Samaritan Act
What does AED stand for?
Automated external defibrillator
_________ is the relinquishing of a right or interest with the intention of never again claiming it
________ is the failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation
_________ is consent that is clearly and unmistakably stated
________ is consent inferred from one's conduct rather than from one's direct expression
__________ is a person's agreement to allow something to happen made with full knowledge of the risks involved and the alternatives
_________ documents the terminally or chronically ill patient's wish to refuse resuscitation
DNR (do not resuscitate)/DNRO (do not resuscitate order)
_______ documents the patient's request to withhold specific medical care
_______ is a bracelet, necklace, or card that alerts medical personnel to a specific medical condition
___________ protects the rights of patients and the release of patient information
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
What does CDC stand for?
Center for Disease Control
________ is a set of procedures designed to prevent transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus, and other bloodborne pathogens to first aid or health care providers
__________ is the standard requires using a form of infection control with all patients
Body Substance Isolation (BSI)
___________________ is a type of bacteria that is highly contagious and resistant to certain antibiotics
Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
What is PPE?
Personal Protective Equipment
__________________ is a highly infectious disease spread by person-to-person contact, generally through fecal contamination or oral ingestion.
Hepatitis A Virus
_________________ is a highly infectious disease spread through sexual contact, sharing contaminated needles (through intravenous drug use), or through blood transfusions.
Hepatitis B Virus
_________________ is the most common chronic bloodborne infection; primarily transmitted through direct contact with human blood, from sharing needles or drug paraphernalia, or from an infected mother delivering her baby.
Hepatitis C Virus
_________________ is a bloodborne virus that attacks the immune system and causes AIDS; transmission occurs primarily during sexual contact with an infected individual, when intravenous drug users share contaminated needles, from infected mother to unborn child, and from contact with blood, certain body fluids, and tissue from an infected individual.
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)
What is AIDS?
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
______ is a highly infectious airborne infection.
_________ is any infection spread form person to person through the air.
What are STDs?
Sexually Transmitted Diseases
The _______________ is the supporting framework for the body, giving it shape and protecting vital organs.
The ______ , also known as the thighbone, is the strongest bone in the human body.
Muscles used for deliberate acts are _____________.
Muscles that carry out many automatic body functions are _________.
Muscles found only in the heart are __________.
The _____________ is located in the brain and spinal cord.
Central Nervous System
The _____________ includes nerves that connect to the spinal cord and branch out to every other part of the body.
Peripheral Nervous System
The _________________ delivers oxygen to and removes carbon dioxide from the blood.
The ________________ pumps blood throughout the body.
The _______________ has two main functions: ingesting and digesting food and nutrients.
The ______________ regulates body systems by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream from glands.
The _____________ is responsible for reproduction and waste removal.
The _____ serves as the protective covering for the inside of the body.
What is LOC?
Level of Consciousness
What is AVPU?
Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive. Used for identifying patient responsiveness.
What is perfusion?
What is cyanosis?
Blue coloring to the skin
What is DOTS?
Deformities, Open Injuries, Tenderness, Swelling. Used for evaluating a patient during a physical or secondary assessment.
What is PMS?
Pulse, Motor, Sensory. Used for assessing a patients extremities during a physical or secondary assessment.
What is SAMPLE?
Signs and Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past History, Last Oral Intake, Events. Used for acquiring useful patient information.
An _____________ is a technique used when a patient is in immediate danger or the patient's location prevents providing care to that patient or another patient.
The ___________ helps maintain an open airway if the patient becomes nauseated or vomits and may prevent positional asphyxia. Involves rolling the patient onto their left side with their knees slightly bent.
_____________ is a term used to describe the placement of a body in a position that interferes with the ability to breathe.
What is a MCI?
Multiple Casualty Incident
_________ is the term given to sorting and classifying patients.
What is START?
Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment. Involves classifying patients as red, yellow, green, or black based on severity of injuries.
What is ICS?
Incident Command System
The failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body.
A closed injury that is discolored and painful at the injury site.
The obvious discoloration (black and blue) of the soft tissue at the injury site.
A closed injury that appears as a discolored lump.
The soft tissue raised when blood or other body fluids pool beneath the skin at the injury site.
An open wound caused by scraping, shearing away, or rubbing the outermost skin layer.
The gross removal of an appendage.
Injury characterized by a flap of torn or cut skin that may not be completely loose from the body.
Open wound where the organs protrude.
Open wound in soft tissue that varies in depth and width.
Result of driving a sharp or blunt, pointed object into soft tissue.
Bright red spurts from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged artery.
Dark red blood flows steadily from a wound, indicating a severed or damaged vein.
Dark red blood oozes slowly from a wound, indicating damaged capillaries.
A device that restricts blood flow to an extremity such as an arm or a leg.
What is an airtight dressing called?
Results from blunt trauma to the chest area.
Closed Chest Injury
A type of closed chest injury that occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractured in two or more places and become free floating.
Occurs when penetration opens the chest area.
Open Chest Injury
A type of open chest injury in which air and blood escape into the area surrounding the lungs, creating a change in pressure in the chest cavity.
Sucking Chest Injury
An open wound where the organs protrude from the abdominal cavity.
The medical term for a broken bone.
A fracture in which the skin at the injury site is broken, and the bone may protrude through the skin.
A fracture in which the skin at the injury site remains intact.
Occurs when the end of a bone comes out of its socket at the joint.
Damage the first layer of skin, which becomes red and feels very painful.
Superficial (first-degree) burns
Damage the first two skin layers, which blister and feel very painful.
Partial thickness (second-degree) burns
Damage all skin layers and affect muscles and nerves.
Full thickness (third-degree) burns
A burn to any part of the airway.
Organ that holds the developing fetus.
Neck of the uterus; contains a mucus plug.
Disk-shaped inner lining of the uterus; provides nourishment and oxygen to the developing fetus.
Passage the fetus is pushed through during delivery.
Cord connecting the fetus and the mother; transports nourishment to the fetus.
Bag of fluid surrounding the fetus.
The first stage of labor which begins with the first contraction and continues until the fetus enters the birth canal.
The second stage of labor, the fetus moves through the birth canal and is born.
The third stage of labor, the placenta separates from the uterine wall and moves through the birth canal for delivery.
The umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the baby's birth.
Prolapsed Umbilical Cord
Umbilical cord wraps around the baby's neck and you cannot remove the cord.
Umbilical cord around the neck
Occurs when the fetus's feet or buttocks present down the birth canal first.
Normal delivery is not possible if the fetus's leg or arm appears first.
If the mother bleeds severely (more than one or two cups of blood)
Excessive bleeding after delivery
A baby who dies long before delivery generally has an unpleasant odor and exhibits no signs of life.
Results from the narrowing of airway passages, which causes breathing difficulties.
Damage to part of the brain due to rupture or blockage of a blood vessel.
Caused by oxygen deprivation to part of the heart, typically from a blocked blood vessel.
A disease in which the body does not produce or properly use insulin.
A hormone needed to convert sugar, starches, and other food into energy needed for daily life.
An excessive cooling of the body's core temperature.
A localized injury from overexposure to cold.
Occurs when the body cannot recover from the fluid loss in a heat-related emergency.
Occurs when poison enters the body through the mouth.
Poisoning by ingestion
Occurs when poison enters the body through the mouth or nose.
Poisoning by inhalation
Occurs when poison enters the body through a small opening in the skin.
Poisoning by injection
Occurs when poison enters the body through contact with the surface of the skin.
Poisoning by absorption
A severe allergic reaction in which air passages swell and restrict breathing.
A state of extreme mental and physiological excitement characterized by exceptional agitation and hyperactivity, overheating, excessive tearing of the eyes, hostility, superhuman strength, aggression, acute paranoia, and endurance without apparent fatigue.
The degree of care that a reasonable person should exercise
scope of care
Negligence occurs if what 4 conditions are present?
Duty to act, breach of standard of care, causation, damages
Agreement, approval, or permission as to some act of purpose, especially given voluntarily by a competent person
True or False: You must have a parent or legal guardian's permission before providing care to a minor or mentally ill person
True or False: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment for themselves and their children
What are the five stages of grief?
denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
What two basic behaviors does BSI include?
Use of medical personal protection equipment and personal behaviors that reduce risk
What are the two types of protection masks?
filter masks and CPR masks
True or False: There is a vaccine for Hepatitis B
True or False: There is a vaccine for Hepatitis C
What are the three stages of HIV infection?
asymptomatic, symptomatic, AIDS
True or False: There is a vaccine for HIV
Hepatitis ____ is a serious illness transmitted by food
___________ are among the most common infectious diseases in the US
What do platelets do?
initiate the blood-clotting process
What glands make up the endocrine system?
thyroid, adrenals, ovaries, testes, and the pituitary
How do you calculate someone's breathing rate? (*
according to the book
Count the number of breaths taken over ten seconds, multiply this number by ten to arrive at the average breathing rate
What is the normal breathing rate for adult/child/infant?
adult: 12-20 breaths per minute
child: 15-30 breaths per minute
infant: 25-50 breaths per minute
What terms do you use to note the quality of breathing?
rhythm (regular or irregular), depth or manner of breathing (normal, shallow, deep), labored or painful breathing
How do you take a patient's pulse? (*
according to the book
Count the number of beats for 10 seconds and multiply this number by ten to arrive at the patient's average pulse rate
Where do you check the pulse on an infant?
What is the normal pulse rate for adult/child/infant?
What is the most common non-emergency move for a responsive, ambulatory (capable of walking) patient?
According to START classifications, what do red/yellow/green/black codes mean?
red - immediate
yellow - delayed
green - ambulatory (minor)
black - deceased
If respiratory rate is over 30/min (during triage), what color code should they be tagged?
What are some signs and symptoms of shock?
anxiety, excessive thirst, eyes that are vacant, pale or cool skin, weak pulse
A contusion is an indication of ________ bleeding
A large contusion - those the size of the patient's fist - may indicate a _____ percent blood loss
What is the difference between dressing and bandages?
Dressings are coverings applied directly to wounds; bandages are coverings that hold dressings in place
What are the main types of eye injuries?
eyelid injuries, chemical burns, objects impaled in the eye, and an extruded eyeball
What are the types of force (under mechanisms of injury)?
Direct force (causes injury at the point of impact);
Indirect force (causes injury past the point of impact);
Twisting force (causes injury when one part of the limb is stationary and the other twists)
What does a swath do?
supports the arm, taking pressure off the collarbone and prevents the arm from moving away from the body
Burn injuries are classified by ________
Burns on the ___, ____, ____, and ___ should be considered a critical burn
face, hands, feet, and genitals
The major long-term concern about burns is preventing _______
What are signs and symptoms of asthma?
breathing difficulty while exhaling, rapid breathing, cyanosis, and a wheezing or whistling sound
What are the signs and symptoms of stroke?
paralysis of extremities, confusion, facial drooping, difficulty speaking and with vision, diminished consciousness
What are the signs of symptoms of a heart attack?
chest pain, nausea, irregular pulse, cool/pale skin
What are the two types of diabetes?
Type I - insulin dependent, juvenile diabetes
Type II - diabetes that can be controlled by diet or medication
What are the signs and symptoms of a diabetic emergency?
intoxicated appearance, sweet or fruity or acetone-smelling breath, flushed and warm skin, seizures
What are signs and symptoms of hypothermia?
shivering, numbness, low energy, sluggish pupils, bluish skin, cardiac arrest
What are the three stages of hyperthermia?
heat cramps, heat exhaustion, and heatstroke
What are signs and symptoms of heat related emergencies?
cramps, headache, appetite loss, vomiting, altered mental state, strong and rapid pulse that decreases as condition worsens
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